MYCOVIRO - CH 59 Book Pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Vaginal Samples

-transported to lab within ? hrs using culture transport swabs

A

24

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2
Q

Vaginal Samples

-transported to lab within 24 hrs using __

A

culture transport swabs

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3
Q

vaginal samples: both __ and __ agars be plated

A

selective and inhibitory

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4
Q

vaginal samples must be screened for __, incubated at 30C for 7 days

A

yeasts

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5
Q

vaginal samples must be incubated at (temp and how many days)

A

30C for 7 days

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6
Q

what urine sx is unacceptable for culture

A

24-hr urine

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7
Q

urine sample media must contain what ?

A

antibacterial agents

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8
Q

All tissues must be processed before culturing by: (2)

A
  • Mincing

* Or placement in high speed lab blender

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9
Q

express the cytoplasmic contents of cells using pressure from the action of rapidly moving metal paddles

A

stomacher lab blender

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10
Q

what specimen may be placed directly onto the surface of appropriate culture media

A

BM

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11
Q

For optimal recovery, a battery of media should be used:

2

A
  • Media with and without cycloheximide

* Media with and without antibacterial agent (not necessary if specimen is from a sterile site)

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12
Q

Agar plates – preferred because (3)

A
  • Provide better aeration
  • Larger surface area for better isolation of colonies
  • Greater ease of handling
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13
Q

agar tends to dehydrate during extended incubation period

–minimized using: ??

A

culture dishes containing at least 40 mL agar and placing them in a humidified incubator

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14
Q

ADV OF SCREW-CAPPED CULTURE TUBES

A
  • Easily stored
  • Require less space for incubation
  • Easily handled
  • Lower dehydration rate
  • Less hazardous
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15
Q

DISADV OF SCREW-CAPPED CULTURE TUBES

A
  • Poor colony isolation
  • Reduced SA
  • Tendency to promote anaerobiosis
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16
Q

if using screwcapped culture tubes, after inoculation, must be placed in a horizontal position for at least ??? hours to allow the specimen to absorb the agar surface and avoid settling at the bottom of tube

A

1-2

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17
Q

?? tubes unsatisfactory for fungal cultures

A

cotton-plugged tubes

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18
Q

cultures should be examined at least how many times weekly during incubation

A

3x

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19
Q

– added to any media that contain or lack antibiotics

  • if it is included, a medium w/o it must also be used
    • partially or completely inhibits…
A

Cycloheximide

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20
Q

– recommended method for direct microscopic examination

A

KOH preparation

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21
Q
  • better than KOH preparation
  • slides are observed using 1) fluorescent microscopy (optimal because fungal cells fluoresce) or 2) bright field microscopy
A

Calcoflour white stain

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22
Q

Serology testing - may be useful for (4, CHAB)

A
  • Cryptococcus
  • Blastomyces
  • Histoplasma
  • Aspergillus
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23
Q

– useful but not for immunocompromised patients (incapable of producing a measurable humoral response)

A

Antibody testing

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24
Q

– sensitive method, difficult to perform and interpret

  • requires a delay in testing that extends from exposure to onset of symptoms
  • detection of antibody can take 2 to 3 months
  • cross reactions with other fungal antibodies may be a problem
A

Complement fixation (CF)

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25
Q

– simple, cost-effective procedure

  • 100% specific, relatively insensitive, not used as a screening tool
  • requires 2-3 weeks to be positive
A

Immunodiffusion testing

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26
Q

– frequently negative in immunocompromised patients especially early in the infection

A

Enzyme immunoassays

27
Q
  • not accepted as a routine diagnostic tool in mycology
A

Molecular Detection

28
Q

– biophysical method that reduces time required to specifically identify fungal organisms

A

MALDI-TOF

29
Q

MALDI-TOF MEANING

A

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization

30
Q

For Yeast ID
Many automated and semiautomated commercial systems have been designed with WHAT tests because C and N source differences are key to yeast differentiation)

A

assimilation and fermentation

31
Q

o – differentiates yeast presumptively

A

Chromogenic agar

32
Q

ID factor Most helpful when a mold culture is examined

A

Growth rate

33
Q

– form mature colonies in 11 to 21 days

A

slow growers

34
Q

– 6 to 10 days

A

Intermediate-growers

35
Q

– 5 days or less

A

Rapid-growers

36
Q

– various elevations on agar plate

A

• Colony topography

37
Q

Colony topography

furrowed or convoluted

A

verrucose

38
Q

Colony topography

slightly raised in the center

A

umbonate

39
Q

Colony topography

– furrows radiate out from the center

A

rugose

40
Q

colony texture

loose, high aerial mycelium

A

cottony

41
Q

colony texture

low aerial mycelium resembling a velvet cloth

A

velvety

42
Q

colony texture

smooth surface with no aerial mycelium

A

glabrous

43
Q

colony texture

– dense, powdery, like sugar granules

A

granular

44
Q

colony texture

high aerial mycelium like slightly matted down

A

wooly

45
Q

o Fungi Preparation for Microscopic Examination (4)

A
  • Cellophane (Scotch) tape preparation – traditional; easy and quick
  • Wet mount
  • Tease mount
  • Microslide culture method
46
Q

Fungi Preparation for Microscopic Examination – traditional; easy and quick

A

Cellophane (Scotch) tape preparation

47
Q

Fungi Preparation for Microscopic Examination

used when greater detail of morphology is required

A

• Microslide culture method

48
Q

hyphae type

curved freely branching, antler-like

A

antler hyphae

49
Q

hyphae type

– enlarged, club-shaped

A

Racquet hyphae

50
Q

hyphae type

produced by some dermatophytes; coiled corkscrewlike

A

spiral hyphae

51
Q

type of hyphae common in dermatophytes

A

spiral

52
Q

asci contains how many ascospores

A

4-8

53
Q

Types of Conidia (both types not specific)– small, unicellular, round, elliptical or pyriform
-may be born directly on the side of a hyphal strand or at the end of a conidiophore

A

Microconidia

54
Q

Types of Conidia (both types not specific)
large, multiseptate, club or spindle shaped
-borne on a short to long conidiophore
-may be smooth or rough walled

A

Macroconidia

55
Q

– pinching off

-manner by which conidia are freed from their point of attachment

A

Abstriction

56
Q

– formed directly from the hyphae by fragmentation through the points of septation
-mature: square, rectangular, barrel-shaped, thick-walled cells

A

Arthroconidia

57
Q

– round, thick-walled spores formed directly from differentiation of hyphae in which there is a concentration of protoplasm and nutrient material
-resistant resting spores

A

Chlamydoconidia (chlamydospores)

58
Q

-may be intercalary (w/in hyphae) or terminal (end of hyphae)

A

Chlamydoconidia (chlamydospores)

59
Q

Chlamydoconidia (chlamydospores) within hyphae

A

intercalary

60
Q

Chlamydoconidia (chlamydospores) at end of hyphae

A

terminal

61
Q

o If a laminar flow BSC is used, a BSC with??? not necessary.

A

gloves

62
Q

• Yeast cultures may be handled on a __

A

bench top

63
Q

??? is suitable for decontaminating a loop used to transfer yeast cultures

A

Eletric incinerator or gas flame

64
Q

• Cultures of organisms suspected of being pathogens should be??? to prevent laboratory contamination and should be autoclaved as soon as definitive ID is made.

A

sealed with tape