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aa Orgo > 4092 7 HIV > Flashcards

4092 7 HIV Flashcards

1
Q

vertical transmission means

A

perinatal transmission

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2
Q

A _____ is created when the viral DNA integrates itself into the cellular DNA or genome of the cell

A

provirus

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3
Q

HIV causes significant changes in the ____ ratio

A

CD4+/CD8+

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4
Q

HIV causes absent or decreased skin

A

test reactivity (anergy)

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5
Q

HIV causes increased ____ levels

A

immunoglobulin

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6
Q

Antiretroviral drugs play a key role in interrupting the HIV disease process by

A

inhibiting the ability of the virus to replicate

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7
Q

Most antiretroviral drugs cannot cross the blood-brain barrier, so the drugs

A

do not have an effect on CNS problems caused by HIV infection

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8
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by a__

A

age

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9
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by s_____ ____

A

substance abuse

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10
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by m_____

A

malnutrition

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11
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by g____s

A

genetics

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12
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by g_____r

A

gender

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13
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by p_____

A

pregnancy

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14
Q

Course of HIV illness can be affected by other i_____

A

infections

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15
Q

Primary infection (Stage I) the initial period after a person has acquired HIV varies from

A

several weeks to a few months

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16
Q

In which stage might the person be asymptomatic

A

Stage 2

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17
Q

Viral destruction is taking place in which phase

A

Stage 2

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18
Q

Which phase: Persistent fever, involuntary weight loss, chronic diarrhea, fatigue, night sweats, thrush

A

Stage 3

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19
Q

Stage 4 manifestations

A

Neuro disease (dementia etc)
Opportunistic infection
secondary cancer

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20
Q

Classification A

A

Has HIV and is asymptomatic, can last for many years

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21
Q

Classification B

A

Have respiratory or other illnesses more frequently than in the past.
Thrush or candidiasis may appear, and clients may seek HIV testing

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22
Q

Classification C

A

Have HIV and an AIDS defining illness

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23
Q

Viral loads—10,000 copies/ml ___ risk for AIDS

A

low

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24
Q

Viral load– 10,000—100,000 copies/ml ___ risk for AIDS

A

doubles the

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25
Q

Viral load >100,000 copies/ml ___ risk for AIDS

A

high

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26
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: PCP stands for

A

Pneumocystic Carinii Pneumonia

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27
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: Chronic ____ Diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidial

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28
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: Cerebral ____

A

Toxoplasmosis

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29
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: Oral, Esophageal, Pulmonary

A

Candidiasis

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30
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: Chronic Herpes ____

A

Simplex

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31
Q

AIDs Defining Illnesses: Kaposi’s ____ and other cancers

A

Sarcoma

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32
Q

Elisa: May be negative if

A

exposure was within last three months

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33
Q

___ ___ test may detect presence of HIV in blood of CSF before seroconversion

A

P24 antigen

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34
Q

P24 antigen test may detect presence of HIV in blood of CSF before

A

seroconversion

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35
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test is used

A

to check patients that have a false negative with Elisa/Western

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36
Q

Oraquick: how does it work

A

Specimen may be obtained by fingerstick or venipuncture;

results can be read in 20 minutes

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37
Q

HIV testing requires ___ consent

A

written

38
Q

What should you do for: Asymptomatic clients with CD4+ count

A

treat

39
Q

What should you do for: Asymptomatic clients with CD4+ counts 200-350

A

therapy should be offered

40
Q

What should you do for: Asymptomatic clients with CD4+ counts > 350

A

Defer treatment or consider if viral load is high

41
Q

HAART Therapy: Multiple drugs are used because they reduce the likelihood of

A

developing resistance

42
Q

Drugs to treat HIV/AIDS are categorized based on which part of the

A

viral replication cycle they are effective against

43
Q

types of drug: Genotype resistance

A

—the virus mutates

44
Q

types of drug: Phenotype resistance

A

—virus shows a decrease in sensitivity to the drug

45
Q

types of drug: Cross-resistance

A

—the virus develops resistance to one drug, and becomes resistant to other drugs in that class

46
Q

A group of meds that binds directly to the enzyme and prevent the conversion of RNA to DNA

A

Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

47
Q

A group of meds that incorporate themselves into viral DNA and cause it’s construction to be terminated

A

Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

48
Q

Combivir, Epivir, Retrovir, Zerit are examples of

A

Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

49
Q

Rescriptor, Sustiva, Viramune are example of

A

Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

50
Q

meds that prevent the successful assembly and release of new virus particles

A

Protease Inhibitors

51
Q

Protease Inhibitors have the following problems: _____ to drug

A

intolerance

52
Q

Protease Inhibitors have the following problems: ___ burden

A

pill

53
Q

Agenerase, Crixivan, Kaletra, Norvir, Viracept are examples of

A

Protease Inhibitors

54
Q

group of meds that prevent HIV from entering healthy T cells

A

Entry Inhibitors

55
Q

Entry Inhibitors drugs are reserved for use in people who have become resistant to

A

PI’s, NRTI’s and NNRTI’s

56
Q

Fuzeon is an examples of

A

Entry Inhibitors

57
Q

Patients should use antimicrobials (ciprofloxacin) when

A

traveling to prevent traveler’s diarrhea

58
Q

alcohol consumption should be

A

limited

59
Q

diet should be high in ___ and low in ___

A

high cal, low fat

60
Q

Benefits of HAART Therapy: Control of HIV replication and mutation, with reduction in

A

viral load

61
Q

Benefits of HAART Therapy: Prevention of destruction of the immune system and loss of CD4+ T-helper cells

A

CD4 cells

62
Q

Benefits of HAART Therapy: Decreased risk of

A

drug toxicity (drugs are started when the person is healthier)

63
Q

Risks of HAART Therapy: Reduced quality of life from

A

adverse drug effects and the inconvenience of a complex regimen

64
Q

Risks of HAART Therapy: Earlier development of

A

drug resistance

65
Q

Risks of HAART Therapy: A limited number of

A

drugs available to respond to drug resistance

66
Q

Risks of HAART Therapy: Unknown ___ ___ effects

A

long-term effects

67
Q

Risks of HAART Therapy: Unknown duration of the

A

effectiveness of the drugs

68
Q

Maintaining skin and mucous membrane integrity with good skin and mouth hygiene (can reduce _____)

A

candidiasis

69
Q

How often should they get tested for TB

A

annually

70
Q

Salmonella Prevention: do not eat

A

raw things or cold cuts

71
Q

Pneumocystosis carinii mode of transmission

A

airborne

72
Q

Toxoplasmosis is spread by cats and certain

A

foods

73
Q

Symptoms include: headache, impaired cognition, hemiparesis, aphasia, ataxia, vision loss, cranial nerve palsies, motor problems, and seizures

A

Toxoplasmosis

74
Q

Toxoplasmosis: Potential for development when the CD4 count falls below

A

100

75
Q

A second line drug tx for dyspnea is

A

Anxiolytics (if anxiety exists)

76
Q

____ cough suggests gastroesophageal reflux disease or congestive heart failure

A

Nocturnal

77
Q

Cough with hemoptysis suggests ____ or ____ ____

A

pneumonia or pulmonary embolism

78
Q

Cough with dark green or yellow sputum suggests ___ or ____ infection

A

viral or bacterial

79
Q

Cough with fever or night sweats indicated ____ or ____ ____

A

TB or bacterial pneumonia

80
Q

avoid stimuli that may induce coughing: smoke, cold air, and

A

exercise

81
Q

For treatment of P. carinii clients should receive

A

albuterol to relieve cough

82
Q

When there is no therapeutic reason to induce cough, then use cough suppressants, such as

A

OTC suppressants, opiods

83
Q

HAART and dementia

A

In some patients HAART may reduce the dementia, but in many patients it is ineffective

84
Q

Current research states that Haldol is

A

ineffective in treating AIDS Dementia

85
Q

methyphenidate should not be taken after

A

2pm

86
Q

Apathy and social withdrawal in patients with mild-to-moderate impairment can be treating with

A

methyphenidate

87
Q

Delirium: Use of neuroleptics is controversial but ___ and ___ have been shown to have some effectiveness

A

Haldol and Chlorpro

88
Q

Benzodiazepines may aggravate

A

delirium

89
Q

In patients with severe or persistent dementia, there is no need to

A

orient to time and place. Instead use comments such as “ you are safe”

90
Q

Early initiation of oral anti-retroviral agents can both enhance outcomes and

A

reduce HIV transmission

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