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Pharm study guide Flashcards

1
Q

I am an isotonic intravenous saline solution.

A

0.9 % normal saline (NS) or (NaCl)

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2
Q

I can be given orally or as an enema to treat hyperkalemia. (styrofoam calms big kalema)

A

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (potassium exchange resin) - THIS IS KAYEXOLATE

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3
Q

I am a blood product used for patients with coagulation disorders.

A

Fresh frozen plasma

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4
Q

I am a natural protein used to expand plasma volume

A

albumin

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5
Q

I am a hypertonic intravenous saline solution.

A

3% sodium chloride

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6
Q

I am the principle cation located inside cells.

A

potassium

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7
Q

I am the principle cation located outside cells.

A

sodium

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8
Q

I am used to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of an individual’s blood, but I do not contain plasma. (packed so tight there’s no room for plasma)

A

packed RBC

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9
Q

I am a derivative of sugar, and am used to increase plasma volume by drawing fluid into the intravascular space from the interstitial space.

A

dextran

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10
Q

I am known as “half normal” saline and am given intravenously.

A

0.45 % saline solution

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11
Q

montelukast (LTRA) - is it prophyaxis or chronic? (Luke is everywhere)

A

used for prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma

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12
Q

Provide a spacer if the patient has

A

difficulty coordinating breathing with inhaler activation

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13
Q

furosemide caution - about standing…

A

caution to rise slowly after lying or sitting to a standing position due to hypotension

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14
Q

60% of adult body weight is water. Death can occur when

A

20-25% of total body water is lost

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15
Q

pink puffer meds

A
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16
Q

ACH

A

triggers bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion and inflammation

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17
Q

montelukast trade name

A

Singulair®

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18
Q

montelukast is prophylaxis or chronic treatment? (Luke is always with me)

A

Prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma

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19
Q

can use montelukast for children 2 and older for what?

A

allergic rhinitis. otherwise it’s

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20
Q

montelukast MOA (Luke)

A

prevent leukotrines from attaching in lungs and circulation

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21
Q

albuterol adverse effects (Al could have anxiety or be calm)

A

hypo or hypertension, vascular headache, tremors

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22
Q

How long to wait in between albuterol and fluticasone (steroid) inhalations***

A

several minutes

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23
Q

Acetylcystine - trade name (Ace has mucus)

A

Mucomyst

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24
Q

Mucomyst*** and trade name (Ace has mucus)

A

breaks up the mucus in the respiratory tract and reduces its viscosity, making it easier to cough up and clear from the lungs.
Acetylcysteine Solution

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25
Q

normal GFR rates (GFR doesn’t watch 120 min)

A

90 - 120 mL/min.

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26
Q

Potassium-wasting diuretics ex. (Thia’s wasting is LOC o)

A

Thiazide and thiazide-like
 Loop or high-ceiling
 Osmotic
 Carbonic-anhydrase inhibitor

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27
Q

loop diuretics ex (I’de do the loop if I were you)

A

 Bumetanide (Bumex®)
 Furosemide (Lasix®) *
 Ethacrynic acid (edecrin®)
 Torsemide (Demadex®)

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28
Q

loop diuretics and diabetes - can cause what?

A

Hyperglycemia

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29
Q

loop diuretics - risk of what? (pee out what?)

A

hypokalemia

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30
Q

furosemide used for

A

hypertension, acute congestive heart failure, edema

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31
Q

furosemide precautions - what happens when you lose too much water? and what else?

A

dehydration and hyperglycemia

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32
Q

thiazide diuretics - end in

A

azide, ex Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ®)

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33
Q

thiazide diuretics precautions (thia has too much calcium)

A

hypercalcemia

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34
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide - peak (thia peaked at 46)

A

4 -6 hours

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35
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide - used for what disorders (thia is insipidous)

A

diabetes insipidous, hypertension, CHF

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36
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide - when does it not work? (Thia doesn’t like GFR)

A

when GFR is low

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37
Q

spironolactone peak (spiro is slow as hell)

A

48 hours

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38
Q

spironolactone MOA (excretes what and retains what)

A

excretes Na in distal, but retains K and H

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39
Q

mannitol trade name (Oz the man is a troll)

A

Osmitrol®

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40
Q

mannitol - MOA (man, oz is fast) - think - it’s an osmotic

A

osmotic diuretic, increases osmotic pressure. RAPID. immediate onset.

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41
Q

mannitol uses (Oz is serious)

A

serious stuff - elevated ICP, renal failure, spinal cord pressure, intraocular pressure

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42
Q

mannitol precautions (Man, Oz and cold don’t mix)

A

may crystallize at low temps, filtered IV only

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43
Q

acetazolamide trade name (Zola has diamonds)

A

Diamox®

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44
Q

acetazolamide type of drug (Ana and Zola)

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (diuretic)

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45
Q

acetazolamide onset (Zola for just an hour)

A

1 - 1.5 hrs

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46
Q

acetazolamide uses (Zola on the mountain)

A

glaucoma, seizures, CHF, edema, altitude sickness.

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47
Q

acetazolamide precautions (Zola has Ca issues too)

A

hypercalciuria

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48
Q

acetazolamide adverse effects (Zola has kidney stones)

A

kidney stones. numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes, and taste alterations
(parageusia), especially for carbonated drinks.

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49
Q

take diuretics at what time of day?

A

morning to avoid nocturia

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50
Q

extracellular

A

Interstitial fluid (ISF): fluid in space between cells, tissues, and organs

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51
Q

crystalloids ex. (Krystal likes saline and sugar)

A

saline and dextrose

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52
Q

blood products Pull fluid from (blood is extra)

A

extravascular space into intravascular space (plasma expanders)

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53
Q

Cryoprecipitate and plasma protein factors (PPF) when (plasma is serious)

A

Management of acute bleeding (greater than 50% slow blood loss or 20% acutely)

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54
Q

 Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) (if it’s frozen, it’s clotting)

A

 Increase clotting factor levels in patients with demonstrated deficiency

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55
Q

PRBC

A

packed RBCs

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56
Q

PRBCs and whole blood (Packed with oxygen)

A

To increase oxygen-carrying capacity in patients with anemia, substantial hemoglobin deficits

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57
Q

PRBCs: for blood loss up to____ of total blood volume

A

PRBCs: for blood loss up to 25% of total blood volume

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58
Q

Whole blood: for blood loss over_____of total blood volume

A

Whole blood: for blood loss over 25% of total blood volume

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59
Q

colloids are

A

protein substances, increase COP (colloid osmotic pressure)

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60
Q

colloids move fluid from

A

interstitial compartment to
plasma compartment

61
Q

ex of colloids - AND

A

albumin (from humans) dextran (glucose)

62
Q

crystalloids good for treating what? (krystal is good for dryness)

A

Better for treating dehydration rather than expanding plasma volume

63
Q

crystalloid ex. (Krystal has saline, ringers, and D5)

A

 Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride)
 Half normal saline (0.45% sodium chloride)
 Hypertonic saline (3% sodium chloride)
 Lactated Ringer’s solution
 D5W
 Plasma-Lyte

64
Q

reasons to take colloids (collide with my liver, nephros, and burns) think, youre out of protein when what happens?

A

liver failure, nephrosis, burns

65
Q

adverse effects of crystalloids (Krystal makes you puffy)

A

edema, may be short lived

66
Q

hyponatremia symptoms (tu in kitchen)

A

Lethargy, stomach cramps, hypotension, vomiting, diarrhea, seizures

67
Q

hypernatremia symptoms (red man salt makes my muscles weak)

A

muscle weakness, confusion, edema, Red, flushed skin; dry, sticky mucous membranes; increased
thirst; elevated temperature; decreased urine output

68
Q

mild hyponatremia treatment

A

oral sodium and fluid restriction

69
Q

severe hyponatremia treatment

A

Treated with intravenous normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution

70
Q

Burns pts can have what? (Kalema has burns)

A

burn patients can
have either hypokalemia
or hyperkalemia

71
Q

what combined with digoxin can cause digtoxicity?

A

hypokalemia

72
Q

hyperkalemia symptoms (Kalema is opposite)

A

Muscle weakness, paresthesia, paralysis, cardiac rhythm
irregularities (leading to possible ventricular fibrillation
and cardiac arrest)

73
Q

Treatment of severe hyperkalemia (big kalema is severely bi)

A

IV sodium bicarbonate, calcium salts, dextrose with insulin

74
Q

hypomagnesium treatment? (maggie hospital)

A

glue

75
Q

K rate of infusion

A

Rate should not exceed 20 mEq/hour (only if on heart monitor) 10 if not

76
Q

oral K must be

A

Must be diluted in water or fruit juice to minimize GI distress
or irritation

77
Q

K IV - NEVER EVER

A

NEVER give as an IV bolus or undiluted

78
Q

K with renal disease?

A

Impaired kidney function leads to higher serum levels, possibly toxicity

79
Q

GFR rates

A

90, 60, 30, 15

80
Q

albuterol trade name (albuterol provents)

A

proventil

81
Q

what type of beta agonist is albuterol?

A

selective Beta 2

82
Q

ex of Nonselective beta-adrenergics (the met doesn’t select)

A

metaproterenol (Alupent®)

83
Q

metaproterenol trade name (I’ll repent at the met)

A

Alupent®

84
Q

does Sudafed cause rebound?

A

pseudoephedrine - nope. Orals don’t cause rebound

85
Q

can’t use antihistamines with what illnesses?

A

asthma and pneumonia (or lower resp. diseases)

86
Q

anticholernagenics ex (anti-IT)

A

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent®) and tiotropium
(Spiriva®)

87
Q

asthma - Alveolar ducts - open or closed?

A

open, but air is trapped

88
Q

decongestant rebound happens with what?

A

with inhaled or topical.

89
Q

non-opioid anti-tussives work how? (tuss has stretched my patience)

A

Suppress the cough reflex by numbing the stretch
receptors in the respiratory tract and preventing
the cough reflex from being stimulated

90
Q

ex antitussive - what is the generic name?

A

dextromethorphan (Vicks Formula 44®,
Robitussin-DM®)

91
Q

Vicks generic (Vick is an orphan)

A

dextromethorphan

92
Q

Luke and drug interactions - just check what before taking it?

A

there are many, and be sure to check liver before starting

93
Q

use antitussives with what types of cough?

A

Used only for nonproductive coughs!

94
Q

Beta2 (albuterol) - side effects (Al can go high or low with tension)

A

hypo or hypertension

95
Q

Anticholinergics side effects (Colte makes me nervous)

A

dry mouth, palpitations, headache, anxiety

96
Q

topical decongestants ex.

A

flunisolide (Nasalide®)
 fluticasone (Flonase®)

97
Q

tiotropium trade name (Tito has spirit)

A

(Spiriva®)

98
Q

Ipratropium bromide trade name (Pro-vent pee with atro-vent)

A

(Atrovent®)

99
Q

anticcccholernegics - anti-cccccecretions

A

you can’t pee with em tropium

100
Q

H2 famotidine trade name (Pepcid if fam)

A

famotidine (Pepcid)

101
Q

H2 , ranitidine trade name (rant about zant)

A

ranitidine (Zantac)

102
Q

H2 - cimetidine trade name (cemented in tagamet)

A

cimetidine (Tagamet)

103
Q

antihistamine contraindications (antihistamines hurt my heart, eyes, and kidneys)

A

 Use with caution in increased intraocular pressure,
cardiac or renal disease, hypertension, asthma,
COPD, peptic ulcer disease, BPH, or pregnancy

104
Q

antihistamine H2 (2 dine on my stomach)

A

 H2 blockers or H2 antagonists
 Used to reduce gastric acid in peptic ulcer diseasef
 Examples: cimetidine (Tagamet), ranitidine (Zantac),
famotidine (Pepcid)

105
Q

benzonatate - what is it? (coughing on my benz)

A

anti-tussive

106
Q

benzonatate trade name (Tesla is not a benz)

A

Tessalon Perles®

107
Q

guaifenesin trade name

A

Mucinex

108
Q

expectorants - implications - caution with who?

A

Expectorants should be used with caution in the elderly

109
Q

if you take chewables, how long to wait before eating or drinking?

A

30 - 35 min

110
Q

nasal decongestants - (think ephedrine) precaution with what patients?

A

Decongestants may cause hypertension,
palpitations, and CNS stimulation—avoid in
patients with these conditions

111
Q

3 types of decongestants (AAC the decongestants on the test)

A

 Adrenergics
 Anticholinergics
 corticosteroids

112
Q

nonselective adrenergics (epi pen no beta)

A

alpha, beta 1, beta 2 - epinephrine

113
Q

Nonselective beta-adrenergics (metros are nonselective, if you know what I mean)

A

beta 1 and beta 2 - metaproterenol (Alupent®),

114
Q

Selective beta2

A

albuterol (Proventil®, others)

115
Q

bronchodilators mimic what?

A

they sympathetic system

116
Q

colloids - are they superior?

A

Superior to crystalloids in PV expansion, but more
expensive

117
Q

types of crystalloids (Krystal can hydrate, isolate, maintain or go hyper with relationships)

A

 Hydrating solutions
 Isotonic solutions
 Maintenance solutions
 Hypertonic solutions

118
Q

crystalloids are good for (Krystal lite is good for fluid loss)

A

fluid loss and promotes urine

119
Q

Metabolic acidosis = you need what? (acid needs K)

A

K+

120
Q

things that cause hypokalemia

A

Alkalosis
Ketoacidosis
vomiting
diarrhea

121
Q

treatment for hypermagnesium *** (maggie in the hospital)

A

IV magnesium, calcium gluconate

122
Q

Before giving potassium

A

assess ECG

123
Q

one side effect of steroids (little kalema can’t take steroids)

A

hypokalemia

124
Q

Loop and thiazide diuretics cause (just peeing out what)

A

hypokalemia

125
Q

H1 antihistamines ex (the 2 you have in the closet right now)

A

Examples: diphenhydramine (Benadryl®), loratadine (claritin®)

126
Q

anti-histamines more effective (good preventative)

A

in preventing the actions of histamine rather than reversing them

127
Q

when to give antihistamines?

A

should be given early in treatment, before all the histamine binds to the receptors

128
Q

metaproterenol trade name (U repent at the metro)

A

Alupent®

129
Q

disadvantage of colloids

A

May cause altered coagulation, resulting in bleeding  Have no clotting factors or oxygen-carrying capacity

130
Q

too much licorice makes kalema

A

little

131
Q

never administer K how?

A

as an IV bolus or undiluted

132
Q

what can be used with low GFR?

A

furosemide

133
Q

what can be used with low GFR?

A

furosemide

134
Q

Osmotic for..(renal disease)

A

oliguria

135
Q

hyponatremia symptoms - what will BP be like?

A

hypotension

136
Q

hypernatremia symptoms - temperature? (too much salt gives me a fever)

A

elevated temp

137
Q

hyperkalemia -heart?

A

vfib and cardiac arrest

138
Q

hypokalemia - legs and arms?

A

leg and arm cramps

139
Q

hypomagnesium

A

loss of DTR

140
Q

hypercalcemia

A

bone pain

141
Q

hypermagnesium

A

usually asymptomatic

142
Q

GFR levels below…

A

60 mL/min for 3 or more months are a
sign of chronic kidney disease. below 15 kidney faliure.

143
Q

furious and Thia can’t take

A

NSAIDs

144
Q

thia causes…

A

gout - hyperuricia

145
Q

what to monitor for with mannitol? (man oz makes me dehydrated)

A

dehydration bc it works so quickly

146
Q

for fast expansion, use

A

colloids

147
Q

packed red blood cells for

A

anemia

148
Q

how to raise hemoglobin?

A

packed RBC

XIO (393 decks)

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