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aa Orgo > Pharm Final 6 > Flashcards

Pharm Final 6 Flashcards

1
Q

serotonin receptor agonist used for migraines

A

sumatriptan

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2
Q

phenobarbital

A

barbiturate (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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3
Q

diazepam

A

benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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4
Q

zolpidem

A

benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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5
Q

eszopiclone

A

“other anxiolytic and hypnotic drugs” (this one is Lunesta)

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6
Q

general CNS depressants that inhibit neuronal impulse conduction

A

barbiturates

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7
Q

Although the mechanism of barbiturates is unclear, it might have to do with activating

A

GABA

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8
Q

the major inhibitory transmitter of the CNS

A

GABA

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9
Q

the 2 major groups of sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytics

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines

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10
Q

facilitate activity of GABA at it’s receptors

A

benzodiazepines (and possibly barbiturates)

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11
Q

the suffix “ital” means

A

barbiturate

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12
Q

the suffix “pam” means

A

benzodiazepine

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13
Q

benzodiazepines are less likely to causes this than barbiturates

A

respiratory depression, coma, death

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14
Q 
clinical pharmacology:
sedation
hypnosis
anesthesia
anticonvulsant
muscle relaxant
respiratory depression
anxiety disorders
A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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15
Q

used to induce anesthesia

A

barbiturates

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16
Q

reduces the amount of anesthesia needed

A

barbiturates

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17
Q

used for epilepsy

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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18
Q

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic) control epilepsy by

A

reducing the number of neurons firing

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19
Q 
toxic/undesirable effects:
tolerance
physical dependence 
anterograde amnesia
drowsiness
respiratory depression, coma, death
A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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20
Q

tolerance develops for anti-seizure effects

A

benzodiazepines

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21
Q

tolerance does not develop for anxiolytic effects

A

benzodiazepines

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22
Q

tolerance develops to the sedative and hypnotic effects

A

barbiturates

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23
Q

withdrawal symptoms include anxiety and insomnia

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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24
Q

toxic/undesirable effects: anterograde amnesia

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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25
Q

toxic/undesirable effects: respiratory depression, coma, death

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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26
Q

poor memory during the drug use, memory returns after

A

anterograde amnesia

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27
Q

inducers of the P450 system

A

barbiturates

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28
Q

drug interactions occur with other CNS sedatives like alcohol, narcotics, and anticonvulsants

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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29
Q 
clinical uses:
anxiety
sleep disorders
anesthesia
epilepsy
alcohol withdrawal
A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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30
Q

nursing implications for barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic) (4)

A

vitals
assess sleep patterns
day time drowsiness (don’t drive etc)
avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants (like benedryl)

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31
Q 
nursing implications:
vitals
assess sleep patterns
day time drowsiness (don't drive etc)
avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants
A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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32
Q

nursing implications: day time drowsiness (don’t drive etc)

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic)

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33
Q

2 drugs we learned that are best for insomnia

A

zolpidem and eszopiclone

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34
Q

haloperidol

A

antipsychotic

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35
Q

clozapine

A

antipsychotic

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36
Q

prochlorperazine

A

antipsychotic

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37
Q

in addition to being an antipsychotic, it’s also used for antiemetic

A

prochlorperazine

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38
Q

the glaring/obvious symptoms of schizophrenia are called

A

positive symptoms

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39
Q

are antipsychotics better at controlling positive symptoms or negative symptoms?

A

positive

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40
Q

In schizophrenia, speech pattern and lack of emotion are __ symptoms

A

negative

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41
Q

although the pathogenesis of schizophrenia is uncertain, the best theory is the ___ hypothesis

A

dopamine hypothesis

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42
Q

hyperdopaminergic means

A

too much DA

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43
Q

the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia is that there’s an imbalance of DA. hyperdopaminergia causes __ symptoms and hypodopaminergic causes __ symptoms

A

positive

negative

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44
Q

2 examples of a conventional antipsychotic

A

haloperidol

prochlorperazine

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45
Q

example of atypical antipsychotic

A

clozapine

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46
Q

Both conventional and atypical drugs are good at treating positive symptoms, but ___ can also treat negative symptoms

A

atypical

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47
Q

has side effects r/t muscle activity

A 
conventional antipsychotic (haloperidol
prochlorperazine)
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48
Q

class of drug that works by blocking receptors for DA, ACH, histamine, and NE

A

antipsychotics

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49
Q

class of drug has emotional quieting and reduced physical movement

A

antipsychotics

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50
Q

class of drug, antiemetic

A

antipsychotics

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51
Q

class of drug, increases prolactin

A

antipsychotics

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52
Q

antipsychotics side effects (4)

A

dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, sedation, orthostatic hypotension

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53
Q

class of drug, has antihistamine effect (causes sedation)

A

antipsychotics

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54
Q

which group of antipsychotic causes less extrapyramidal side effects

A

atypical

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55
Q

which group of antipsychotic can relieve positive and negative symptoms

A

atypical

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56
Q

__ is used to treat some of the extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics

A

benedryl

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57
Q

name of side effect: spasms of face, neck, mouth, back

A

acute dystonia

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58
Q

name of side effect: tremor, bradykinesia, mask-like face, altered posture

A

Parkinson’s

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59
Q

name of side effect: catatonia, rigidity, fever

A

malignant syndrome

60
Q

name of side effect: involuntary movements of mouth, face, trunk and extremities; sucking and smacking lips

A

tardive dyskinesia

61
Q

treatment of acute dystonia

A

anti-cholinergic (parkinson’s drug?)

62
Q

treatment of Parkinsons

A

anti-cholinergic (parkinson’s drug?)

63
Q

treatment of malignant syndrome

A

stop meds immediately

64
Q

treatment of tardive dyskinesia

A

minimize doses initially

65
Q

side effect that’s irreversible and therefore the causative drug should be started at low dose

A

tardive dyskinesia

66
Q

time of onset, tardive dyskinesia

A

months to years

67
Q

time of onset, malignant syndrome

A

weeks

68
Q

time of onset, Parkinson’s

A

5-30 days

69
Q

time of onset, acute dystonia

A

1-5 days

70
Q

clinical use can include tourettes syndrome

A

antipsychotic

71
Q

antipsychotic nursing implications (3)

A

vitals
monitor extrapyramidal side effects
avoid alcohol

72
Q

which antipsychotic is good for antiemetic

A

prochlorperazine

73
Q

what’s the best side effect to identify malignant syndrome

A

fever

74
Q

depression in response to an event

A

reactive

75
Q

depression not in response to an event

A

no reason

76
Q

no reason depression is aka

A

endogenous depression

77
Q

no reason depression includes __ disorder

A

bipolar disorder

78
Q

symptoms: increase or decrease weight, can’t sleep or sleep too much

A

depression

79
Q

depression involves an imbalance between __ and __ neurotransmitters

A

inhibitory and excitatory

80
Q

most significant neurotransmitters in depression

A

serotonin and NE

81
Q

Major classes of antidepressants (4)

A

MAO inhibitors
TCA
SSRI
Other

82
Q

Not an antidepressant, a mood stimulator

A

lithium

83
Q

TCA prototype

A

amitryptyline

84
Q

SSRI prototype

A

sertraline

85
Q

MAO prototype

A

phenelzine

86
Q

prototype of “other” antidepressants

A

bupropion

87
Q

antidepressant that works by blocking of NE and/or serotonin reuptake

A

amitryptyline

88
Q

antidepressant takes 2-3 weeks to work

A

amitryptyline

89
Q

antidepressant,
anti-cholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention)
anti-histamine effects (sedation)
orthostatic hypotension

A

amitryptyline

90
Q

TCA has SEVERE reaction with

A

MAO inhibitors (coma)

91
Q

TCA (amitryptyline) contraindications

A

heart conditions

92
Q

side effects,

drowsy, dizzy, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, constipation

A

TCA (amitryptyline)

93
Q

toxic effects,

cardiac conduction defects, coma CV collapse, seizures, delerium

A

TCA (amitryptyline)

94
Q

used for endogenous depression

A

TCA (amitryptyline)

95
Q

used for OCD

A

TCA (amitryptyline)

96
Q

antidepressant, blocks reuptake of 5HT by presynaptic terminal

A

(SSRI) sertraline

97
Q

increases level of 5HT

A

(SSRI) sertraline

98
Q

antidepressant with no anticholinergic action

A

(SSRI) sertraline

99
Q

side effects,

insomnia, nervousness, akathesia, tinnitus, headache, sexual problems, weight loss followed by weight gain

A

(SSRI) sertraline

100
Q

drug that irreversibly inactivates MAO

A

phenelzine

101
Q

increases levels of amines such as norepinephrine, epinephrine, DA, serotonin, and tyramine

A

phenelzine

102
Q

suppress REM and causes orthostatic hypotension

A

phenelzine

103
Q

has interactions with foods high in tyramine (such as beer, cheese, chicken liver)

A

MAO inhibitors (phenelzine)

104
Q

phenelzine interaction with tyramine

A

hypertension

105
Q

antidepressant that enhances the action of general anesthetics, sedatives, narcotics, and TCAs

A

phenelzine

106
Q

antidepressant contraindicated with st johns wort

A

phenelzine (both are MAO inhibitors)

107
Q

toxic effects,
liver toxicity
2-3 drug-free period before taking a tri/hetero-cyclic antidepressant

A

phenelzine

108
Q

overdose can result in agitation, headache, convulsions, hypo/hypertension

A

phenelzine

109
Q

weakly blocks reuptake of NE, serotonin, and DA

A

bupropion (“other”)

110
Q

at lower doses, can be used for smoking cessation

A

bupropion (“other”)

111
Q

antidepressant with side effects: CNS stimulation, weight change, dry mouth, headaches, GI effects

A

bupropion (“other”)

112
Q

used in treatment of mania and manic parts of bipolar disorder

A

lithium

113
Q

lithium route of administration

A

oral

114
Q

drug with very narrow TI

A

lithium

115
Q

side effects:

polyuria, excessive thirst, epileptic seizures, thyroid enlargement

A

lithium

116
Q

contraindicated in pregnancy

A

lithium

117
Q

the main receptor for opioid is

A

Mu

118
Q

extrapyramidal side effects refer to ___ issues

A

muscle

119
Q

extrapyramidal side effects are treated with ___ or ___

A

benedryl or benztropine

120
Q

insulin increases uptake or

A

glucose

121
Q

insulin increases storage of glucose as __ in the ___

A

glycogen in the liver

122
Q

insulin inhibits (3)

A

gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, lipolysis (which makes sense because the point of insulin is to decrease the excess energy in the blood)

123
Q

insulin promotes uptake of AAs and __ synthesis in muscle

A

protein

124
Q

insulin decreases free __ acids and promotes triglyceride storage in

A

free fatty acids

adipocytes

125
Q

increases uptake of potassium

A

insulin

126
Q

diabetes is characterized by either having no __ or the body not responding to insulin

A

insulin

127
Q

kind of diabetes thats an autoimmune disorder

A

type 1

128
Q

type of diabetes where there’s no circulating insulin in the plasma

A

type 1

129
Q

type of diabetes where patient is prone to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis

A

type 1

130
Q

kind of diabetes “absolute deficiency”

A

type 1

131
Q

kind of diabetes “relative deficiency”

A

type 2

132
Q

kind of diabetes where the body isn’t responding to insuln

A

type 2

133
Q

kind of diabetes that happens with obesity

A

type 2

134
Q

kind of diabetes occurs due to a defect in the receptor on the pancreatic B cell

A

type 2

135
Q

in type 1 diabetes, what causes glycosuria, osmotic diuresis, thirst, dehydration

A

kidneys overloaded with glucose

136
Q

without insulin, a child with IDDM wastes away and dies from DKA which is

A

diabetic ketoacidosis

137
Q

kind of diabetes, hyperglycemia

A

type 1

138
Q

kind of diabetes, glycosuria

A

type 1

139
Q

kind of diabetes, polydipsia

A

type 1

140
Q

kind of diabetes, weight loss

A

type 1

141
Q

kind of diabetes, malaise

A

type 1

142
Q

kind of diabetes, ketoacidosis

A

type 1

143
Q

increased level or circulating fatty acids, leads to renal failure and circulatory collapse

A

ketoacidosis

144
Q

kind of diabetes, decreased glucose transport in muscle, elevated hepatic glucose production, and increased breakdown of fat

A

type 2

145
Q

kind of diabetes, impaired insulin secretion; may lead to beta cell “burn out”

A

type 2

146
Q

kind of diabetes, increased glucose secretion by the liver (in response to increase insulin)

A

type 2

147
Q 
disease includes:
nephropathy
neuropathy
retinopathy
atherosclerosis
A

diabetes

aa Orgo (196 decks)

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