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Pharm quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

parathyroid

A

stimulates release of calcium from the bones. maintain ca in extracellular fluid

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2
Q

hypothyroid - 3 types

A

primary, secondary, tertiary

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3
Q

primary hypothyroidism (primary the whole thing is f’d)

A

abnormal thyroid gland - most common

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4
Q

secondary hypothyroidism (terminator is second)

A

pituitary gland and related to decreased secretion of TSH (TSH releases T3 and T4)

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5
Q

tertiary hypothyroidism (tersh is the last one releasing)

A

due to decreased levels of TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone) from hypothalamus

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6
Q

hashimotos -Japan autos #1)

A

autoimmune, primary

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7
Q

myxedema

A

severe - adult, typically primary (caused by hypothyroidism). decreased metabolism, feeling cold, swollen tongue

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8
Q

cretinism

A

infant, decreased metabolic rate, retard growth, sexual growth and mental retardation (caused by hypothyroidism)

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9
Q

which type is associated with iodine?

A

primary

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10
Q

s/s of hypothyroidism

A

cold intolerence, unintentional weight gain, depression, dry brittle hair and nails, fatigue. skin thickening. LOC.

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11
Q

diseases associated with hyperthyroidism (Judy was hyper with…)

A

graves (most common) plummers (least common), multinodular disease.

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12
Q

thyroid storm

A

life-threatening - symptoms of hyperthyroidism, caused by stress.

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13
Q

s/s of myxedema (my skin is firm yellow)

A

firm edema, yellow skin, hair loss, weight gain, lethargy, dullness of skin

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14
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

excessive thyroid hormones. increase in metabolism.

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15
Q

s/s of hyperthyroidism (nervous stomach and fatigue)

A

diarrhea, flushing, increased appetite, muscle weakness, fatigue, palpitations, irritiablility, nervousness, sleep disorders, heat intolerance, altered menstrual flow.

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16
Q

treatment for hypo

A

hormone replacement, natural or synthetic.

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17
Q

levothyroxine (synthro makes me skinny and enhances my glyco and protein)

A

(synthroid) hypo - synthetic. increases BMR. enhances glycogensis. stimulates protein synthesis.

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18
Q

labs for hypo - and what are normal TSH levels? (tsh it’s 4)

A

T3 and T4 - normal TSH levels 0.4 - 4.8 mU/L

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19
Q

levothryoxine - who is prescribed to? And what are the adverse affects? (Think too much thyroid)

A

manage thyroid cancer. highly protein bound - remains in blood = toxicity.
adverse - hyper, palpitations, A-fib, weight loss. CANT switch brands

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20
Q

levothryoxine - drug interactions (synthro and mom’s WIDE CAP)

A

digoxin, antiacids, estrogen, insulin, phenytoin. Should be reduced - warafin, catecholamines.

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21
Q

levothryoxine nursing actions - and best time of day to take it? With food or not? (level the TSH)

A

monitor TSH. replacement is lifelong. Take on empty stomach 30 before breakfast w/ water.

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22
Q

levothryoxine (synthroid) doses and overdose (just thyroid storm) (synthroid as early as 25)

A

po 25 - 200 mcg. thyroid storm - tachycardia, neurological and respiratory. metabolism goes up

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23
Q

how much iodide is needed a week?

A

1 mg

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24
Q

hyperthroidism treatment

A

radioactive iodine - destroys thyroid gland. surgery to remove it.

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25
Q

thioamide - hyper or hypo?

A

hyper

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26
Q

elevated levels of parathyroid cause

A

osteoporosis and osteomalacia.

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27
Q

hypoparathyroidism can cause (think too little calcium)

A

hyocalcema and tetany (muscle spasm)

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28
Q

do diabetics need to increase or decrease hypoglycemic drugs while on thyroid meds?

A

may need to increase hypoglycemic drugs.

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29
Q

antithyroid drugs (hyper) with food, or without? What time of day to take?

A

better with food, give at the same time each day, never stop abpruptly.

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30
Q

what foods to avoid on antithyroid? (antithyroid = anti-salt)

A

high in iodine, seafood, soy sauce, tofu, bread, iodized salt

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31
Q

thryoid is regulated by what hormones? and where are they released from?

A

TSH(thyrotropin) - Anterior pituitary and TRH - hypothalamus

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32
Q

posterior pituitary hormones

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin)

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33
Q

adrenalcortical - oversecretion (adrenaline moon)

A

cushings - moon face

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34
Q

adrenalcortical - under-secretion (addy is under-secreting)

A

addisons - Decrease NA & BS, increase K, dehydration & weigh loss

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35
Q

what route can you not give steroids?

A

SC

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36
Q

food or not with steroids?

A

yes, food or milk to avoid stomach upset

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37
Q

on steroids - avoid contact with?

A

ppl who have infections,

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38
Q

take adrenal (steroids) when? And without or with food?

A

same time every day, usually morning with food.

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39
Q

what to avoid with adrenal meds? (prednisone & hydrocortisone) (adriene is uptight - doesn’t drink, take aspirin, or NSAIDs)

A

can affect warafin, but avoid NSAIDs, alcohol and asprin

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40
Q

taper steroids to avoid (think of where steroids come from)

A

adrenal crisis

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41
Q

prediabetes numbers

A

fasting 100 - less than 125

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42
Q

HbA1c measures what? You knew the answer in class.

A

% of glycosylated hemoglobin - forms over lifespan of RBC - 90 days

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43
Q

HbA1c - non-diabetic

A

HbA1c < 5.7%
fasting plasma glucose less than 100

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44
Q

HbA1c - prediabetes

A

HbA1c 5.7 - 6.4%
fasting plasma glucose 100 - 125

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45
Q

HbA1c - diabetes

A

HbA1c greater or equal to 6.5
fasting plasma glucose equal or greater than 126

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46
Q

lispro (rapid lisps are human, but you must eat afterwards) and food when?

A

humalog - rapid. must eat meal afterwards

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47
Q

aspart (a spartan is rapid and novel)

A

novolog - rapid.

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48
Q

glulisine (glide into rapid apid)

A

apidra - rapid

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49
Q

rapid acting - how adminstered?

A

SC or continous SC pump - NOT IV

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50
Q

regular insulin (to be short and regular is human) And how administered? (check the human part)

A

humalin - short-acting. ONLY ONE that can be given IV bolus, IV infusion, or IM.

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51
Q

short-acting - how fast?

A

onset 30 to 60 min

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52
Q

rapid-acting - how fast?

A

5 -15 min

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53
Q

isophane (NPH) and clear or cloudy? (NPR is right in the middle)!

A

neutral protamine hagedorn - intermediate acting. CLOUDY.

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54
Q

glargine (gargle clear lantus for a long time) and clear or cloudy?

A

lantus - long-acting. clear. referred to as basal insulin.

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55
Q

determir (mir and mir is clear and long)

A

levemir - long-acting. clear. referred to basal insulin

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56
Q

combo insulins

A

NPH and regular - 70/30
or 50/50.

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57
Q

how to administer mixed insulin

A

air into intermediate acting first, then air into rapid acting. withdrawal rapid or regular first (clear) then intermediate (cloudy)

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58
Q

metformin MOA (decreases what and increases what - think liver)

A

decreases glucose production in the liver***(this is unique) decreases intestinal absoption of glucose, increases uptake of glucose by tissues.

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59
Q

sulfonylureas - do they stimulate insulin, or not? (sulfunny loves beta)

A

stimulates insulin secretion from beta cells in pancreas, thus increases insulin. Beta cells must work! improves sensitivity to insulin in tissues. Only for type 2.

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60
Q

meformin side effects (metformin is metallic)

A

metallic. abdominal bloating, nausea, cramping, diarrhea, fullness.

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61
Q

sulfonylureas side effects (sulfunny makes me nausous and full) and causes hypo or hyperglycemia?

A

hypoglycemia, nausea, fullness

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62
Q

if patient is hypoglycemic and conscious

A

give oral glucose, corn syrup, honey, fruit jouice or small sanck.

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63
Q

hypogylcemia if patient is unconscous or below 50 (WD 40)

A

give D50W (glucose) or glucagon intravenously

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64
Q

sulfa allergy med that can trigger allergic response (amide with urea)

A

sulfonamide w/ sufonylureas

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65
Q

effects of hyperglyemia - worst case scenario

A

(HHNC) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma.

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66
Q

effects of hypoglycemia (Just coma)

A

diabetic coma or insulin reaction

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67
Q

HHNC treatment (hnc doesn’t always need insulin)

A

IV fluids. don’t always need insulin

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68
Q

DKA treatment (ketoacidosis) (DKNY needs insulin)

A

IV fluids w/ normal saline. Then insulin. DKA is when body breaks down fat for fuel producing ketones, which are toxic.

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69
Q

hypoglycemia s/s (similiar to hyperthyroidism)

A

sweating, tachycardia, respiratory distress, stomach pain, vomiting, agitated, coma, anxiety, confusion, nausea, personality changes, hypothermia

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70
Q

hypoglycemia treatment

A

glucose supplement, OJ, non-diet soda, oral glucose. IM/SC glucagon.

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71
Q

rotate injection sites how?

A

use one spot for about a week then move. Spots should be at least 1/2 to 1 inch apart.

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72
Q

simple partial seizure can you recall it or not? (you can simply recall it, thats it)

A

twitching, conscious and can recall event.

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73
Q

complex partial seizure

A

may have aura, lip smacking - called automatisms.

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74
Q

generalized onset seizures

A

all over the brain.

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75
Q

absent seizures

A

petite. staring and eye fluttering.

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76
Q

myoclonic

A

jerks.

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77
Q

tonic-clonic and loss of consciouness or not?

A

loss of consciousness. jerking.

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78
Q

tonic seizures (that tonic is stiff and I might or might not be conscious)

A

stiff muscles of upper body. may or may not be conscious. NO jerking.

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79
Q

atonic seizures (the drop was a tonic)

A

drop seizures.

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80
Q

first line therapy for antiepileptic (don’t forget carbs)

A

carbamazepine (tegretol), phenytoin (dilantin), Valproate/valproic acid (Depakote®)

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81
Q

what is #1 for seizures

A

dilantin (phenytoin)

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82
Q

longterm effect of phenytoin (dilantin)

A

gingival hyperplasia. and acne, histurism and osteoporosis

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83
Q

what seizure med causes hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis? (Val is toxic to my liver and pancreas)

A

valproic acid

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84
Q

fosphenytoin (cerybyx) vs. phenytoin dosage (phent - you want 50, or 150?)

A

fosphen - NTE 150mg PE/min and pheny - NS only at 50 mg/min.

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85
Q

phenytoin trough level

A

morning, 30 min before dose. wait until you get labs back before giving dose. You have 30 min wiggle room with any med.

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86
Q

if someone is having a seizure,

A

don’t restrain them. remove dangerous objects. direct them to lie down.

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87
Q

antiepileptics - what time to take them?

A

same time every day

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88
Q

dilantin black box warning

A

The rate of intravenous Phenytoin Sodium Injection administration should not exceed 50 mg per minute in adults and 1-3 mg/kg/min (or 50 mg per minute, whichever is slower) in pediatric patients because of the risk of severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias

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89
Q

phenytoin therapeutic levels

A

10-20 mcg/mL

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90
Q

dilantin toxicity s/s (toxic dilan )

A

Coma.
Confusion.
Staggering gait or walk (early sign)
Unsteadiness, uncoordinated movements (early sign)
Involuntary, jerky, repeated movement of the eyeballs called nystagmus (early sign)
Seizures.
Tremor (uncontrollable, repeated shaking of the arms or legs)
Sleepiness.

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91
Q

valproic acid - MOA (Val doesn’t like sodium and calcium)

A

suppresses sodium and calcium channel influx. suppresses high frequency neuronal discharge around the seizure focus.

92
Q

valproic acid drug interactions (Val is at war with aspirin and anti depressants)

A

aspirin, tricyclic antidepressants, rifampin, lorazepam, carbamazepine, oxcarbaepine, and lamotrigine, and warafin

93
Q

why aspirin for MI (myocardial infarction)

A

it inhibits platelet aggregation or formation. It has been shown to reduce cardiac death.

94
Q

adverse effect with aspirin

A

GI intolerence and bleeding. also acute renal failure if patient is dehydrated.

95
Q

aspirin overdose in children - signs

A

hyperventilation and CNS - dizziness, drowsiness, behavioral changes. can have hypogylcemia.

96
Q

aspirin overdose in adults - signs

A

tinnititus and hearing loss. acidosis and alkolosis.

97
Q

allopurinol treats what?

A

gout

98
Q

allopurinol MOA

A

inhibits enzyme xanthine oxidase, which reduces uric acid synthesis.

99
Q

allopurinol side effects (all side effects are AS for my initials)

A

stevens-johnson, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis (low WBC), leukopenia, fever, chills, pruitus, myopathy, renal failure, jaundice, skin stuff.

100
Q

gout - where does it start?

A

toe, ankle, knee

101
Q

gout is caused by…

A

high levels of uric acid in the blood

102
Q

allopurinol is only used to

A

prevent attacks, but can’t treat. it prevents formation of uric acid or oxalate calculi in kidneys. can’t use in acute bc rapid lowering of serum urate may exacerbate the attack`

103
Q

Colchicine (gout) can cause (colte looks anemic, get a blood test)

A

aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, decreased platelets.

104
Q

Colchicine - what organs does it affect?

A

GI and GU bleeding and kidneys

105
Q

what drugs decrease uric acid?

A

allopurinol and probenecid. Colchicine helps with uric acid excretion, but doens’t reduce it.

106
Q

chemical mediators in inflammation

A

histamines first (dilation in arteries) increase permiability, kinins second - increase permiability and pain, and prostaglandins last - increase permiabiliy, vasodilation and pain and fever

107
Q

inflammation overview

A

inflammation, reaction to injury, caused by release of chemical mediators, leads to vascular response, fluid and WBC migrate to injury

108
Q

NSAID s/e

A

dyspepsia, heartburn, epigastic distress, nausea, gi bleeding, mucosal lesions

109
Q

misoprostol (cytotec) (miso protects you)

A

reduces dangerous s/e of NSAIDs, like GI bleeding.

110
Q

NSAID interactions (you nsaids with your PADS)

A

 Anticoagulants
 Aspirin
 Corticosteroids and other ulcerogenic drugs
 Protein bound drugs (NSAIDs bind to protein)
 Diuretics and ACE Inhibitors
 Others (Don quai, feverfew, garlic, ginger, and ginkgo, when taken with NSAIDs, may cause bleeding)

111
Q

Infliximab (Remicade®) (not flexible) and how does it work?

A

Neutralize TNF Disrupt inflammatory process  Delay disease progression
🞑 Used for rheumatoid arthritis
immunosupression, infection.

112
Q

Infliximab (Remicade®) - don’t take if you have what?

A

Don’t take if you have COPD

113
Q

reason for inflammation

A

to wall off, destroy, or dilute injurious agent or injured tissue.

114
Q

don’t use NSAIDs if

A

if you are at risk for bleeding, have a vitamin K defiency, or peptic ulcer disease.

115
Q

aspirin overdose signs

A

increased HR, tinnitius, N/V, sweating, thirst, hypo and hyper.

116
Q

most specific contraindication, or syndrome, associated w/ aspirin

A

reys syndrome

117
Q

methimazole - hypo or hyper?

A

hyper

118
Q

propylthiouracil - hypo or hyper?

A

hyper

119
Q

potassium iodide - hypo or hyper?

A

hyper

120
Q

s/s of hyperglycemia (when I’m hyper on sugar I vomit and I’m confused you SOB)

A

Fruity-smelling breath.
Dry mouth.
Abdominal pain.
Nausea and vomiting.
Shortness of breath.
Confusion.
Loss of consciousness.

121
Q

reyes ages

A

4 - 12 yrs

122
Q

interaction with alluporin (all at war)

A

warafin (bleeding)

123
Q

alluprinol takes how long

A

1-3 weeks to start working

124
Q

colchincine needs how long to avoid drug accumulation (colte needs 3 days)

A

3 days

125
Q

delantin - speed

A

don’t exceed 50mg/min

126
Q

before IV delantin

A

flush and check

127
Q

glucagon makes you

A

throw up

128
Q

probenecid (pro antibiotics, anti uric acid)?

A

helps liver excrete uric acid. ALSO assists with reabsorption of antibiotics (penicillin and ephalosporins)

129
Q

colchicine use long or short term? And why? (Colte is bad for the kidneys)

A

short term, Leukopenia, low WBCs. MAYBE damages kidneys.

130
Q

NSAID properties (the 4 As)

A

🞑 Analgesic
🞑 Anti-inflammatory
🞑 Antipyretic
🞑 Anti-rheumatic

131
Q

prostaglandins cause a (prostate fever)

A

fever and vasodilation!

132
Q

cox 1

A

chronic

133
Q

cox 2 inhibitor (NSAID) (2 is inflammation)

A

inflammation

134
Q

Salicylates (NSAID) make platelets (salli is slippery)

A

slippery

135
Q

aspirin overdose - antidote?

A

there isn’t one. give fluids.

136
Q

acetic acid is ex. (acetic acid for migraines)

A

toradol

137
Q

avoid Cox-2 inhibitors (just NSAIDs) with what group (not elderly)

A

3rd trimester

138
Q

proprionic acids are..

A

ibuprofen

139
Q

Misoprostol (Cytotec®)

A

reduces affects of NSAIDS - protects the stomach.

140
Q

does metformin increase insulin?

A

Does not increase insulin secretion from the pancreas***does not cause hypoglycemia

141
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis caused by hyper or hypo?

A

hyperglycemia (high blood sugar, not enough insulin)

142
Q

addisonian crisis

A

is a life-threatening situation that results in low blood pressure, low blood levels of sugar and high blood levels of potassium. You will need immediate medical care. People with Addison’s disease commonly have associated autoimmune diseases

143
Q

anterior pit - growth hormone for deficiency (dwarfs take soma)

A

somatotrem, somatotropin - used for dwarfism

144
Q

anterior pit - adrenocorticotropic hormone (it’s in the name)

A

corticotropin

145
Q

ADH deficiency causes what (you have it)

A

diabetes insipidous

146
Q

what labs test for hypothyroidism?

A

TSH, T3 and T4

147
Q

when taking synthroid, reduce what drug? (synthroid reduces war with cats)

A

warafin and catecholamines (epi, dopamine)

148
Q

thyroid meds might take how long to work? (think how long it takes spiro to work)

A

several months

149
Q

thyroid meds can enhance what med?

A

anticoagulants

150
Q

thyroid meds may decrease what med? (thryoid decreases what, can you dig?)

A

serum digoxin levels

151
Q

medication for hyperthyroidism (meth and propyl for hyper)

A

methimazole and propylthiouracil

152
Q

adrenal medulla

A

epi and norepi

153
Q

cortex

A

glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids - all cortex are steroid hormones

154
Q

ending in “sone”

A

adrenocorticoids or made by the adrenal cortex

155
Q

Glucocorticoids do what? (sugar is good here)

A

inhibit or help control inflammatory & immune responses

156
Q

(HHNC) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma and diabetic ketoacidosis associated with type 1 or 2?

A

DKA - type 1, HHNC - type 2. Usually, but either can get both.

157
Q

metabolic syndrome of insulin-resistence syndrome or syndrome X

A

combo of:
obesity
coronary heart disease
dylipidemia
hypertension
acroalbuminemia (protein in urine)
increased risk for thrombotic events (blood clots)

158
Q

gestational diabetes - give insulin or not?

A

you must give it to prevent birth defects

159
Q

metformin does not____, but sulfonylureas do______

A

increase insulin, stimulate insulin.

160
Q

glinides (diabetic drug) does what? (Glide into insulin)

A

increase insulin secrection from the pancreas

161
Q

TZD (thiazolinidinediones) diabetic drug - does what? (thia is not sweet, but she decreases my insulin resistence)

A

decreases insulin resistence. Use with caution***

162
Q

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors diabetic drug - does what? (in a glucose-a-daze due to delayed absorption)

A

results in delayed absorption of glucose. must be taken with meals.

163
Q

amylin mimetic (diabetic drug) does what? (Amy is a slow emptier)

A

slows gastric emptying

164
Q

incretin memetic - diabetic drug - does what? (cretins increase insulin)

A

enhances glucose-driven insulin secretion

165
Q

glinides - adverse affects (Glenda is hypo)

A

hypoglycemia

166
Q

thiazolidinediones - adverse affect (thia is bad for my heart)

A

heart failure and MI

167
Q

allergy cross-sensitvitely may occur with what diabetic drugs?

A

loop duiretics and sulfonamide (sulfa) antibiotics

168
Q

what diabetic med interacts with contrast dye?

A

metformin

169
Q

what are focal symptoms and when do they happen?

A

they are twitching, and happen during sezure

170
Q

complex partial seizure - can patient remember or not?

A

not

171
Q

when do auras occur? (auras are complex like migraines)

A

complex partial

172
Q

staring happens with complex partial and absent seizure - how to tell them apart?

A

absent is usually shorter and quicker recovery

173
Q

ictus

A

actual seizure. post ictus if after the seizure.

174
Q

notify nurse during seizuure if

A

for more than two (2) consecutive minutes or the individual experiences two (2) or more generalized seizures without full recovery of consciousness between seizures.

175
Q

cytotec generic name

A

misoprostol - it’s a hormone

176
Q

how do seizure meds work

A

increase threshold or decrease spread and speed

177
Q

AED therapy is usually lifelong, but…

A

not always! Patients who are seizure free for 1 to 2 years may be able to discontinue antiepileptic therapy

178
Q

black box warning anti seizure meds

A

suicidal thoughts

179
Q

carbemazapine tegretol action and adverse affects (carb suppresses sodium and causes anemia)

A

Suppression of sodium influx and adverse - anemia

180
Q

dilantin action (same as the others)

A

Suppression of sodium influx

181
Q

valproic acid (depakote) action (Val is a little different)

A

Suppression of both sodium and calcium channel influx

182
Q

valproic acid safe does ranges (older Val is 50 - 150)

A

Therapeutic Levels 50 – 150 mg/ml

183
Q

induration, erythema, calor, dolor = rubor)

A

thick skin, redness, heat, pain, redness

184
Q

first mediator during inflammation

A

histamine

185
Q

what regulates inflammation (prostate is inflamed)

A

prostaglandin

186
Q

what to do before you start colchicine?

A

GET CBC before starting.

187
Q

3 reasons for taking NSAIDS

A

🞑 Analgesic
🞑 Antipyretic
🞑 Antiinflammatory

188
Q

age 60 or older, should you take daily NSAID?

A

nope

189
Q

Acetic Acid Derivatives (NSAIDS) used for? (acid for bursitis)

A

arthritis, bursitis

190
Q

sulfurneyeas (sulfunny is made of chloro and glim)

A

1st generation - chlorpopamide, 2nd generation - glimepiride

191
Q

macrovascular

A

large arteries, plaque

192
Q

microvascular

A

capillary, blindness, neuropathy

193
Q

ex of biguanides (the guan is just a phage)

A

metformin (also called glucophage)

194
Q

ketorolac is

A

toradol. only use for 5 days due to renal impairment

195
Q

focal onset seizures

A

originate in a localized region of the brain

196
Q

primary epilespy

A

no known cause

197
Q

status epilepticus

A

tonic-clonic seizures that occur repeatedly. True medical emergency

198
Q

clonic seizures

A

alternating contraction and relaxation

199
Q

if you have just 1 seizure, should you take meds?

A

no, they may not come back

200
Q

anti-seizure meds, can you take generic?

A

yes, but should be closely monitored

201
Q

don’t drink carbonated drinks with what drug? (Val can’t even have carbonated drinks)

A

valproic acid

202
Q

phenytoin s/e when giving IV

A

cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension, respiratory arrest and related deaths

203
Q

what regulates thryoid hormones?

A

TSH and TRH

204
Q

in general, what lowers calcium influx?

A

seizure meds

205
Q

NSAID black box warning

A

increased chance of heart attack or stroke

206
Q

meds for chronic gout

A

allopurinol and probenecid

207
Q

med for acute gout

A

cholchicine

208
Q

why can synthroid be so toxic?

A

it highly protein-bound, stays in system a long time

209
Q

reye’s does what? (reye’s liver)

A

coma and liver damage

210
Q

what patients need to take lower doses of aspirin?

A

those taking warafin, stroke, ulcer, blood thinners

211
Q

taking synthroid - what drugs to increase? (it PAIDE to increase synthroid)

A

Diogin, antacids, estrogen, insulin, phentyoin

212
Q

treatment for cushings (amin has cushings)

A

aminglutethemide

213
Q

recombinant insulin (recombine yeast and bacteria)

A

made from yeats and bacteria

214
Q

increase insulin which drugs? (insulin going up is sulfunny to glenda and creatin)

A

sulfunnys, glinides, incretin memetic,

215
Q

decreases insulin resistence drug (decrease insulin when watching TMZ)

A

TZD

216
Q

carbemazepine MOA (carb suppresses sodium)

A

suppresses sodium influx

217
Q

carbemazepine side effects (carb is like Al, my initials)

A

anemia, stevens

218
Q

ALL seizure meds suppress sodium influx except

A

valproic acid, which also suppresses Ca

219
Q

cox 1 and 2 enzymes convert

A

acid into prostaglandins. Cox 2 triggers pain. Block this, and you block pain.

220
Q

infliximab side effect (not flexible with infection)

A

infection

221
Q

what drugs cause metallic taste?

A

colchicine and metformin

222
Q

antigout - with food or not?

A

with food.

223
Q

aspirin inteacts with..

A

antidiabetic drugs

224
Q

torodol is an

A

acetic acid

225
Q

in a glucosadaze, so you MUST

A

give it with the first bite of a meal

226
Q

when to give oral diabetic drugs?

A

usually 30 min before a meal

XIO (393 decks)

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