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aa Orgo > 301 Test 2 muscle skeletal > Flashcards

301 Test 2 muscle skeletal Flashcards

1
Q

At times, you will assess the musculoskeletal system and the ____ system together

A

neurological

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2
Q

Musculoskeletal Assessment: Ask clients if they have had previous problems with falls, fractures, trauma, or ___ deficit.

A

neurological

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3
Q

excessive inward curvature of the spine

A

lordosis

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4
Q

humpback

A

kyphosis

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5
Q

5 NDX of musculoskeletal assessment

A 
Impaired mobility
impaired ADLs
risk for fall
activity intolerance
self-health management
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6
Q

main point of body mechanics

A

To move your body without causing injury

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7
Q

Avoid bending and __

A

twisting

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8
Q

when lifting ___ abdominal muscles and tuck ___

A

tighten

pelvis

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9
Q

how many minutes a week of moderate and vigorous-intensity exercise are recommended

A

150–300

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10
Q

a complete or partial collapse of a lung

A

Atelectasis

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11
Q

Atelectasis/pneumonia can be caused by

A

Immobility

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12
Q

Increased coagulability can be caused by

A

Immobility

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13
Q

Glucose intolerance can be caused by

A

Immobility

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14
Q

Orthostatic hypotension can be caused by

A

Immobility

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15
Q

Renal calculi can be caused by

A

Immobility

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16
Q

Paralytic ileus can be caused by

A

Immobility

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17
Q

Urinary tract infection can be caused by

A

Immobility

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18
Q

Obstruction of the intestine due to paralysis of the intestinal muscles

A

Paralytic ileus

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19
Q

NDX with the external related factors: chemical substance, extremes in age, hyperthermia, hypothermia, moisture, medications, radiation

A

impaired skin integrity

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20
Q

NDX with the internal related factors: change in fluid status, change in pigment, change in turgor, immunological deficit, impaired metabolic state

A

impaired skin integrity

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21
Q

NDX defining characteristic: invasion of body structures

A

impaired skin integrity

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22
Q

If the patient has no neural complaints, it acceptable to

A

only check if they’re alter and oriented

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23
Q

If patient has neural issues, the first question you ask is

A

do they have a headache

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24
Q

A headache could signify

A

increased cranial pressure which could lead to stroke

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25
Q

numbness and tingling could mean the pt is having a

A

stroke

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26
Q

if patient has numbness and tingling next step is to assess

A

motor ability

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27
Q

difficulty or discomfort in swallowing

A

dysphagia

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28
Q

cranial nerve, most EOM movement

A

oculomotor

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29
Q

cranial nerve, opening eyelids

A

oculomotor

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30
Q

cranial nerve, pupil constriction/lens shape

A

oculomotor

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31
Q

cranial nerve, down and outward eye movement

A

trochlear

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32
Q

cranial nerve, lateral eye movement

A

abducens

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33
Q

cranial nerve, chewing

A

trigeminal

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34
Q

cranial nerve, sensation in face, scalp, cornea

A

trigeminal

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35
Q

cranial nerve, sensation in mucous membrane and mouth and nose

A

trigeminal

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36
Q

cranial nerve, close eye

A

facial

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37
Q

cranial nerve, labial speech, close mouth

A

facial

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38
Q

cranial nerve, taste in front of tongue

A

facial

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39
Q

cranial nerve, saliva and tear secretion

A

facial

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40
Q

cranial nerve, swallowing

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus

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41
Q

cranial nerve, gag reflex/taste in back of tongue

A

glossopharyngeal

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42
Q

cranial nerve, movement of tongue

A

hypoglossal

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43
Q

optic disc swelling that is caused by increased intracranial pressure

A

papilledema

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44
Q

PERRLA tests which cranial nerve

A

Oculomotor

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45
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils are equal, round, reactive to light, accommodate

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46
Q

which cranial nerve is tested by asking the patient to clench teeth and then you try to open them

A

trigeminal (which does chewing)

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47
Q

which cranial nerve is test when you do light touch on the person’s face

A

trigeminal (sensation in the face)

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48
Q

which cranial nerve is tested when you ask the person to smile, frown, etc

A

facial (face muscles)

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49
Q

which cranial nerves are tested when you depress with tongue blade and ask the person to say Ahh

A

glossopharyngeal and vagus

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50
Q

When a person says Ahh the soft palate and uvula should rise in the midline and the tonsil pillars should move

A

medially

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51
Q

which nerve is tested when you ask the patient to forcefully turn their head

A

spinal

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52
Q

which nerve is tested when you ask the person to stick out their tongue or say “light tight dynamite”

A

hypoglossal (does tongue movement)

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53
Q

being unable to see might be a precursor to

A

MS

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54
Q

when you shine the light on one eye, the other should constrict too, this is called

A

consensual constriction

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55
Q

when looking at an object that’s far away, your eyes

A

dilate

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56
Q

characterized by severe pain in the cheek. Cause can be unknown or can be from facial radiation

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

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57
Q

acoustic nerve problems often have to do with a

A

tumor

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58
Q

if someone has a hearing nerve problem, it involves the nerve on the same side as the ear (aka it’s ___)

A

ipsilateral

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59
Q

for peripheral neuropathy and diabetes, test with light, random touch. Do not use

A

strokes

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60
Q

“as part of a neuro exam I’m going to ask you to identify some objects with your eyes closed”

A

stereogenesis

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61
Q

If someone can identify an object they are stereogenesis ___

A

positive

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62
Q

In scales, what number usually indicates normal

A

2

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63
Q

reflex that’s normal from 2 1/2 months to 2 1/2 years

A

babinski

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64
Q

in the babinski reflex the toes

A

extend

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65
Q

3 areas tested in the glascow coma scale

A

eye
motor
verbal

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66
Q

glascow eye is a scale of what to what

A

1 to 4

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67
Q

glascow motor is a scale of what to what

A

1 to 6

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68
Q

glascow verbal is a scale of what to what

A

1 to 5

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69
Q

glascow opens eye spontaneous

A

4

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70
Q

glascow opens eye to speech

A

3

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71
Q

glascow opens eye to pain

A

2

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72
Q

glascow no response is always (not 0)

A

1

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73
Q

glascow moves in response to speech

A

6

74
Q

glascow localizes pain

A

5

75
Q

glascow flexion withdraw

A

4

76
Q

glascow flexion abnormal

A

3

77
Q

glascow extension abnormal

A

2

78
Q

glascow oriented x3

A

5

79
Q

glascow conversation confused (thinks it’s 1962, but said it normally)

A

4

80
Q

glascow speech inappropriate (says normal words but they dont make sense it this context)

A

3

81
Q

glascow speech incomprehensible

A

2

82
Q

patient holding 1 arm and liming could indicate

A

stroke

83
Q

spinal cord injury increases risk for (3)

A

cant pee, constipated, impaction

84
Q

to check for urinary retention, palpate

A

superpubic region

85
Q

fecal impaction can lead to death because it effects which nerve

A

vagus

86
Q

arms at the core, feet flexed and turned in. Means serious brain issues

A

decorticate rigidity

87
Q

For pain stimulation, we do not use

A

sternal rubbing

88
Q

which is more serious between decerebrate rigidity and decorticate rigidity

A

decerebrate

89
Q

arms adducted to the persons sides

A

decerebrate rigidity

90
Q

acute confusion is aka

A

delirium

91
Q

Everyone in an ICU gets screened for

A

delirium

92
Q

best test to confirm dementia is

A

beside cognitive exam

93
Q

PET scan is used for

A

cancer patients

94
Q

cardiac ischemia leads to

A

angina

95
Q

difficult or labored breathing

A

dyspnea

96
Q

the most important vital to check if someone has activity intolerance

A

SAO2

97
Q

normal range for albumin

A

3.5 to 5.0

98
Q

low sodium is aka

A

hyponutrenia

99
Q

tensing legs and then relaxing is what kind of exercise

A

isometric exercise

100
Q

walking is what kind of exercise

A

weight bearing

101
Q

cycling and swimming dont do bone growth but they’re good for

A

joint mobility

102
Q

joint becomes fused in place

A

contracture

103
Q

how often should you do range of motion

A

every 2 hours

104
Q

atelectasis is caused by

A

ineffective breathing. Can esp be a problem for someone who is laying down and therefore can’t take a deep breath. This means the lower alveoli don’t get used, which can lead to bacterial infection

105
Q

best way to prevent pneumonia is

A

oral care QID

106
Q

temp of a DVT leg will be

A

increased

107
Q

3 cranial nerves usually assessed together

A

oculomotor, trochlear, abducens

108
Q

cranial nerve for superior oblique

A

trochlear

109
Q

weakness of which nerve causes ptosis

A

oculomotor

110
Q

testing how well someone can move his jaw

A

trigeminal

111
Q

asking someone to open his eyes

A

facial

112
Q

can you clench your eyes shut

A

facial

113
Q

can you smile, puff cheeks, etc

A

facial

114
Q

tuning fork is used for which 2 tests

A

weber and rinne

115
Q

weber and rinne test which nerve

A

acoustic

116
Q

Weber involves placing the tuning fork where?

A

forehead

117
Q

can you cough?

A

vagus and glossopharyngeal

118
Q

can you stick out your tongue?

A

hypoglossal

119
Q

what kind of vitamin deficiency causes loss of smell

A

zinc

120
Q

An intact corneal reflex is a normal finding for which nerve

A

trigeminal

121
Q

being able to feel light touch in the face is a normal finding of which nerve

A

trigeminal

122
Q

being able to taste at the front of the tongue

A

facial

123
Q

a negative romberg test is a normal finding for which nerve

A

acoustic

124
Q

ability to talk

A

vagus and glossopharyngeal

125
Q

able to swallow

A

vagus and glossopharyngeal

126
Q

gag reflex

A

vagus and glossopharyngeal

127
Q

uvula and soft palate rise symmetrically

A

vagus and glossopharyngeal

128
Q

poor voice quality is an abnormal finding for which nerve

A

vagus

129
Q

test if client can say “d, l, n, t”

A

hypoglossal

130
Q

optic nerve deficits may be due to __ or __

A

tumor or CVA

131
Q

EOMs and pupillary reaction can result from change in

A

ICP

132
Q

asymmetrical movement of the face (facial nerve) can result from CVA or

A

Bells Palsy

133
Q

Ptosis is caused by damage to which nerve

A

oculomotor

134
Q

horner syndrome is

A

decreased pupil size/ptosis

135
Q

back and forth oscillation of the eyes

A

nystagmus

136
Q

uncoordinated/unsteady gate

A

ataxia

137
Q

positive romberg can indicate which disease

A

MS

138
Q

loss of vibration sense occurs in diabetes and

A

alcoholism

139
Q

__ and __ are unreliable indicators of CNS deficit

A

pulse and BP

140
Q

muscle twitching

A

fasiculation

141
Q

sudden jerk at fairly regular intervals (ie hiccup, arm jerk)

A

myoclonus

142
Q

most common tremor in older adults

A

essential tremor

143
Q

the 3 main medications included in risk for falls

A

diuretics, opiates, antihypertensives

144
Q

Standing: crutches on __ side

A

bad

145
Q

client should not to lean on ___ to support body weight

A

crutches

146
Q

walk w cane on __ side

A

good

147
Q

Preventing complications of immobility: Provide high-protein, high-caloric diet with vitamin _ and _ supplements

A

B and C

148
Q

Preventing complications of immobility: Cough and deep breathe every

A

1 to 2 hours

149
Q

Vitamin _ is needed for skin integrity and wound healing

A

B

150
Q

SCDs

A

sequential compression device

151
Q

CPM

A

continuous passive motion

152
Q

Clients need between ___ to 3000 ml of fluids per day to help prevent renal calculi and UTIs

A

2000

153
Q

head tilts to one side

A

Torticollis

154
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, full ROM against gravity, full resistance

A

5

155
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, full ROM against gravity, some resistance

A

4

156
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, full ROM with gravity

A

3

157
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)

A

2

158
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, slight contraction

A

1

159
Q

Grading Muscle Strength, no contraction

A

0

160
Q

Order of the muscle examination

A

Inspection, palpation, ROM, muscle strength test

161
Q

Inflammatory conditions of joints include RA and

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

162
Q

Degenerative conditions of joints include

A

Osteoarthritis

Osteoporosis

163
Q

Serotonin __ pain

A

inhibits

164
Q

Prostaglandins ___ pain

A

promote

165
Q

bind to peripheral nerve receptors and promote pain; bind to cells to produce prostaglandins

A

Bradykinin

166
Q

Body’s natural supply of morphine like substances

A

Neuromodulators

167
Q

Increased blood glucose is sympathetic or para?

A

sympthathetic

168
Q

Pallor, Muscle tension, Rapid irregular breathing is sympathetic or para?

A

para

169
Q

pain that arises in the skin or the subcutaneous tissue.

A

Superficial

170
Q

pain that originates in the ligaments, tendons, nerves, blood vessels, and bones.

A

Somatic

171
Q

fracture or sprain, arthritis, and bone cancer can cause deep __ pain

A

somatic

172
Q

pain that occurs in an area that is distant from the original site. For example, the pain from a heart attack may be experienced down the left arm

A

Referred

173
Q

pain that is believed to arise from the mind

A

Psychogenic

174
Q

complex and often chronic pain that arises when injury to one or more nerves results in repeated transmission of pain signals even in the absence of painful stimuli

A

Neuropathic

175
Q

pain that is both chronic and highly resistant to relief

A

Intractable

176
Q

older adult feel drugs more ___ than younger

A

strongly

177
Q

Fatigue increases the perception of

A

pain

178
Q

VS not valid indication of __

A

pain

179
Q

TENS

A

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

180
Q

PENS

A

Percutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (PENS)

181
Q

drugs used to treat other conditions but they also have analgesic qualities (tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants).

A

Adjuvants and coanalgesics

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