Bacte Lec - AST Flashcards

1
Q

challenging a bacteria on what antibiotic they are susceptible or resistant

A

antimicrobial susceptibility testing

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2
Q

determines best antibiotic to be prescribed by doctors

A

antimicrobial susceptibility testing

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3
Q

3 stages of antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

1) culture and sensitivity
2) isolation and identification of causative agent
3) susceptibility & resistance to antimicrobial agents

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4
Q

suspected organisms in urine sample

A

Providencia
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella

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5
Q

agar for Escherichia coli

A

Gram negative

EMB/MacConkey

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6
Q

Culture media commonly used for urine sample

A

MacConkey Agar
Eosin Methylene Blue Agar
CAP - not commonly used
BAP

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7
Q

CM for Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Blood Agar

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8
Q

CM for Gram negative cocci

A

Chocolate Agar

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9
Q

usual causative agent of UTI

A

Gram negative enteric

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10
Q

streaking pattern for culture of urine

A

clock method

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11
Q

heavy infection meaning

A

UTI

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12
Q

light infection meaning

A

only caused by normal flora

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13
Q

yellowing slant and butt meaning

A

organism is a lactose fermenter

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14
Q

with gas formation meaning

A

organism: Escherichia coli or enterobacter

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15
Q

broth for indole testing

A

tryptone broth

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16
Q

cm for indole testing, motility, h2s production

A

SIM

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17
Q

cm for assessing capability of utilizing citrate

A

simmon citrate agar

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18
Q

cm for assessing capability of producing acid/alkali (aceto___) based on carbohydrate fermentation

A

Methyl Red Voges Proskauer Medium

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19
Q

duration of C/S

A

3-5 DAYS

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20
Q

produced by microorganisms, inhibit growth of other microorganisms

A

antibiotics

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21
Q

destroy microorganisms through inihibiting their development or action

A

antimicrobial agents

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22
Q

mold with antibiotic activity

A

Penicillin notatum or Penicillin chrysogenum

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23
Q

means bacteria is capable of producing secondary metabolites which can inhibit growth of other bacteria

A

zone of inhibition/clear zone

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24
Q

which phase of bacterial growth curve shows symptoms

A

log phase

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25
Q

which phase of bacterial growth curve represents the bacteria still adjusting, just inoculated, synthesizing enzymes

A

lag phase

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26
Q

During this phase, the microorganisms are in a rapidly growing and dividing state.

A

log phase

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27
Q

During this phase, cells undergoing division is equal to the number of cell death, and finally bacterium stops its division completely

A

stationary phase

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28
Q

During this phase, the individual is feeling better

A

stationary phase

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29
Q

during this phase, the number of dead cells exceeds the number of live cells.

A

decline phase

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30
Q

RIP

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrizanamide

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31
Q

classif of antibiotic
specific attack
limited spectrum of action

A

narrow spectrum

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32
Q

examples of narrow spectrum antibiotic

A

vancomycin

penicillin

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33
Q

narrow spectrum antibiotic - effective against Gram +

A

PENICILLIN

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34
Q

narrow spectrum antibiotic- effective against Gram + ESP S. aureus

A

Vancomycin

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35
Q

classif of antibiotic

against Gram positive and gram negative

A

broad spectrum

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36
Q

disadvantage of broad spectrum antibiotic

A

may inhibit normal flora

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37
Q

examples of broad spectrum antibiotic

A

tetracycline, chloramphenicol, azithromax, augmentin

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38
Q

type of antibiotic not prescribed when C/S is already performed

A

broad spectrum antibiotic

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39
Q

result of primary infection

A

superinfection

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40
Q

superinfection of these 3 sites is difficult to treat

A

mouth, Respiratory tract, GUT,

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41
Q

Common agents of superinfection

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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42
Q

classif of resistance to antimicrobial agents

before abuse

A

intrinsic resistance

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43
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is resistant to

A

novobiocin

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44
Q

genus resistant to polymyxin

A

Proteus, Providencia, Morganella, Edwardsiella

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45
Q

classif of resistance to antimicrobial agents

may result from chromosomal mutations or from plasmid

A

acquired resistance

46
Q

classif of resistance to antimicrobial agents

necessitates prior exposure to antimicrobial agent

A

acquired resistance

47
Q

mechanisms of resistance [4]

A

modification of the target site
inactivation of antimicrobial agent
decreased permeability of cell wall
alteration of binding or ribosomes

48
Q

mechanisms of resistance

antibiotic’s ability to bind to cell wall or ribosome is altered

A

modification of the target site

49
Q

mechanisms of resistance

bacterial enzymes convert the active drug into inactive form

A

inactivation of antimicrobial agent

50
Q

mechanisms of resistance

poor entry of antibiotic into bacterial cell wall

A

decreased permeability of cell wall

51
Q

mechanisms of resistance

resistance of pseudomonas to certain aminoglycosides

A

alteration of binding of ribosomes

52
Q

protein synthesis inhibition

bacteriostatic or bactericidal

A

bacteriostatic

53
Q

cell wall synthesis inhibition

bacteriostatic or bactericidal

A

bactericidal

54
Q

inhibition of cell wall synthesis

A
penicillin
ampicillin
methicillin
carbenicillin
vancomycin
cephalosporin
55
Q

interference with protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit [7]

A
gentamicin
amikacin
neomycin
tobramycin
tetracycline
spectinomycin
streptomycin
56
Q

interference with protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal subunit

A

chloramphenicol

57
Q

competitive inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A

sulfonmethoxazole

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

58
Q

zones of inhibition measured by [2]

A

ruler or caliper

59
Q

when can clinicians increase dose of drug

A

when the organism is found to be moderately susceptible to drug

60
Q

indicator of relative susceptibility

A

DIAMETER of zone of inhibition

61
Q

principle of kirby bauer disk diffusion method

A

diffusion

62
Q

relationship between diameter of zone of inhibition and logarithm of MIC antibiotic

A

INVERSE LINEAR

63
Q

lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits in vitro bacterial growth

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

64
Q

highest dilution of antibiotic that inhibits in vitro bacterial growth

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

65
Q

dilution factor

A

total volume/ amount of solute

66
Q

indicates presence of growth

A

turbidity

67
Q

well-defined chemical composition

A

medium

68
Q

composition of medium for AST must be [2]

A

reproducible

constant

69
Q

parameters in AST

A
Medium - MHA
Agar depth
pH
Density of inoculum
Barium sulfate
70
Q

composition of MHA [6]

A
Beef infusions
Nucleic acids
vitamins
casein hydrolysate [peptone source]
agar [solidifying agent]
cornstarch [neutralize fatty acids]
71
Q

for fastidious bacteria, MHA is supplemented with

A

blood

72
Q

increased Ca and Mg, effect to Aminoglycosides

A

decreased activity of AG against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

73
Q

increased Ca and Mg, effect to tetracycline

A

decreased activity against all bacteria

74
Q

decreased Ca and Mg, effect to Aminoglycosides

A

inc activity of AG against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

75
Q

decreased Ca and Mg, effect to tetracycline

A

inc activity against all bacteria

76
Q

pH for AST

A

7.2 TO 7.4

77
Q

High pH levels (basic), effect

A

inc activity of aminoglycosides, erythromycin, clindamycin

78
Q

Low pH levels (acidic), effect

A

dec activity of aminoglycosides, erythromycin, clindamycin

79
Q

High pH levels (basic), effect to zone of inhibition

A

false susceptibility/ wider zone of inhibition

80
Q

Low pH levels (acidic), effect to ZoI

A

false RESISTANCE/ narrow zone of inhibition

81
Q

High pH levels (basic), effect to tetracycline

A

dec activity

82
Q

Low pH levels (acidic), effect to tetracycline

A

inc activity

83
Q

agar depth

A

4 mm

84
Q

thick agar depth meaning

A

false resistant

85
Q

thin agar depth meaning

A

false susceptible

86
Q

composition of mcfarland standard

A

1% BaCl2 and 1% H2SO4

87
Q

Standard cell density

A

1x10^8 CFU/mL

88
Q

The higher the mcfarland standard, ___ turbid

A

higher/greater

89
Q

too light (turbdidity)

A

false susceptible

90
Q

too heavy

A

false resistant

91
Q

susbtitute to mcfarland

A

spectrophotometer

92
Q

wavelength for turbidity

A

600 nm

93
Q

streaking pattern

A

overlapping method

94
Q

used to fish out bacteria from pure young culture

A

STERILE cotton swab

95
Q

after inoculation to MHA, allow it to stand for ___ before placing disks

A

3-5 min not longer than 15 min

96
Q

after inoculation to MHA, allow it to stand for 3-5 before placing disks so as

A

allow absorption of excess moisture

97
Q

within __ min, disks are applied firmly on MHA

A

15

98
Q

how many disks can a plate 150 mm diameter accommodate

A

12 disks 8 outer ring, 4 center

99
Q

in storing antibiotic disks, what type of freezer/ref be used

A

frost-free

100
Q

antibiotic disks and disk dispensers kept with ___ to prevent deterioration

A

dessicant

101
Q

to minimize condensation, should be adjusted to

A

room temp [antibiotic disk]

102
Q

temp for long storage of antibiotic disk

A

14C below in a non-frost freezer

103
Q

temp for working supply of antibiotic disk

A

2-8C

104
Q

Incubation
temp
hrs
type of air

A

35C 16-18 hrs ambient air

105
Q

lower temp of incubation results to

A

larger zones of inhibition

106
Q

plates should not be stacked more than

A

5 high

107
Q

at what temp MRSA not detected

A

> 35C

108
Q

type of incubation/ ph level wherein activity of some antibiotic is altered

A

CO2 incubation

109
Q

swarming motility

A

Proteus vulgaris or Proteus mirabilis

110
Q

appears greenish due to thiocyanine

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

111
Q

effect of prolonged incubation to zone of inhibition

A

smaller diameter

112
Q

reason for the smaller diameter of ZoI after prolonged incubation

A

presence of contaminants