Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

XIO > Pharm 3 quiz > Flashcards

Pharm 3 quiz Flashcards

1
Q

c diff symptoms (C, it’s watery)

A

watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever. **Gas pain. can only be cleaned with bleach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

c diff cause

A

antibiotics disrupt normal gut microflora causing an overgrowth of c. diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

vaginitis causes

A

tetracycline, normal vaginal microflora is disrupted and overgrowth. Superinfection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for crystalluria

A

increase water to 2000 to 3000 mL/water in 24 hrs. IV fluids. Check breath sound before giving water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

crystalluria is caused by

A

sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cillin allergic reactions (and what percentage) (penicillin is a ute that has hives)

A

0.7 - 4%. Urticaria (hives), pruritus, angioedema (swelling underneath the skin) anaphyalactic .0004% rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cross-sensitivity to Cephalosporin

A

potential cross-sensitivity to penicillin if true allergy exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cephalosporin drug interactions (NOT penicillin - this is interactions) and take with what?

A

alcohol, antiacids, iron, probenecid, contraceptives. (take with food)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tetracycline avoid

A

milk and cheese.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tetracycline s/e

A

teeth and bones, photosensitivity, vaginal candidiasis, Gastric upset, Enterocolitis, Maculopapular rash, Other effects, pass through milk, tetrogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

aminoglycosides s/e (amine is bad for my ear)

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

quinolone s/e (quinn not a QT going to the grave, she has tendonitis)

A

prolonged QTs, bacterial overgrowth, dysrythmias, tendon rupture, tendonitis, neuropathy, seizures, myasthenia gravis. Watch for gait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

quinolone drug interactions (quin needs tums)

A

antacids, calcium, mg, iron, zinc. Take 1 hour before or after.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Xofluza - name and for what? (xo in A and B bali)

A

baloxavir marboxil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

xofluza - when to take and what ages? (xiola is 12 yrs old)

A

Should be taken only in the first 2 days
after symptoms such as fever, aches &
sniffles appear
For use only in those aged 12 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adherence

A

collaboration and active role btwn patient and provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

antiretroviral

A

antiviral drugs that work against retroviruses like HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

assembly

A

The stage of replication during which all the structural components come together at one site in the cell and the basic structure of the virus particle is formed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

budding

A

Budding enables viruses to exit the host cell and is mostly used by enveloped viruses.
The immature virus pushes out of the infected cell in a process called “budding.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CCR5 antagonists

A

They mask the CCR5 binding site so the virus doesn’t see it and can’t enter.

bind to the CCR5 chemokine coreceptor on host cells, inducing a conformational change that impedes CCR5 interaction with HIV gp120, thereby preventing HIV entry into host cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CD4+T - what do they do?

A

The CD4+T cells carry out multiple functions, ranging from activation of the cells of the innate immune system, B-lymphocytes, cytotoxic T cells, as well as nonimmune cells, and also play critical role in the suppression of immune reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

entry inhibitors

A

Entry inhibitors work by attaching themselves to proteins on the surface of CD4 cells or proteins on the surface of HIV. In order for HIV to bind to CD4 cells, the proteins on HIV’s outer coat must bind to the proteins on the surface of CD4 cells. Entry inhibitors prevent this from happening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

highly active antiretroviral therapy
(HAART)

A

combo of anti-retroviral drug cocktails - standard for HIV. control viral load, delaying or preventing the onset of symptoms or progression to AIDS, thereby prolonging survival in people infected with HIV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

RNA is turned into DNA.

DNA polymerase enzyme that transcribes single-stranded RNA into DNA. reverse of usual process. This is what HIV does.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

integrase (integrate virus)

A

enzyme that promotes viral DNA into host DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

integrase inhibitors

A

antiretroviral drug designed to block the action of integrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

non nucleoside analogues used to treat what? (no nukes for Art)

A

used to treat HIV as part of antiretroviral therapy (ART). ARVs interfere with the ability of a virus to multiply or reproduce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

nucleoside analogues

A

mimic endogenous nucleosides, exploiting cellular metabolism and becoming incorporated into both DNA and RNA. This property makes nucleoside analogues effective at inhibiting viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) - how quickly should you take it and for how long? And what treatment? (Ralt is true to pep)

A

means taking medicine to prevent HIV after a possible exposure. PEP should be used only in emergency situations and must be started within 72 hours - for 28 days - after a recent possible exposure to HIV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

protease and HAART - (always has on NRTI)

A

a large group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins and polypeptides.

two or three NRTIs; two NRTIs plus one or two protease inhibitors; or a NRTI plus a NNRTI with one or two protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

protease inhibitors (Tease HIV, tease hump)

A

It is one of the 5 classes of antiretroviral drugs. It works by inhibiting the HIV and protease retroviral enzymes that cleaves protein. . inhibit the cleavage of the polyprotein into functional proteins are called protease inhibitors. Protease is a protein-based enzyme that normally breaks the polyprotein into functional proteins, so blocking, or inhibiting, protease prevents this essential step of viral reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

block reverse transcriptase (an HIV enzyme). HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA (reverse transcription). Blocking reverse transcriptase and reverse transcription prevents HIV from replicating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

amantadine (A for amantadine. aman symmetrical)

A

Symmetrel®- influenza A, onset within 48 hours. can be used in children, but cannot use in children less than 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

rimantadine (A rim is good for kids)

A

Flumadine - influenza A -can be used in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

zanamivir, oseltamivir (A Bee in Zanzebar)

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu®) and Zanamivir (Relenza®) - influenza A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

amantadine best practices (Aman brushes her teeth..) narrow or wide?

A

Narrow. good oral care, causes dry mouth, monitor BP, ortho hypo, use large vein to avoid irritation. not for patients w/ exzema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ramantadine best practices

A

same an amantadine but less side effects, less dizziness. can be used in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

zanamivir, oseltamivir best practices - how fast to take it and what does it do? (zanzebar was my bud for 2 days)

A

stops budding. n/v. treatment needs to begin w/in 2 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CMV treatment (gang of cmv)

A

Ganciclovir (Cytovene®) and citofovir , foscarnet. Ganciclovir - Ophthalmic form surgically implanted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CMV (CMV not just HIV)

A

inflammation of retina can cause blindness. HHV 5 herpes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

allergic reaction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

vancomycin - + or -? And treats what? (in the van w/ portable)

A

fights gram positive. treats c diff and staph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MRSA treatment of choice (MRSA LOVES van)

A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vancomycin s/e (red man has bad ears)

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. red man syndrome and severe hypotension (infused too rapidly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how fast to infuse vancomycin?

A

no faster than 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

vancomycin peak

A

18 - 50 mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

vancomycin trough (van is low at 10-20)

A

10 - 20 mcg/mL - only trough levels are monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

vancomycin peak time

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

vancomycin blood draws when?

A

immediately before next dose - you have 30 min leeway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

best antibiotic for pneumonia gram + infection (ceph is best for +)

A

1st generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

cephalosporin 1st generation (the 1st generation is always positive)

A

Good gram-positive coverage Poor gram-negative coverage Parenteral and PO forms
Examples
cefadroxil (Duricef®, Ultracef®) cephradine (Velosef®)
cefazolin
cephalexin (Keflex®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

cephalosporins 1st generation used for (1st generation good at prevention)

A

Used for surgical prophylaxis, and for susceptible staphylococcal infections
cefazolin (Ancef® and Kefzol®): IV or IM cephalexin (Keflex ®): PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

cephalosporin 2nd generation (2nd generation only notable for anaerobic)

A

only generation w/ anaerobic coverage . Good gram-positive coverage
 Better gram-negative coverage than first generation  Examples:
cefaclor (Ceclor ®) cefprozil (Cefzil ®) cefoxitin (Mefoxin ®) cefuroxime (Zinacef ®) cefotetan (Cefotan) ®

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ceph 2nd generation cefoxitin (the 2nd fox in my stomach)

A

abdominal and colorectal surgeries. kills anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ceph 2nd generation - cefuroxime (2nd fur prevents cold)

A

surgical prophylaxis, does not kill anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cephalosporins 3rd generation (3rd generation is def negative)

A

Most potent group against gram-negative bacteria  Less active against gram-positive bacteria
 Examples
cefotaxime (Claforan®) ceftazidime (Fortaz®) cefdinir (Omnicef®) ceftizoxime (Cefizox®) ceftriaxone (Rocephin®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

cephalo 3rd generation - ceftriaxone (3rd generation tria can get into your brain)

A

elimination is hepatic. easily passes meninges and diffuses into CSF to treat CNS infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

cephalo 3rd generation - ceftazidime (taz is negative spaz, but he likes pseudos)

A

excellent gram negative, used for difficult to treat, like pseudomonas. excellent spectrum coverage. resistance is limiting it’s usefullness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

cephalosporins 4th generation (4th generation is everywhere, and esp positive)

A

Broader spectrum of antibacterial activity than third generation, especially against gram-positive bacteria
Uncomplicated and complicated UTI cefepime (Maxipime®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cephalosporin 5th generation - ceftaroline - only thing 5th generation ever did…

A

ceftaroline (Teflaro®)
Broader spectrum of antibacterial activity Effective against a wide variety of organisms
 only cephalosprin approved for MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cephalosporins adverse effects - inteacts with just one thing…

A

cross-sensitivity with penicillin if true allergy exists. n/v. diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Retrovirus

A

uses RNA for genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

window period HIV

A

6 wks to 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

during window period - and is test + or - ?

A

 No symptoms or signs of illness
 HIV test is negative during Window Period
 Virus is multiplying rapidly - viral load is high
person is VERY infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

primary goal HIV window period

A

Primary Goal= viral load < 50 Copies/mL- considered undetectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

seroconversion - and when does it happen?

A

point at which HIV test becomes positive. Happens about 3 months after infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

HIV asymptomatic period - think

A

Duration variable: < 1 year to > 15 years. The CD4 count is above 500 cells/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CD4 below 200

A

CD4 below2 00 = palative Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

CDC levels for CD4-T cells

A

500 - 1600: normal
200 - 500: beginning of HIV illness
< 200: AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

infection rate for practitioner to contract HIV and for 28 days

A

Pooled analysis of prospective studies on health care workers with occupational exposures suggests risk is approximately 0.3% (95% CI, 0.2% - 0.5%)1 within 72 hours of exposure for 28 DAYS- last 2 weeks kills any that might have slipped into a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Nevirapine classification (Nev is NN-ervring but not competitive)

A

Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nevirapine s/e - hiv (Nev with an itchy liver)

A

rash-fever-n/HA- abn liver function. risk is greater in first 18 wks of treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fuzeon (and used with what?)

A

prevents vial cell attaching to cells. always used with other HIV drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

fuzeon - major side effect - hiv

A

SQ - everyone has an injection site irritation. can have allergic reactions, pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Efavirenz s/e - hiv (fav bridge)

A

mental health - suicide, liver and skin reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the rationale for HIV/AIDS pts to understand and know each med they are taking and why it will not cure them but keep their viral loads manageable

A

need to suppress viral load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

goals for HIV therapy

A

A. The viral load is undetectable.
B. The CD4+ count is as low as possible. C. Secondary infection does not occur. D. Medication regimen is adhered to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Can antiviral drugs kill both healthy and cancer cells

A

Yes. often harms healthy cells bc they can only inhibit development and some of the proteins overlap with healthy cells. can kill herpes that leads to cancer - Kaposi - check this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Antineoplastic meds - what is important? (cancer needs water)

A

hydration important to prevent nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

pregnant women can’t take which anti-viral? (pregnant women can’t have viral ribs)

A

Ribavirin (Virazole®) - teratogenic -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

best med for herpes simplex? (think)

A

acylcovir. synthetic necleoside analog. blocks cellular %. used to suppress replication of HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

HIV transmission - how?

A

sexualactivity,intravenousdruguse, perinatally from mother to child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

HSV1 treatment - can it cure?

A

can’t cure but can speed up remission and reduce painful symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What medication is used for Ocular implant and how susceptible of contracting is it?

A

Ganciclovir (Cytovene) - HIV and transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

pt education for cancer drugs - physical, oral care, and diet - avoid what foods?

A

Comprehensive Physical assessment, Oral care education, Dietary education- to avoid spicy-acidic-alcohol & tobacco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

PI - primary immunodeficiencies (it’s primarily genetics)

A

Primary immunodeficiencies are the result of genetic defects, and secondary immunodeficiencies are caused by environmental factors, such as HIV/AIDS or malnutrition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What medication is used for Ocular implant and how susceptible of contracting is it?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Rationale use of Hormone Therapy

A

hormones increase cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Targeted Drug Therapy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

danger of giving an Vinca alkaloid drug intrathecally (Vin is fatal)

A

vincristine is nearly always fatal and associated with an irreversible, painful ascending paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

health care associated infections also known as (no illiana in health care)

A

nosocomial and iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

empiric, definitive, and prophylactic

A

empric - before culture has been identified.
proph - prevents infection, abdominal surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

bacteriostatic

A

inhibits growth rather than killing immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

sulfas + or -?

A

+ and -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

pneymocystis jirovecii pneumonia - what drug? (jovi sulfur face)

A

sulfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Penicillinase

A

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins? a type of penicillin?
bacterial strain exposed to penicillin may produce an extracellular enzyme called penicillinase which leaves the bacterial cell and degrades the penicillin around it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

penicillin - how does it work? and + or -?

A

enter via cell wall, bind to penicillin-protein, cell wall distrupted. gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

cephalsporins - killer ceph

A

bacteracidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

carbapenems - what for? (carbs are complicated connective tissue)

A

Reserved for complicated body cavity and connective
tissue infections in acutely ill hospitalized patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

tetracycline - positive or neg? (tet in the hot tub with sulfa)

A

both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

superinfection from which drug?

A

tetra, aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what to take with all antibiotics?

A

at least 6 to 8 ounces of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

sulfa take with how much water over 24 hrs?

A

Take with 2000 to 3000 mL
of fluid/24 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

how long to monitor pt for penicillin reaction

A

at least 30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

aminoglycosides - + or -? And kills what?

A

kill gram -. some +, but mostly -.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

how to administer aminoglycosides?

A

parenterally, only one is given orally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

linzoid - don’t take with…(linz and tyrine don’t get along, he gives her SS)

A

Linz is just an antibiotic. tyramine-containing foods, seratonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what to take for protozoa infection? (your old friend)

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin®) good for…(my bladder is on nitro)

A

UTI, Drug concentrates in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Ledipasvir/Sofosbuvir (Harvoni) Hep C - what issue? (lead sofas cost a lot for hep c patients)

A

Can be Cost Prohibitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

anti-retroviruses - what to monitor for? (anti-retroviruses like opportunities)

A

opportunistic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

HAART typical results

A

Decreased viral load to undetectable levels (<50
Copies/mL)
Improved CD4+ T cell count (>500/mm3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

protease inhibitors suffix (tease tel aviv) and used for WHAT?

A

protease enzyme that cleaves protein - opinavir/ritonavir (Kaletra®), atazanavir (Reyataz®),
fosamprenavir (Lexiva®), etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Cancerous cells do not have

A

Growth control mechanisms
Positive physiologic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

cell-cycle specific drugs used for what?

A

drugs act during multiple phases of the cell cycle - anti-tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

cell-cycle non-specific drugs

A

Cytotoxic during any cell-cycle stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

infiltration (the meds infiltrated my tissue)

A

When a non - vesicant solution or medication is introduced to the tissue surrounding the IV catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Methotrexate (cancer) is also used to treat (meth for cancer, psor, and arthritis)

A

severe cases of psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

antimetabolites adverse affects (anti- feet)

A

palmar-plantar - hand foot, n/v myleosuppression, hair loss, tumor lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

mitotic inhibitors (cancer) adverse effects (mite you be extravagant)

A

Extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

cancer drugs - monitor for (cancer oj)

A

stomatitis, n/v, diarrhea,

122
Q

alkylating drugs (cancer) - dose-limiting bc (alky bones)

A

Nausea and vomiting, myelosuppression

123
Q

cytotoxic antibiotics (cancer) (cancer toxicity always inserts itself)

A

Act by inserting, resulting in blockade of DNA synthesis

124
Q

daunorubicin (cytotoxic) adverse effects (dan is toxic to my heart)

A

Heart failure

125
Q

Beta-lactamases are (the mase is resistant)

A

enzymes produced by bacteria that provide multi-resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporin

126
Q

sulfas - bacteriostatic or bactericidal? (the sulfur gave me static)

A

static

127
Q

if you have a UTI, what class of drug is helpful?

A

sulfa

128
Q

beta-lactams include what? (take milk with carbs and spores with your penicillin)

A

(1) penicillins, (2) cephalosporins, (3) carbapenems, and (4) monobactams.

129
Q

Most natural penicillins have little, if any, ability to kill

A

gram negative bacteria.

130
Q

ceftaroline only available in what form? (taroline injects)

A

injectable

131
Q

RSV for infants/children medication (infants in RVs)

A

palivizumab and ribavirin

132
Q

macrolides - static or cidal? (glide into static)

A

static, but cidal in high doses

133
Q

cephalosporins - cidal or static? (neosporin kills the cells)

A

cidal - cell wall.

134
Q

cephalosporins - cidal or static?

A

cidal - cell wall.b

135
Q

broadest action of any antibiotic

A

Carbapenems

136
Q

macrolides end in what? (throw mice and glide)

A

azithromycin, clarithromycin, dirithromycin, and erythromycin.

137
Q

complicated connective tissue infections in acutely ill patients - use what antibiotics?

A

Carbapenems

138
Q

When patients become infected with CRE, there are only
two known antibiotics that can be used: (cre likes tigers with colostomies)

A

tigecycline and colistimethate

139
Q

how are viruses transmitted?

A

inhalation, injection, ingestion, and via placenta.

140
Q

cell-mediated are specific or non-specific?

A

non-specific - just T cells, not B cells

141
Q

herpes simplex 3 (3 for you)

A

chickenpox and shingles

142
Q

cancer pre-meds (pre meds are the ABCs BCD - N)

A

Use of premedication 30-60 min benadryl, tylenol,Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, n/v drugs

143
Q

cancer risk of infection due to….(neutro cancer)

A

low Neutrophils, To prevent infection pt/family/staff to protect pt should perform good Hand Hygiene

144
Q

cancer - when to report fever?

A

Report fever of 100.5/38.1 immediately, Hydration is key to preventing hemorrhagic cystitis

145
Q

cancer - fruits and veggies?

A

Wash fruits/vegi’s d/t they can have germs to infect pt on them, Avoid recently vaccinated people, they are not yet fully covered

146
Q

med error

A

Nurses are the Sharp end of the tool in giving meds, however the MD, Pharmacologist, are also part of the process. But we are the last to protect our patients. However, if a RN doesn’t complete the 9 Rights, then it would be an RN med error

147
Q

foscarnate - forget this one

A

for leaching bones ? used for CMV but not preferred.

148
Q

zidovudine (Retrovir®)

A

rock baby from A to Z

149
Q

carcinomas are where in the body? (carcinoma in my mouth)

A

epithelial tissue or lining of organs

150
Q

sarcoma (c for connect)

A

connective tissue

151
Q

leukemia

A

blood and bone

152
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes (pair of ovaries hair gut and bones)

A

hair, gut, ovaries and bone - fastest growing what chemo attacks (abnormal response to tumor, weakness)

153
Q

Antineoplastic drugs - Divided into two groups based on where in the cellular life cycle they work -

A

 Cell cycle–nonspecific (CCNS)
 Cell cycle–specific (CCS)

154
Q

non specific cancer meds

A

kills cells no matter what phase it’s in

155
Q

chemo drugs have a wide or narrow therapeutic index?

A

Drugs have a narrow therapeutic index

156
Q

Nadir

A

my dear we hit rock bottom

157
Q

folate

A

need folate prenatal - antimetabolite - methotrexate (MTX), blocks it from absorbing the folate

158
Q

antimetabolites - (I can’t metabolize folic acid)

A

Folic acid antagonism
 Interferes with the use of folic acid
 As a result, DNA is not produced, and the cell dies

159
Q

antimetabolites used for (exactly) (metabolize John’s leukemia)

A

 Acute and chronic lymphocytic leukemias
 Leukemias (several types)
 Colon, rectal, breast, stomach, lung, pancreatic cancers

160
Q

what causes Tumor lysis syndrome? And it produces (metabolites cause lice and feet)

A

antimetabolites. a lot of uric acid

161
Q

leucovorin (luke folate to the rescue from meth)

A

luke to the rescue - reduce the bone marrow suppression caused by the methotrexate. gives you more folate acid and prevents healthy cells from dying.

162
Q

mitotic adverse affects (mite you be extravagant with convulsions)

A

Liver, kidney, lung toxicities
* Convulsions
* Extravasation

163
Q

The nurse identifies which of the following as the most significant neurotoxin of the cytotoxic drug class?

A

vincristine (Vincasar PFS)

164
Q

Topoisomerase 1 Inhibitors for…(Topher is small)

A

 Ovarian and colorectal cancer  Small cell lung cancer
 Other tumors

165
Q

Topoisomerase 1 Inhibitors - side effect occurs when? (toph w/ tummy troubles)

A

Irinotecan causes cholinergic diarrhea (delayed,
occurring 2 to 10 days after dosage)

166
Q

nuetrophilic (what is the number)

A

less than 500

167
Q

rbc anemic - platelets (tu has less than 1000 in b of a)

A

platelets - less than 1000 risk for bleeding

168
Q

belomycin - antibiotic - what side effect? (blip in lungs)

A

can cause pulmonary fibrosis.

169
Q

cell specific (cancer) kill fast or slow cells?

A

fast-dividing cells

170
Q

cell (cancer) non-specific kills fast or slow cells? (non-specific is really slow)

A

the slow-dividing cells

171
Q

classes of antibiotics (Antibotics can protect the queen’s men and servants)

A

Sulfonamides
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Quinolones
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

172
Q

antibotics work how (antibiotics work by building a wall…)

A

cell wall, protein, DNA replication, metabolite

173
Q

ex of sulfas (septra for sulfa)

A

bactrim and septra

174
Q

sulfas cause what side effects? (sulfur thumbs)

A

anemia, agranulocytosis (low granulocytes - WBCs), thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

175
Q

penicillin interactions (my pen is at war with NSAID)

A

NSAIDs
Oral contraceptives Warfarin

176
Q

which one causes thrush? (ceph is thrushy)

A

cephalosporin

177
Q

macrolides for what diseases? (glide into adolescence)

A

strep, STDs

178
Q

what age can kids use tetra?

A

not younger than 8 or pregnant women

179
Q

what treats SIADH? (my SIADH is dem cyclone)

A

Demeclocycline - a tetra

180
Q

which can’t you take with protein-bound drugs? (don’t go on slide w/ pb and j)

A

macrolides bc they are protein-bound

181
Q

which can’t you take with protein-bound drugs? (peanut butter doesn’t glide)

A

macrolides bc they are protein-bound

182
Q

which is usually given IV? (Amine needs an IV)

A

aminoglycocides

183
Q

May cause fatal hepatotoxicity (cars kill liver)

A

nitro

184
Q

CRE

A

CRE refers to bacteria that possess an enzyme, carbapene- mase, which renders the organism resistant to all carbape- nem antibiotics as well as beta-lactam antibiotics

185
Q

how to treat ESBL? (extended spectrum beta-lactamase) (carbs when watching ESPN)

A

carbapenems or sometimes quinolones

186
Q

gentimicin is a what? (Amine is not at all gentle)

A

aminoglycoside

187
Q

how do aminoglycosides work? (The only way amine can work is by clinging to others’ ribs)

A

bind to ribosomes

188
Q

which are used for synergestic effect? (there is synergy btwn amine, milk, and vans)

A

aminos and beta-lactams or vancomycin

189
Q

HIV drugs - names (Ralt wearing fuzzy)

A

fuzeon and raltegravir

190
Q

Ganciclovir (don’t let the gang touch your skin)

A

bone marrow suppression; don’t get on skin!

191
Q

Bedaquiline - (in bed with TB)

A

TB

192
Q

how do sulfas work? (sulfa works the spinach)

A

Prevent synthesis of folic acid required for synthesis of purines and nucleic acid. Only affect organisms that synthesize their own folic acid.

193
Q

carbapenems - broad or narrow?

A

broadest to date

194
Q

amantedine s/e (A does not have insomnia)

A

s/e insomnia nervousness

195
Q

what does amine kill? (amine killed mona and coli)

A

kills pseudomonas, e. coli.

196
Q

carbpenems adverse effect (too many carbs cause seizures)

A

can cause seizures

197
Q

there are currently two broad classes of cell cycle–nonspecific cancer drugs: (alkys are toxic and not specific)

A

(1) alkylating drugs and
(2) cytotoxic antibiotics.

198
Q

alkylating drugs (aklys love mustard)

A

classic alkylators (the nitrogen mustards); (2) nitrosoureas, which have a different chemical structure than the nitrogen mustards but also work by alkylation; and (3) miscellaneous alkylators,

199
Q

cytotoxic antibiotics consist of (cytoxic is actually natural)

A

natural substances produced by the mold Streptomyces as well as semisynthetic substances

200
Q

What is student RN actions for suspected allergic medication reaction

A

alert RN charge nurse
provide 02
monitor RR
be ready to perform cpr
monitor VS
prepare epinephrine

201
Q

Vinca (vin can only do IV)

A

only IV

202
Q

Targeted drug therapy (target my mono)

A

Targeted drug therapy uses drugs that recognize a specific molecule involved in the growth of cancer cells, while mostly sparing healthy cells. One example of such targeted therapy is the newer class of cancer drugs known as monoclonal antibodies.

203
Q

bleomycin (cytotoxic) adverse effects (bleo toxic my lungs w/ pneumonia)

A

Pulmonary fibrosis and pneumonitis

204
Q

doxorubicin side effect (cytotoxin) (dox in my heart)

A

Cardiomyopathy is associated with large amounts of doxorubicin

205
Q

protease inhibitors are for what virus? (don’t tease HIV)

A

HIV

206
Q

daunorubicin is what type of drug? (dan needs chemo)

A

chemo

207
Q

antimetabolites treat what? (can’t metabolize cancer)

A

cancer

208
Q

mitotic used for what?

A

cancer, stops mitosis

209
Q

2 species that cause TB

A

bovis and tuberculosis (bovis less common)

210
Q

TB grows where in the body?

A

lungs - it needs 02, ends of bones, and brain

211
Q

what animals carry TB?

A

humans, birds, and cattle

212
Q

what precaution w/ TB?

A

airborne

213
Q

INH

A

primary antitubercular drug - can cause liver problems

214
Q

aminoglicosides end in what? (amine is less than a macrolide)

A

mycin

215
Q

alkylating drugs are for what? (alkys beat cancer)

A

cancer

216
Q

DNA USUALLY…

A

turns into RNA, then protein. Reverse transcriptase is the opposite.

217
Q

CMV is what?

A

cytomegalovirus -

218
Q

vancomyin - static or cidal? (vans kill)

A

cidal

219
Q

cephalo 3rd generation - treatment for what? (Don is a 3rd gen)

A

one of only a few meningitis treatments

220
Q

problem w/ cephalo 3rd generation

A

resistance is limiting its usefulness

221
Q

protease inhibitors - s/e (don’t tease the hump)

A

lipodystrophy - hump at posterior of neck and skinny face.
type 2 diabetes.

222
Q

cancer patients avoid which ppl?

A

recently vaccinated - they aren’t safe yet

223
Q

hormonal drugs for women (and ana hormone)

A

tamoxifen, anastrozole, megestrol

224
Q

hormone drugs for men (men amide for women)

A

estramustine, bicalutamide (any amide)

225
Q

lock and key mechanism- target therapy (cancer drugs)

A

targeting of one molecule on surface and involved with growth of tumor or enzyme in cell. causes apoptosis

226
Q

examples of lock and key (monoclonal tick in lock - tick tock)

A

monoclonal and tki - tyrosine kinase inhibitors

227
Q

aminogylcoside treat what? (amine is a pain in my abdomen but good for my heart)

A

severe infections of the abdomen and urinary tract, as well as bacteremia and endocarditis. They are also used for prophylaxis, especially against endocarditis.

228
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes

A

symptoms not directly connected to spread of cancer.
 Cachexia (most common, wasting)
 Fatigue, fever, weight loss
 Others

229
Q

Extravasation is when a (a little extra)

A

a vesicant solution or medication is introduced to the tissue surrounding the IV catheter

230
Q

cold compress when? (cold for DNA)

A

CT, phelbitis and most DNA binding vesicants

231
Q

warm compress when? (warm w/out DNA)

A

non DNA binding vesicants

232
Q

antimetabolites purine - what side effect? (pure lysing)

A

tumor lysis

233
Q

treatment for karposi (Mite you be karposi?)

A

mitotic

234
Q

most significant neurotoxin

A

vincristine

235
Q

chemo during pregnancy?

A

2nd and 3rd trimester less risk

236
Q

montior for what if WBC is low?

A

fever = infection

237
Q

alkylating drugs work how? (aklys work by not reproducing)

A

by preventing cancer cells from reproducing

238
Q

Alkylating Drugs need what? (Alkys need a buddy)

A

Used in combination with other drugs

239
Q

how do Cytotoxic Antibiotics work? (cytotoxic inserts around the clock)

A

active in all phases of cycle. Act by intercalation, resulting in blockade of DNA synthesis

240
Q

dexrazoxane (dex decreases dox)

A

decrease toxicity of doxorubicin (cytotoxin)

241
Q

Alkylating drugs esp. need

A

water

242
Q

Cytotoxic antibiotics - watch for…(bleo toxic in my lungs)

A

pulmonary fibrosis

243
Q

Community-associated
infections

A

hasn’t been hospitalized in the past year

244
Q

disinfectant and antiseptic

A

disinfectant kills

245
Q

gram + (gram positive glides with penicillin)

A

penicillin and macrolides

246
Q

gram - (amine NO and quin are negative)

A

aminoglycosides, quinalones

247
Q

gram + and - (STNCC in hot tub)

A

tetra, ceph, sulfas, carbs, nitros

248
Q

 Penicillins do or do not kill other cells in the body

A

not

249
Q

tetracyline - static or cidal? (tetris gives me static)

A

static

250
Q

reduces tetra effectiveness? (tetra is reduced to milk, tums, and iron)

A

Dairy products, antacids, and iron
salts reduce oral absorption of tetracycline

251
Q

assess what before giving sulfas? (RBCs in hot tub)

A

RBCs

252
Q

aminoglycocides usually not given what route?

A

PO

253
Q

which has a thin cell wall?

A

gram negative are pink bc the wall is thin and stain leaks out

254
Q

how does amine work? (Amine zaps my energy and protein)

A

kills proteins

255
Q

how do cephalosporins works? (Ceph works for the Cell wall)

A

kill cell wall

256
Q

tetracycline works how? (tetra doesn’t work for protein)

A

inhibits protein synthesis

257
Q

how does quin work? (quin has bad DNA)

A

inhibits DNA

258
Q

quin ends in (quin has a flock of oxen)

A

floxacin

259
Q

In leukemia…(luke is abnormal)

A

In leukemia, a cancer of the blood, the bone marrow makes abnormal white blood cells

260
Q

In aplastic anemia…

A

the bone marrow doesn’t make red blood cell

261
Q

colony-stimulating factors (cancer)

A

Granulocyte
colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) stimulates the production of
neutrophils.

262
Q

There are two brands of G-CSFs (cancer) - Granulocyte colony-stimulating factors

A

 Neupogen® (filgrastim) and
 Neulasta® (pegfilgrastim). The only difference between these drugs is that Neulasta is given less
often.

263
Q

Used in cancer chemotherapy
and CKD induced anemia

A

Erythropoietin - and the drugs are Procrit®, Epogen®, and Aranesp®. Very dangerous - heart problems.

264
Q

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factors do what?

A

increase bon marrow in cancer pts.

265
Q

steps of HIV (abf)

A

attachment, binding, and fusion

266
Q

stage 1 is

A

local

267
Q

stage 2

A

early advanced local

268
Q

stage 3

A

late adavanced local

269
Q

TNM

A

T – primary Tumor size
N – location and number of Positive lymph node
M – distant Metastasis

270
Q

cancer prevention - primary, secondar, tert.

A

primary - Avoid carcinogen exposure and promote health
secondary - Early detection and treatment
tertiary - Monitoring for or preventing recurrence of the original cancer

271
Q

types of biotherapy

A

Biotherapy: Targeted therapy and Immunotherapy

272
Q

target therapy usually given in what form

A

daily pill

273
Q

common side effects of immunotherapy (I for immunotherapy, I for itis”

A

itis - inflammation

274
Q

for allergic reaction

A

for infection always have a ambu bag and suction**adrenaline and epinephrine (IM not IV) - not Epipen

275
Q

NNRTI s/e (nrving itch liver)

A

liver, fever, headaches

276
Q

how to give fuzeon?

A

Sub Q

277
Q

important education for cancer patients?

A

use help 30 - 60 minutes before treatment. non-fizzy ginger ale, benadryl,e tc.

278
Q

amantadine - what ages?

A

no younger than 12 months

279
Q

gangcylcovir side effect (ganging up on my bones)

A

bone marrow suppression

280
Q

zidovudine side effect (z baby is heavy on my bones)

A

bone marrow suppression

281
Q

macrolide s/e (glide into hearing loss and palps)

A

palpitations and hearing loss

282
Q

tb drug s/e

A

hearing loss (ototoxicity); nephrotoxicity; seizure activity; altered vision; blindness;

283
Q

cancer drugs - cytarabine syndrome

A

cytarabine syndrome. This usually occurs within 6 to 12 hours after drug administration and is char- acterized by fever, muscle and bone pain, maculopapular rash, conjunctivitis, and malaise.

284
Q

vincristine and tophermase are waht class? (mite you be christy or topher?)

A

mitotic

285
Q

vincristine and tophermase s/e (christine and topher kill major organs)

A

hepatic and renal, measure uric acid

286
Q

antiandrogens s/e (androgenous with edema)

A

peripheral edema, which could exacerbate any pre-existing cardiac disorder

287
Q

alkylating drugs s/e (alkys cause anemia)

A

anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. and monitor for infiltration.

288
Q

ex. of 1st generation ceph (violin first instrument)

A

cefazolin (ancef) , keflex

289
Q

1st gen ceph used for prophylaxis, but also (your 1st gen, you got…)

A

staph

290
Q

phases of herpes (herpes PAC)

A

🞑 Pre-eruptive phase (preherpetic neuralgia)
🞑 Acute eruptive phase
🞑 Chronic phase (PHN)

291
Q

amantadine - narrow or broad?

A

narrow

292
Q

elisa

A

detects HIV

293
Q

HIV steps (dump)

A

circulates, attaches, dumps, RNA to DNA, inserted into cytochrome in integrase. Then DNA activated and new cells come together then budding. New one matures, then cut protease for new assembly.

294
Q

A to Z is retro

A

retro (retrovir)

295
Q

adherence (understand your food, meds, records, and contact person)

A

🞑 Patient understanding of each medication’s purpose
🞑 Food & fluid restrictions
🞑 Recommended food choices
🞑 Storage of medications
🞑 Appropriate recording sheet
🞑 Contact personf or questions

296
Q

pep treatment (ralt is tru and has pep)

A

Raltegravir & Truvada

297
Q

emtricitabine (Emtriva®) s/e (EMTs have HIV and hyperpigmentation)

A

hyperigmentation of soles of feet

298
Q

NNRTIs are

A

non-competitive

299
Q

NRTIS

A

dealsz

300
Q

protease inhibitors ex (Rey teases the kale)

A

Lopinavir/ritonavir (Kaletra®), atazanavir (Reyataz®),

301
Q

NRTI ex.

A

azt

XIO (372 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions