301 Test 3 Jarvis Flashcards

1
Q

a sudden increase in size of one breast signifies

A

trauma, inflammation, infection, or neoplasms

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2
Q

a fine blue vascular network normally is visible in light skinned women’s breasts during

A

pregnancy

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3
Q

unilateral dilated superficial veins in a nonpregnant woman is a ___ finding

A

abnormal

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4
Q

an abnormal finding in the breast, edema exaggerates the hair follicles is called

A

peau d’orange (orange peel look or pig skin look)

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5
Q

abnormal finding of the nipple

A

recent inversion

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6
Q

a finding of the breast that must always be explored, especially in the presence of a mass

A

discharge

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7
Q

retraction signs are due to fibrosis in the breast tissue, usually caused by growing

A

neoplasms

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8
Q

to screen for breast retraction, first ask the woman to

A

raise her arms over her head

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9
Q

When examining the axillae, usually the nodes are non palpable, although you may feel a small, soft nontender node in the __ group

A

central group

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10
Q

Axillae inspection- an abnormal finding is the nodes are enlarged because of local infection or the spread of

A

breast cancer

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11
Q

position for palpating the breast

A

supine with arm raised above the head

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12
Q

a normal finding is a firm transverse ridge of compressed tissue in the lower quadrants called the ___ ridge

A

inframammary ridge (especially noticeable in large breasts, not to be confused with an abnormal lump)

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13
Q

except during pregnancy and nursing, __ is abnormal

A

discharge

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14
Q

the best time for a BSE is right after the menstrual period or

A

the 4th to 7th day of the menstrual cycle

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15
Q

enlargement of the breast tissue in men

A

gynecomastia

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16
Q

in addition to happening normally during puberty, gynecomastia can also occur as an abnormal finding due to

A

medications and some disease states

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17
Q

a benign finding in the breast of infants

A

witch’s milk

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18
Q

occurs with thyroid dysfunction, stilbestrol ingestion, ovarian tumor, adrenal tumor

A

early breast development (age 7 to 8)

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19
Q

delayed development occurs with hormone failure, anorexia, severe malnutrition

A

delayed breast development

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20
Q

when palpating the breast of an adolescent, a mass is usually a benign fibroadenoma or

A

cyst

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21
Q

normal findings for breasts of pregnant women include

A

darker nipples and changes in Montgomery glands

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22
Q

colostrum changes to milk production around the

A

3rd postpartum day

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23
Q

Women over the age of __ have increased risk of breast cancer

A

50

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24
Q

benign breast disease is aka

A

fibrocystic breast disease

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25
Q

multiple tender masses in the breast that occur with numerous symptoms like like swelling, pain, discharge but is not cancerous

A

benign breast disease is aka fibrocystic breast disease

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26
Q

solitary, unilateral mass in the breast

A

cancer

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27
Q

solid, hard, dense mass in the breast

A

caner

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28
Q

breast cancer masses are often __less

A

painless

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29
Q

breast fibroadenoma is a __ tumor

A

benign tumor

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30
Q

breast fibroadenoma is commonly found in what age group

A

adolescent

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31
Q

lifestyle breast cancer risk factors include

A
nulliparity
first child after 30
oral contraceptive use
never breast fed
long term estrogen and progestin use
alcohol
obesity
inactivity
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32
Q

the ratio of AP diameter to transverse diameter is 1:2 or

A

0.7/1

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33
Q

In COPD, the neck muscles are found to

A

hypertrophied (from aiding in forced respirations)

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34
Q

Place your thumbs on T9 or T10 and medially pinch up a fold of skin between the thumbs. Ask the person to to inhale. This tests for

A

symmetric chest expansion

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35
Q

Unequal chest expansion occurs with marked atelectasis, pneumonia, rib fracture, or

A

pneumothorax

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36
Q

pain with deep breathing can mean that the pleurae are

A

inflammed

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37
Q

decreased fremitus occurs when

A

something obstructs the bronchus, pleural thickening, pneumothorax, or emphysema

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38
Q

increased fremitus occurs with

A

compression or consolidation of lung tissue

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39
Q

a normal finding of the tactile fremitus test

A

decreases as you move down the back

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40
Q

chest wall assessment- a coarse, crackling sensation palpalbe over the skin surface

A

crepitus

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41
Q

occurs when air escapes from the lung and enters the subcutaneous tissue

A

crepitus

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42
Q

normal finding of posterior chest percussion is the sound of

A

resonance

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43
Q

a test where you percuss to find the lower border of the lungs during inspiration and expiration

A

diaphragmatic excursion

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44
Q

normal value for diaphragmatic excursion

A

3 to 5 cm (though an athlete could have 7 to 8)

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45
Q

normal breath sound thats the loudest

A

bronchial (tracheal)

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46
Q

normal breath sound thats the softest

A

vesicular

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47
Q

bronchial sounds are abnormal over the

A

peripheral fields

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48
Q

adventitious sound that occurs with pneumonia and pulmonary edema

A

crackles (rales)

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49
Q

adventitious sound that occurs with asthma and emphysema

A

wheezes (rhonchi)

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50
Q

finding of abdominal muscles in someone with chronic emphysema

A

hypertrophy

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51
Q

Cerebral hypoxia can cause the mental status to be

A

drowsy, anxious, restless, irritable

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52
Q

finding of the finger nails with chronic respiratory disease

A

clubbing

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53
Q

some of the accessory muscles used for forced expiration

A

rectus abdominus and internal intercostals

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54
Q

Most lung tissue responds with resonance, but dullness over the cardiac area is a

A

normal finding

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55
Q

emphysema causes what percussion sound

A

hyperresonance

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56
Q

The highest portion of lung fields (front and back) give what normal sound

A

vesicular

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57
Q

the best time to check an infants respiratory rate is when they are

A

sleeping

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58
Q

brief periods of apnea less than 10 or 15 seconds is normal in

A

infants

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59
Q

abnormal respiratory rate in an infant that could be an early sign of heart failure

A

50 to 100 breaths per minute

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60
Q

From infancy to 6 years old, __ sounds are normally heard in the peripheral lungs fields

A

bronchovesicular can be heard because they have thin chest walls

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61
Q

A normal (normal for immediate newborn only) adventitious sound heard in newborns caused by opening of airways and fluid clearing

A

fine crackles

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62
Q

adventitious sound: discontinuous, high-pitched, short, popping heard during inspiration and can’t be cleared by coughing

A

fine crackles (rales)

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63
Q

adventitious sound: loud, low-pitched bubbling and gurgling. Starts in early inspiration and early expiration

A

course crackles (rales)

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64
Q

adventitious sound: sound like fine crackles but don’t last and aren’t pathologic

A

atelectatic crackles (rales)

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65
Q

adventitious sound: a very superficial sound that is coarse and low pitched

A

pleural friction rub

66
Q

adventitious sound: high-pitched, musical, squeaking

A

wheeze, high pitched

67
Q

adventitious sound: low pitched, musical snoring/moaning sound

A

wheeze, low pitched (rhonchi)

68
Q

adventitious sound: high pitched inspiratory crowing sound

A

stridor

69
Q

breathing pattern that may occur with respiratory insufficiency, pneumonia, alkalosis, pleurisy, and lesions in the pons

A

tachypnea

70
Q

breathing pattern that may occur with diabetic ketoacidosis, hepatic coma, salicylate overdose, lesions of the midbrain, metabolic acidosis

A

hyperventilation

71
Q

breathing pattern that may occur with drug-induced respiratory depression, increased intracranial pressure, diabetic coma

A

bradypnea

72
Q

breathing pattern that may occur with bedrest or conscious splinting of the chest to avoid pain

A

hypoventilation

73
Q

breathing pattern where breaths gradually increase and then decrease down to period of apnea

A

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

74
Q

breathing pattern that can be caused by HF, renal failure, meningitis, drug overdose, and increased intracranial pressure

A

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

75
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respiration can be normal in

A

infants and elderly people during sleep

76
Q

breathing pattern similar to Cheyne-Stokes respiration except that the pattern is irregular

A

Biot’s respiration

77
Q

breathing pattern seen with head trauma, brain abscess, heatstroke, spinal meningitis, and encephalitis

A

Biot’s

78
Q

a carotid bruit is audible when the lumen is occluded by

A

1/2 to 2/3

79
Q

besides a bruit, another sound that can be heard when auscultating the neck is a

A

murmur sound that radiates up from the heart

80
Q

position the patient supine with the head at 30 to 45 degrees and shine a flash light on the neck to inspect

A

jugular venous pulse

81
Q

unilateral distention of external jugular vein is from a local cause such as

A

aneurysm

82
Q

fully distended external jugular veins above 45 degrees show increased

A

central venous pressure

83
Q

You may or may not see the apical impulse. When it is visible its in the

A

4th or 5th intercostal space

84
Q

a sustained forceful thrusting of the ventricle during systole

A

heave or lift

85
Q

heave or lift occurs with ventricular

A

hypertrophy

86
Q

A normal sized __ should only occupy one intercostal space

A

heart

87
Q

a palpable vibration in the chest

A

thrill

88
Q

type of arrhythmia that occurs normally in young adults and children

A

sinus arrhythmia

89
Q

the S1 is louder than the S2 at the

A

apex

90
Q

the S2 is louder than the S1 at the

A

base

91
Q

S1 coincides with the carotid artery

A

pulsation

92
Q

S1 coincides with the __ wave

A

R wave

93
Q

S1 and S2 are both diminished with increased air or tissue between the heart and your stethoscope such as

A

emphysema, obesity, and pericardial fluid

94
Q

S1 signals the beginning of

A

systole

95
Q

A split of S2 toward the end of inspiration is a __ finding

A

normal

96
Q

T-DUP sound

A

split S2

97
Q

A __ split is unaffected by respiration

A

fixed split

98
Q

S3 and S4 occur in diastole; either may be normal or

A

abnormal

99
Q

1st condition that can result in a murmur: high rate of flow through a normal valve such as with

A

exercise

100
Q

2nd condition that can result in a murmur: restricted forward blood flow through a ___ valve

A

stenotic valve

101
Q

3rd condition that can result in a murmur: backward flow through a __ valve

A

regurgitant valve

102
Q

4th condition that can result in a murmur: blood flow through

A

abnormal openings in chambers

103
Q

a pattern of a murmur where it is growing louder

A

crescendo

104
Q

a pattern of a murmur where it is getting quieter

A

decrescendo

105
Q

pattern of a murmur where it is increasing to a peak and then decreasing

A

diamond-shaped

106
Q

some murmurs are common in healthy children or adolescents and are called __ or __

A

innocent or functional

107
Q

murmurs in the first 2 or 3 days of life a a __ finding

A

normal

108
Q

A thrill in the right interspaces occurs with ___ stenosis

A

aortic stenosis

109
Q

A thrill in the left interspaces occurs with ___ stenosis

A

pulmonic stenosis

110
Q

abnormal pulsation that occurs with right ventricular hypertrophy, as in pulmonic valve disease or chronic lung disease

A

lift (heave)

111
Q

conditions that can skew that results of a capillary refill test

A

smoking, peripheral edema, anemia

112
Q

refill lasting more than 1 or 2 seconds signals decreased cardiac output and vaso___

A

constriction

113
Q

rating of an absent pulse

A

0

114
Q

rating of a normal pulse

A

+2

115
Q

what kind of pulse would you find in someone with shock or PAD

A

weak/thready (+1)

116
Q

what kind of pulse would you find in someone with anemia or hyperthyroidism

A

full/bounding (+3)

117
Q

appearance of the legs when there’s arterial insufficient

A

pallor and coolness

118
Q

what is the best position for checking varicosities

A

standing

119
Q

normal lymph nodes are

A

movable and nontender

120
Q

abnormal lymph nodes are

A

fixed and tender

121
Q

the 4 pulses you should check in the legs

A

femoral, popliteal, dorsal, posterior tibial

122
Q

varicosities occur in the __ veins

A

saphenous

123
Q

device used to detect a weak peripheral pulse, monitor BP in children, and measure a low BP in a lower extremeity

A

Doppler Ultrasonic Probe

124
Q

For this test, the patient should lay flat with heels supported. Shouldn’t smoke for 2 hours, and should rest for 5 to 10 min

A

Ankle-Brachial Index

125
Q

ABI formula

A

Highest ankle BP over highest arm BP

126
Q

transient acrocyanosis (symmetric cyanosis) is a __ finding at birth

A

normal

127
Q

signs of arterial insufficiency (thin, shiny skin, hairless) in the legs is a normal finding for

A

elderly

128
Q

pulse found in someone with aortic stenosis

A

weak/thready (+1)

129
Q

pulse found in someone with aortic regurgitation

A

Water-Hammer (Corrigan) (+3)

130
Q

pulse that stronger than normal, but suddenly collapses

A

Water-Hammer (Corrigan) (+3)

131
Q

pulse found in someone with a conduction disturbance

A

Pulsus Bigeminus

132
Q

pulse where every other beat comes early or a normal beat is followed by a premature beat

A

Pulsus Bigeminus

133
Q

pulse that can occur when heart rate is normal, but there’s a severe left ventricle failure

A

pulsus alternans

134
Q

pulse commonly found with cardiac tamponade

A

pulsus paradoxus

135
Q

pulse found when there’s aortic stenosis AND regurgitation

A

pulsus bisferiens

136
Q

___ abdomen occurs with malnourishment

A

scaphoid

137
Q

enlarged and everted umbilicus could signal

A

umbilical hernia (not of course it’s totally normal during pregnancy)

138
Q

the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling

A

ascites

139
Q

with ascites the skin of the abdomin appears

A

taut and shiny

140
Q

cutaneous angiomas (spider nevi) can occur in the abdomin caused by

A

portal hypertension or liver disease

141
Q

marked visible peristalsis together with a distended abdomen indicates intestinal

A

obstruction

142
Q

abdomen: restlessness and constant turning to find comfort occur with

A

colicky pain of gastroenteritis or bowel obstruction

143
Q

abdomen: absolute stillness, resisting any movement is demonstrated with the pain of

A

peritonitis

144
Q

Begin auscultating the abdomen in which area

A

RLQ (where the ileocecal valve is)

145
Q

rate of normal bowel sounds

A

5 to 30 per minute

146
Q

hyperactive bowel sounds can occur from

A

gastroenteritis and subsiding paralytic ileus

147
Q

hypoactive bowel sounds can occur from

A

inflammation of the peritoneum

148
Q

the normal liver span is

A

6 to 12 cm

149
Q

normal spleen size

A

less than 7 cm

150
Q

a constant, board-like hardness of the abdominal muscles. It’s a protective mechanism against acute inflammation of the peritoneum

A

involuntary rigidity

151
Q

abdominal tenderness is a normal finding over which organ

A

sigmoid colon

152
Q

you can feel the liver when a person

A

takes a deep breath (the diaphragm pushes it down)

153
Q

If the liver can be felt even when it’s not being pushed by the diaphragm, it’s probably

A

enlarged

154
Q

lung condition that makes the liver palpable

A

COPD (because the lungs are distended)

155
Q

a palpable spleen is a __ finding

A

abnormal

156
Q

an enlarged spleen is easy to

A

rupture

157
Q

rebound tenderness and cough tenderness are signs of

A

peritoneal inflammation

158
Q

___ shaped abdomen appears in infants and children that are malnourished

A

scaphoid

159
Q

pyloric stenosis causes

A

marked peristalsis

160
Q

possible difference between an older person and younger person with an acute abdomen

A

older person may complain of less pain

161
Q

What is last in the abdominal assessment

A

palpation