maternity 5-4 Flashcards

1
Q

Low-birth-weight (LBW) infant

A

Low-birth-weight (LBW) infant: 2500 g (5.5 lb), regardless of gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Very low-birth-weight (VLBW) infant

A

Very low-birth-weight (VLBW) infant: less than 1500 g (3.3 lb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) - what percentile?

A

Appropriate for gestational age (AGA): birth weight falls between the 10th and 90th percentiles on intrauterine growth curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Small for date (SFD) same as SGA

A

Small for date (SFD) or small for gestational age (SGA) :falls below the 10th percentile on intrauterine growth curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Large for gestational age (LGA)

A

Large for gestational age (LGA):falls above the 90th percentile on intrauterine growth curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IUGR - how will they look?

A

baby will have disproportionate body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SMALL FOR GESTATIONAL AGE - breathing? (not surfactant)

A

Asphyxia
Aspiration (not coordinated) (sucking reflex at 32 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

LARGE FOR GESTATIONAL AGE (breathing and cardiac?) (LGA fetish)

A

Birth Trauma
Hypoglycemia (due to high blood sugar)
Asphyxia (it causes acidosis (looks like decreased variability on FHR strip)
Cardiac Anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

reasons for SGA (infections?)

A

smoking, nutrition, drugs, uterine infections, thyroid disease, multiple gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

polycythemia - associated with weight? (poly is polyamorous when it comes to weight)

A

a concern for SGA and LGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Preterm***(premature] - how old? (the premi is 37)

A

Preterm (premature):born before completion of 37 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Late preterm***(late but right before premi)

A

Late preterm:from 34 0/7 through 36 6/7 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Early term***(early is after premi)

A

Early term:from 37 0/7 through 38 6/7 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Full term***

A

Full term:from 39 0/7 weeks through 40 6/7 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Late term***

A

Late term:from 41 0/7 through 41 6/7 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Post term*** (postmature)

A

Post term (postmature):born after 42 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

issues that cause preterm birth

A

infection and inflammation, maternal stress, bleeding and stretching of uterus cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

preterm risks (cabbage patch couch)

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (lack of surfactant)
Temperature regulation
Intraventricular hemorrhage (fragile veins, and risk of increased pressure in brain)
Jaundice
Sepsis (infection)
Feeding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

can’t give too much O2 to babies bc there is a risk of

A

retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

neonatal hypoglycemia is the main cause of (no blood to the brain)

A

brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ASSESSMENT OF INFANT OF DIABETIC MOTHER - what blood tests? and the lungs?

A

Macrosomia
increased Risk for Anomalies (heart, brain, and neural tubes)
RDS - resp. distress syndrome
Hypoglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperbilirubinemia (from polycythemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
Risk Factors (both can get it)

A
  • LPI (late preterm infants)
  • IUGR
  • SGA, LGA
  • < 2500 gm
  • IDM (insulin diabetic mom)
  • GDM (gestational diabetic mom)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA: Symptomatic - Concerning symptoms

A

Seizure
Lethargy/decreased responsiveness
Hypotonia
Apnea
Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if symptomatic at 40 glucose,

A

will start an IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

look at slide

A

29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

interventions for hypoglycemia - how much glucose? (not even a gram of glucose)

A

0.2 Grams Glucose/kg/dose (orange syringe is for oral meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
Interventions: Symptomatic - how much to infuse?

A

10% - it’s HIGHLY concentrated

IV DEXTROSE
IV dextrose is given with an initial bolus (0.2 g/kg) over 5 to 15 minutes (2 mL/kg of 10% dextrose in water [D10W]), followed by continuous infusion at an initial rate of 5 to 8 mg/kg per minute. If hypoglycemia persists, the infusion rate should be increased as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
Interventions: Asymptomatic - feedings?

A

Early Frequent Feedings
Thermoregulation (but we don’t want them too warm)
Assess all newborns for S&S of hypoglycemia
Follow unit protocol for high-risk newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia

A

PATHOLOGIC
Onset < than 24 hours
PHYSIOLOGIC
Onset > 24 hours (dehydration, meconium passage, late feeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pathologic Jaundice - what is the level of bilirubin? and how much an hour?

A

Serum bilirubin concentrations of greater than 5 mg/dl in cord blood
* Clinical jaundice evident within 24 hours of birth
* Total serum bilirubin levels increasing by more than 5 mg/dl in 24 hours or increasing at a rate of 0.5 mg/dl/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

conjugation of bilirubin

A

RBC - heme - bilirubin and iron - bilirubin + plasma to liver - unconjugated to conjugated - excreted through feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

JAUNDICE RISK FACTORS - small or large? hypo or hyperglycemia? (small yellow baby with no sugar)

A
  • ABO incompatibility
  • Sepsis
  • Delayed mec passage
  • Bruising
  • Asphyxia / hypoxia
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Prematurity / SGA
  • Hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NURSING CARE
FOR NEONATAL JAUNDICE

A

Assess for risk factors
Encourage frequent breastfeeding
Prevent kernicterus ( = bilirubin can cause brain damage)
Assess level of visual jaundice
Transcutaneous monitor and/or serum bilirubin
Notify primary care-giver of findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Kernicterus most commonly causes (keri has cerebral palsy)

A

cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

learn slide

A

46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

slide 51

A

on test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PHOTOTHERAPY - what type of light?

A

Goal to reduce unconjugated bili levels
Blue fluorescent spectrum; NO Ultraviolet
Lamp, fiberoptic pad or LED mattress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PHOTOTHERAPY
NURSING CARE - diapers and temp?

A

Safety, eye protection
Cover genitals
Assess for dehydration
Monitor Temperature
I & O
Weigh diapers
Limit time outside lights
Monitor skin breakdown
Feed regularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cephalhematoma - suture lines?

A

don’t cross suture lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cephalohematoma - how long to resolve? and how does it compare to caput? (cephalohemotama 28 weeks later)

A
  • Collection of blood between skull bone and periosteum
  • Does NOT cross suture lines
  • Firmer and more well-defined than caput
  • Resolves in 2 – 8 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

BIRTH INJURIES - Facial Paralysis - how quickly does it resolve? And who gets it?

A
  • LGA @ risk
  • Forceps
  • Prolonged 2nd
    Stage
  • Resolves within
    hours to days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

NEONATAL SEPSIS - when is it acquired? (anytime)

A

Immature immune system

Acquired in utero, during L&D, during resuscitation or during the hospital stay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

problem w/ sepsis symptoms

A

they are not very specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

NEONATAL SEPSIS SIGNS/SYMPTOMS - what would blood sugar be?

A

Apnea
Bradycardia
Tachypnea
GFR
Decreased 02
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Decreased perfusion
Temperature instability
Lethargy
Hypotonic
Seizures
Feeding intolerance
Abdominal distention
Vomiting, Diarrhea
Hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Neonatal Sepsis
Nursing Care - what antibiotics?

A

Asepsis
Review prenatal and intrapartum record
Close monitoring/assessments
Labs
Encouragement of breastfeeding
Antibiotics (amp and gent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

labs for sepsis (just 3)

A

ABGs, WBC, and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Goals of Nursing Care for NAS (neonatal abstinence syndrome)

A

decrease s/s of withdrawal
increase feedings and weight gain
Prevent seizures
reduce mortality
Support normal neurological development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

eat, sleep and console for opiate babies

A

need to eat or drink 1 ounce in an hour, and sleep for 1 hour, and get consoled in 10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

NEONATAL WITHDRAWAL
NURSING CARE - pacifier?

A

Urine toxicology screen
Assess for worsening withdrawal
Administer Rx per MD order and withdrawal s/s score
Quiet environment, reduce stimuli
Pacifier for sucking reflex
Tightly wrap, rock infant
Promote nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

FETAL ALCOHOL SYNDROME - risk for (extra what?) and the main one you knew before

A

CLEFT LIP, PALATE
CERVICAL VERTEBRAE (neck) MALFORMATION
SPINAL BIFIDA
CONGENITAL HEART AND KIDNEY DEFECTS
EXTRA DIGITS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Septal Wall Defect (ASD - atrium,PSD, & PDA - pulmonary) - shunting - which side is stronger?

A

Increased pulmonary blood flow, left to right shunting - A left-to-right shunt allows the oxygenated, pulmonary venous blood to return directly to the lungs rather than being pumped to the body
Left side of heart has greater pressures than the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cyanotic Heart Lesions (Tetralogy of Fallot & Tricuspid Atresia) (atresia kills the flow)

A

Decreased Pulmonary blood flow
Anatomical defect ASD or VSD (atrial or ventricular hole)
Mild to severe desaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cyanotic Heart Lesions (Tetralogy of Fallot & Tricuspid Atresia = tricuspid valve doesn’t work) (Poly is cyanotic)

A

Polycythemia
Murmur
Hypoxemia
Dyspnea
Increased cardiac workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Obstructive Defects (Pulmonary Stenosis, Aortic Stenosis, & Coarctaction (on backwards) of the Aorta) - where is the blood obstructed?

A

Blood flow exiting the heart is obstructed.
Narrowing or constricting of an anatomical opening.
Increase pressure behind the constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ceptal wall defects - what helps them close?

A

NSAIDs help close them up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Defects of the Great Vessels (the great wall mixes and gets congested)

A

Mixing of saturated blood with unsaturated blood
Pulmonary congestion
Decrease in cardiac output - aorta gets blood from right AND left ventricle - it mixes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Defects of the Great Vessels - CHF symptoms (the great wall is dusky, ruddy, and can’t breathe)

A

CHF symptoms
Ruddiness
Dusky or gray color
Dyspnea
To support life interventions to mix arterial & venous blood

57
Q

Neural Tube Defects (just 2)

A

Anencephaly
Spina Bifida

58
Q

Anencephaly

A

The most severe NTD
1,000-2,000 infants born with this
Both genetic & environmental causes
Mostly Incompatible with life

59
Q

Spina Bifida

A

Caudal defects failure to close the spinal column in an area

60
Q

Microcephaly

A

Small brain formed in a normal sized cranium.Develops by age 2
Educate on cognitive deficiencies.

61
Q

Hydrocephalus - where is the tube placed?

A

Increase in the CSF in the ventricles of the brain.
Overproduction, obstruction, or impaired circulation or absorption
Usually will have another defect as well
Normal brain growth is altered due to the pressure of the CSF.
Surgical placement of a valve and tube into the abdomen to drain excess CSF. Needs to be replaced as the child grows.

62
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Increase in the CSF in the ventricles of the brain.
Overproduction, obstruction, or impaired circulation or absorption
Usually will have another defect as well
Normal brain growth is altered due to the pressure of the CSF.
Surgical placement of a valve and tube into the abdomen to drain excess CSF. Needs to be replaced as the child grows.

63
Q

Choanal Atresia - what will the baby look like? (choann is choking)

A

concave abdomen
Narrowing or occlusion of the nasal airway - baby won’t want to breast feed. baby will be blue.
Dyspnea nasal airway
Rare condition
Unable to pass a suction catheter through the nasal airway
Neonate is cyanotic and pinks with crying

64
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (concave diaphragm)

A

concave abdomen
Severe development of the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity
Abdominal organs found in the thoracic cavity
Most often found with other congenital anomalies
Pulmonary hypoplasia (lungs don’t develop)
Decreased pulmonary vasculature
Support respiratory effort
Surgery required

65
Q

Cleft Lip & Palate - when is surgical repair done?

A

Most common congenital malformation of head & neck
Fissure of the lip or a fissure of the lip and palate
Surgical repair between 6-12 weeks of age
Unilateral or bilateral
Immediate feeding problems
Dentition and language acquisition

66
Q

Esophageal Atresia & Tracheoesophageal Fistula - when does it develop? (atresia has saliva)

A

Abnormal separation development of the esophagus and the trachea during the 3-6 weeks of embryonic development.
Esophagus is not patent***

67
Q

Omphalocele (Om, it’s your abdomen)

A

Omphalocele weakened area of the umbilical ring allowing the peritoneal membrane to protrude and abdominal organs follow.

68
Q

Gastroschisis (no sac for the stomach)

A

Gastroschisis is a full wall abdominal opening with protruding abdominal organs. No peritoneal sac protecting the organs

69
Q

Omphalocele & Gastroschisis - how to treat? (only one way)

A

Both require surgical intervention

70
Q

Omphalocele & Gastroschisis - how to manage? (Not much)

A

Gastroschisis has a high morbidity & mortality rate.
Orogastric tube for suctioning
Thermal regulation
Infection precautions

71
Q

Imperforate Anus

A

Congenital malformation of the anorectal area
May have a pouch ending not connected to the colon
It may have fistulas with opening into either the vagina or the urinary tract.
Classified as low or high
Surgical repair – may need a colostomy
Gastric decompression and continous suctioning

72
Q

Hypospadias & Epispadias - when to do surgeries?

A

Urethra opening is not on the tip of the penis
Epispadias in females in conjunction with Bladder exstrophy
Might accompany testicle & scrotum abnormalities
Surgical repair with good outcomes
Repair should be done in the first 6 months of life

73
Q

Bladder Exstrophy - what about rectal muscles?

A

Bladder is outside the abdominal wall, failure to close during embryonic stage.
Wide spacing of the rectal muscles and symphysis pubis are noted with this defect.

74
Q

Congenital Clubfoot (when is surgery) (go to the club between 4 and 9)

A

Extremely turned in foot
Lack of normal ROM
Serial Casting – Ponseti treatment
Surgery at 4 – 9 months
Bathing, diapering and developmental goals are a priority

75
Q

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hips

A

Subluxated, luxated, or malformed acetabulum (hip bone)
Pavlik harness (soft splint)
Earlier the better to identify
Bathing, diapering, & developmental goals are a priority
extra skin folds on one side
knees and feet flat on surface

76
Q

Inborn Errors of Metabolism - this is the state test

A

Genetic disruption of normal metabolism of carbohydrate, protein, fatty acid oxidation, or glucose.
Best outcomes with early detection.
Newborn screening

77
Q

club foot - 2 types - and which one can move?

A

extrinsic - can move
intrinsic - can’t move (look in the book)

78
Q

how long does TTN last? (Dynamite for 3 days)

A

usually less than 72 hours. diagnose with chest x-ray or ultrasound.

79
Q

RDS - is an issue with what?

A

don’t develop surfactant

80
Q

silverman anderson test (Silverman has rsd)

A

for RDS, score over 7 means RDS.

81
Q

what groups are susceptible to retinopathy?

A

with low birth weight and preterm babies

82
Q

Extremely low-birth-weight (ELBW) infant

A

less than 1000 g (2.2 lb)

83
Q

SGA - glucose and temp?

A

Hypoglycemia (usually insulin resistance)
Temperature instability (no shivering reflex and no sub q fat)

84
Q

SGA - hemoglobin levels?

A

Polycythemia (high RBCs - at risk for blood clots)
hemoglobin greater than 20 (check hct #)

85
Q

Septal wall defects do what to pulmonary blood flow?

A

cause increased pulmonary blood flow

86
Q

Defects of the great vessels (mixing at the great wall)

A

defects involving mixing of saturated and desaturated blood

87
Q

anacephaly

A

neural tube doesn’t fuse w/ the cranial - most severe NTD. usually only live a few days. No brain.

88
Q

spinal bifida

A

incomplete development of the brain, spinal cord, and/or their protective coverings caused by the failure of the fetus’s spine to close properly during the first month of pregnancy

89
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia - appearance

A

barrel-shaped chest

90
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia - positioning (the diaphragm is affected)

A

Position the newborn on the affected side with the head and chest elevated to promote normal lung expansion.

91
Q

also pathological jaundice - bilirubin level at any time of what? for preterm and newborn (not exactly 12)

A
  • A serum bilirubin level in a term newborn that exceeds 12.9 mg/dl at any time
  • A serum bilirubin level in a preterm newborn that exceeds 15 mg/dl at any time
92
Q

pathological jaundice - visible jaundice? (not 12)

A
  • Any case of visible jaundice that persists for more than 14 days of life in a term infant
93
Q

how quickly should bili levels drop w/ phototherapy?

A

Bili levels SHOULD drop in 4 – 6 hrs

94
Q

septal wall defect - symptoms (murmur over the wall because I can’t eat)

A

Asymptomatic
Murmur
CHF symptoms
Feeding difficulties bc they’re tired

95
Q

cyanotic heart lesions cause what disorders? (poly has a cyanotic heart that murmurs)

A

Polycythemia
Murmur
Hypoxemia
Dyspnea
Increased cardiac workload

96
Q

obstructive defects - symptoms

A

Decrease in volume to the systemic flow
Symptoms of CHF
Decreased cardiac output
Pump failure

97
Q

Spina bifida cystica
Occulta

A

rare cause of disability

98
Q

Meningocele (mengie is bony but doesn’t get on my nerves)

A

bony defect with protrusion of the meninges and spinal fluid, no nerves involved

99
Q

Myelomeningocele (mylo gets on my nerves) and where is the defect located?

A

involves spinal cord and root nerves herniated into the sac through the bony defect.
Disability occurs below the protrusion.

100
Q

microcephaly - causes (micro mom took aspirin for her zika)

A

Genetics, alcohol use, drug abuse, low maternal BMI, NSAID use, Zika virus and toxin exposure.

101
Q

Esophageal Atresia & Tracheoesophageal Fistula - how do they communicate?

A

The esophagus communicates with the trachea at its distal end.

102
Q

Esophageal Atresia & Tracheoesophageal Fistula - what are the problems? (Atresia has 3 Cs)

A

Unable to swallow their own saliva
Aspiration
The 3 C’s – coughing, choking & cyanosis with feeding***

103
Q

Esophageal Atresia & Tracheoesophageal Fistula - how to treat?

A

Orogastric tube placed for suctioning of saliva
Surgery

104
Q

bladder extrophy - treatment? and what to do before surgery?

A

Surgical repair
Might need some cosmetic surgery to correct genitalia
Suprapubic catheter needed before surgery
Infection precautions

105
Q

TTN - higher in boys or girls?

A

boys

106
Q

TTN - nursing management

A

(IV) fluids and/or gavage feedings until the respiratory rate decreases enough to allow safe oral feeding. Withhold oral feedings until the respiratory status has improved

107
Q

meconium MAS - will pH be high or low?

A

low - acidic

108
Q

main sign of persistent pulmonary hypertension - and how fast? (self-explanatory)

A

demonstrates tachypnea within 12 hours after birth

109
Q

persistent pulmonary hypertension - what sound will you hear in the lungs?

A

harsh murmur

110
Q

necrotizing enterocolitis - most common among which babies?

A

premature (esp with enteral feedings)

111
Q

Spina bifida cystica (cysts are serious)

A

more severe than occulta, and includes meningocele and myelomeningocele

112
Q

Meningocele (mengi is not serious) - does not go where?

A

less severe, spinal cord does not go into dural sac. can range from no symptoms to complete paralysis.

113
Q

myelomeningocele - and what other issue do these patients have?

A

more severe, also involves CNS. patients usually have hydrocephalus also.

114
Q

myelomeningocele - lay in what position?

A

prone or side-lying

115
Q

disorder where infant can’t stop crying (choann, stop crying)

A

Choanal Atresia - they can’t breathe - tongues goes up to palate

116
Q

EA (esophageal atresia) (esop atresia can’t communicate)

A

congenitally interrupted esophagus in which the proximal and distal ends do not communicate

117
Q

TEF (Te can’t communicate) - and what happens to the lungs?

A

abnormal communication between the trachea and esophagus. Fluid may flow directly into lungs***

118
Q

what is the first sign of EA (esophageal atresia)?

A

hydraminos (the fetus can’t swallow amniotic fluid)

119
Q

Gastroschisis differs from omphalocele in that

A

there is no peritoneal sac protecting the herniated organs, and thus exposure to amniotic fluid makes them thickened, edematous, and inflamed

120
Q

Gastroschisis and omphalocele - main concern (the hole is the concern)

A

hypothermia

121
Q

newborn stomach capacity

A

30 - 90 mL

122
Q

ductus veinous

A

left umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

123
Q

where is the ductus arterious?

A

between the the aorta and the pulmonary artery

124
Q

normal newborn bp

A

64/41

125
Q

normal newborn temp

A

36.6 - 37.6 (97.9°F to 99.7)

126
Q

cold stress

A

excessive heat loss that requires a newborn to use compensatory mechanisms (such as nonshivering thermogenesis and tachypnea) to maintain core body temperature

127
Q

3 types of jaundice

A

Bilirubin overproduction, such as from blood incompatibility (Rh or ABO), drugs, trauma at birth, polycythemia, delayed cord clamping, and breast milk jaundice
Decreased bilirubin conjugation, as seen in physiologic jaundice, hypothyroidism, and breast-feeding
Impaired bilirubin excretion, as seen in biliary obstruction (biliary atresia, gallstones, neoplasm), sepsis, hepatitis, chromosomal abnormality (Turner syndrome, trisomies 18 annd 21), and drugs (aspirin, acetaminophen, sulfa, alcohol, steroids, antibiotics)

128
Q

newborns need how many calories a day?

A

108/kg

129
Q

hypothermia leads to

A

hypoglycemia

130
Q

if glucose is less than 25 in first hour and baby is asymptomatic

A

feed and recheck in 1 hour`

131
Q

1st glucose check

A

30 min after first feed

132
Q

low glucose - symptomatic and below 40

A

iv glucose

133
Q

possible signs of hypoglycemia - what reflex?

A

Jitteriness
Irritability
Exaggerated Moro reflex
High Pitched Cry
Poor feeding
Excessive sleepiness and drowsiness

134
Q

acidosis causes what?

A

jaundice

135
Q

low apgar score - at risk for what?

A

jaundice

136
Q

Septal Wall Defect - may have trouble with what?

A

feedings

137
Q

Defects of the Great Vessels - aorta is hooked to

A

right ventricle, and pulmonary artery from the left

138
Q

occulta has

A

tuft of hair

139
Q

Omphalocele & Gastroschisis - main concern?

A

temp regulation (what should be inside is now exposed to outside air)