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344 Test 2 Study Guide Topics Flashcards

1
Q

Increase in ADH ___ urine output

A

decreases

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2
Q

Decrease in ADH increases __ output

A

urine

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3
Q

Normal Sodium levels

A

135 to 145 mEq/L

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4
Q

Sodium attracts

A

water

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5
Q

Special cells in the kidneys monitor for __ levels

A

sodium

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6
Q

If the kidneys detect a decrease in sodium levels, __ is released which (indirectly) causes blood pressure to rise

A

renin

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7
Q

When you have too much sodium (hypernatremia) your kidneys cannot excrete the excess sodium and also retain water at the same time. This increased fluid volume raises

A

blood pressure

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8
Q

Sodium is also used to determine the concentration of

A

urine

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9
Q

Potassium is mostly ___ the cell membrane during rest

A

inside

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10
Q

when the cell is stimulated, potassium

A

flows out

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11
Q

An increase in K+ (hyperkalemia) causes the resting membrane potential to become more

A

positive

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12
Q

An increase in K+ (hyperkalemia) causes the resting membrane potential to become more positive moving it closer to the

A

threshold

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13
Q

plays key roles in cell signaling

A

calcium

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14
Q

plays key roles in muscle contraction

A

calcium

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15
Q

plays key roles in blood clotting

A

calcium

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16
Q

Normal calcium level is

A

8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL

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17
Q

Calcium affects __ ___ and automaticity via calcium channels

A

cardiac contractility

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18
Q

a special process in cardiac muscle where calcium ions diffuse in, making the cell more positive (depolarizing toward threshold)

A

Calcium leak

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19
Q

As part of the normal contraction cycle, heart cells have a special phase called

A

plateau

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20
Q

Cardiac cell remains above __ potential during plateau (remains active).

A

threshold

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21
Q

The plateau phase happens because ___ ___ continue allowing calcium ions to leak in, keeping the membrane positive.

A

calcium channels

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22
Q

The heart cell contraction ends when the calcium channels ___; this ends the plateau and the cell repolarizes

A

close

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23
Q

Calcium channel blockers are used as ___ drugs

A

antihypertensive

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24
Q

drugs that relax and widen blood vessels by affecting the muscle cells in the arterial walls.

A

Calcium channel blockers

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25
Q

are particularly effective against large vessel stiffness, one of the common causes of elevated systolic blood pressure in elderly patients

A

Calcium channel blockers

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26
Q

also frequently used to alter heart rate, to prevent cerebral vasospasm, and to reduce chest pain caused by angina

A

Calcium channel blockers

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27
Q

CCBs can directly influence the synthesis of ___ in adrenocortical cells, with consequent impact on the clinical treatment of hypertension

A

aldosterone

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28
Q

Calcium and ___ have an inverse relationship

A

Phosphate

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29
Q

An important cause of hypocalcemia is __ failure

A

renal

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30
Q

Only ___ calcium is able to participate in body functions

A

ionized

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31
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, hypertension

A

Hypercalcemia

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32
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, inhibits nerve activity

A

Hypercalcemia

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33
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, Muscle weakness

A

Hypercalcemia

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34
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, Increased thirst, urinating, kidney problems

A

Hypercalcemia

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35
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, causes hypotension, cardiac insufficiency, arrhythmia.

A

Hypocalcemia

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36
Q

Hypercalcemia or Hypocalcemia, cause tetany, hyperactive reflexes, spasm

A

Hypocalcemia

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37
Q

Normal sys

A
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38
Q

Normal dias

A
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39
Q

Prehypertension sys

A

120-139

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40
Q

Prehypertension dias

A

80-89

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41
Q

Stage 1 hypertension sys

A

140-159

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42
Q

Stage 1 hypertension dias

A

90 to 99

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43
Q

Stage 2 hypertension sys

A

> 160

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44
Q

Stage 2 hypertension dias

A

> 100

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45
Q

Among young men and women, hypertension is more common in

A

men

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46
Q

With age, hypertension

A

increases

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47
Q

Kind of hypertension where the cause is unknown

A

primary hypertension

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48
Q

Kind of hypertension where the cause is related to a specific illness

A

secondary hypertension

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49
Q

Between primary and secondary, the most common hypertension is

A

primary

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50
Q

A single BP reading is not enough to diagnose

A

hypertension

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51
Q

Elevated pressure during systole can lead to heart failure on the ___ side

A

left

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52
Q

Family history, race, and age are ___ risk factors in hypertension

A

Constitutional risk factors (part of primary hypertension)

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53
Q

primary hypertension is aka

A

essential hypertension

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54
Q

An infant’s BP is much ____ than an adult’s

A

lower

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55
Q

diastolic pressure begins to decline when someone turns 50; systolic pressure

A

continues to rise

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56
Q

another factor contributing to development of hypertension is ___ resistance

A

insulin

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57
Q

Raises BP acutely, but not chronically

A

stress (therefore it’s not really a risk factor)

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58
Q

Reduction of salt, sodium, alcohol can reduce risk for

A

hypertension

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59
Q

Abdominal fat verse buttock/leg fat: which is more of a risk for hypertension

A

Abdominal

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60
Q

Oral ___ agents can cause hypertension

A

contraceptive

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61
Q

street drugs, sympathomimetics, erythropoietin, licorice, sleep apnea can be risk factors for

A

secondary hypertension

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62
Q

the goal of treating hypertension is to reduce BP below

A

140/90

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63
Q

The goal of treating hypertension for diabetic patients is to reduce BP to

A

less than 130/80

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64
Q

Hypertension causes __ ventricular hypertrophy

A

left

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65
Q

Can also cause peripheral vascular disease, retinopathy, and chronic kidney disease

A

Hypertension

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66
Q

happens when the veins can’t function properly for example, the valves wear out or skeletal muscle pumps are impaired

A

Venous HTN

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67
Q

The build-up of fats, cholesterol, and other substances in and on the artery walls

A

Atherosclerosis heart disease

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68
Q

Atherosclerosis involves __ cell injury

A

Endothelial

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69
Q

Atherosclerosis involves Migration of ___ cells

A

inflammatory

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70
Q

Atherosclerosis involves __ muscle proliferation and lipid deposition

A

Smooth

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71
Q

Atherosclerosis involves Gradual development of the atheromatous ___

A

plaque

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72
Q

a procedure where fluid is aspirated from the pericardium (the sac enveloping the heart)

A

Pericardiocentesis

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73
Q

chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle

A

Angina

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74
Q

angina symptom of ___ artery disease, it can be acute or chronic

A

coronary

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75
Q

angina can be relieved by rest or

A

nitroglycerine

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76
Q

__ angina occurs with activity, cold weather, or stress

A

stable

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77
Q

___ angina occurs at rest

A

unstable

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78
Q

___ angina is caused by coronary artery spasm

A

variant (aka vasospastic)

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79
Q

unstable angina, or angina that is new ___/___ intensity means you could be at serious risk for heart attack

A

new onset/increasing

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80
Q

stable angina and variant angina are caused by

A

chronic ischemic heart disease

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81
Q

unstable angina is caused by

A

acute coronary syndrome

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82
Q

Signs and Symptoms, Hypotension (LOW BP) and Shock

A

Acute MI

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83
Q

Signs and Symptoms, Weakness in arms and legs

A

Acute MI

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84
Q

Signs and symptoms of __ __
Nausea, Vomiting
Tachycardia (high HR) Vasoconstriction
Anxiety, feeling of impeding doom

A

Acute MI

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85
Q

ventricular wall is weak and swells into a blood bubble

A

Ventricular Aneurysms

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86
Q

complication of acute MI can include __ failure

A

heart failure

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87
Q

complication of acute MI can include ___ (inflammation of the Heart)

A

Pericarditis

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88
Q

complication of acute MI can include ___ ___ (not enough blood for heart to pump)

A

Cardiogenic Shock

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89
Q

complication of acute MI can include ___ (blood clot obstruction)

A

Thromboembolism

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90
Q

complication of acute MI can include ___ aneurysm

A

ventricular aneurysm

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91
Q

cardiac muscle disease is aka

A

Cardiomyopathy

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92
Q

In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, there’s a thickening of the __ septum and the left ___

A

ventricular septum and left ventricle

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93
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be used by mutation in

A

genes

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94
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is treated with

A

beta blockers

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95
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of death in

A

young athletes

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96
Q

Rare disease in which the ventricle walls are __ but not necessarily thicker

A

rigid

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97
Q

symptoms- dyspnea, peripheral edema, fatigue, weakness

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

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98
Q

a condition in which the heart’s ability to pump blood is decreased because the heart’s main pumping chamber, the left ventricle, is enlarged and weakened

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

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99
Q

In some cases, it prevents the heart from relaxing and filling with blood as it should

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

100
Q

Heart is 2 to 3X heavier

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

101
Q

Walls of the Heart become thinned and stretched and Weak

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

102
Q

In dilated cardiomyopathy, ejection of blood is very low (__% vs Normal heart 65%)

A

25%

103
Q

a weakness of the heart muscle that by definition begins sometime during the final month of pregnancy through about five months after delivery

A

Peripartum Cardiomyopathy

104
Q

In Peripartum Cardiomyopathy what % of women recover fully

A

50%

105
Q

In Peripartum Cardiomyopathy what % of women have ventricular dysfunction or heart failure

A

50%

106
Q

Valve will not open all he way

A

Stenosis

107
Q

Valve will not close all the way

A

Regurgitation

108
Q

What is a regurgitant heart murmur

A

Blood leaking backwards when valves should be closed

109
Q

What is a stenotic heart murmur

A

blood shooting through narrow opening when valve is open

110
Q

4 types of shock

A

cardiogenic
hypovolemic
obstructive
disruptive

111
Q

type of shock, heart not pumping

A

cardiogenic

112
Q

type of shock, decreased C02

A

cardiogenic

113
Q

type of shock, hypotension and hypoperfusion

A

cardiogenic

114
Q

Most common cause of cardiogenic shock

A

Acute MI

115
Q

type of shock, blue skin, nails, and lips.

A

cardiogenic

116
Q

type of shock, decrease in systolic (normal diastolic), decrease in urine output, neurologic changes

A

cardiogenic

117
Q

cardiogenic shock is treated with meds and

A

mechanical support with a balloon pump

118
Q

type of shock, loss of 15% of blood

A

hypovolemic

119
Q

type of shock,

Excessive dehydration
Hemorrhage
Loss of plasma
Loss of whole blood

A

hypovolemic

120
Q

type of shock,

Thirst
Increased HR
Cool Clammy Skin
Decreased arterial BP
Decreased Urine Output
Altered mental status
A

hypovolemic

121
Q

type of shock, mechanical blockage

A

obstructive

122
Q

type of shock, characterized by the heart no filling properly

A

obstructive

123
Q

type of shock, elevated right heart pressure due to right heart dysfunction

A

obstructive

124
Q

obstructive shock is treated with

A

surgery

125
Q

type of shock, Caused by:
Pneumothorax
Dissecting aortic aneurism
Cardiac tamponade (compression of heart due to fluid filling pericardial sac)

A

obstructive

126
Q

compression of heart due to fluid filling pericardial sac

A

Cardiac tamponade

127
Q

Most common type of distributive shock

A

Sepsis

128
Q

the 3 types of distributive shock (SAN)

A

Sepsis, anaphylactic, neurogenic

129
Q

distributive shock associated with elevated WBCs, thrombocytopenia, oliguria, organ failure

A

Sepsis

130
Q

distributive shock associated with warm, flushed skin

A

sepsis

131
Q

Sepsis involves a complex process of releasing pro-inflammatory mediators and ___

A

cytokines

132
Q

Very rare type of distributive shock

A

neurogenic

133
Q

type of shock that involves decreased sympathetic control of blood vessel tone

A

neurogenic

134
Q

type of distributive shock associated with spinal cord injuries

A

neurogenic

135
Q

type of distributive shock where skin is dry and warm

A

neurogenic

136
Q

type of distributive shock where death can occur within minutes

A

anaphylactic

137
Q

type of distributive shock causes severe systemic allergic reaction in our bodies

A

anaphylactic

138
Q

During anaphylactic shock, the immune reaction releases ___ into blood

A

histamines

139
Q

type of shock that can manifest circulatory collapse, bronchospasm, angioedema

A

anaphylactic

140
Q

allergies to food, penicillin, insect bites, latex can cause what kind of shock

A

anaphylactic

141
Q 
Symptoms of what kind of distributive shock
Cramps
Apprehension
Warm or burning sensation of the skin
Itching
Urticaria (hives)
Respiratory Distress
Coughing, wheezing, choking, difficulty breathing
A

anaphylactic

142
Q

People who suffer from __ shock should carry an epinephrine pen

A

anaphylactic

143
Q

for people with bronchial asthma, the cough is worst

A

at night and early morning

144
Q

asthma that involves an allergy

A

atopic asthma

145
Q

atopic asthma is a type __ hypersensitivty

A

type 1

146
Q

For atopic asthma, the acute response involves __ cells and the late response involves __

A

mast cells

WBC

147
Q

non-atopic asthma is called __ asthma

A

instrinsic asthma

148
Q 
Triggered by
Respiratory infections
Exercise
Hyperventilation
Cold air
Drugs & Chemicals
Hormonal changes
Gastroesophageal reflux
A

intrinsic asthma

149
Q

Common cause of COPD is

A

smoking

150
Q

Obstruction of small airways causing Chronic Cough

A

Chronic Bronchitis

151
Q

Chronic Bronchitis and emphysema are both types of

A

COPD

152
Q

kind of COPD thats associated with irritation from smoking and recurrent infections

A

chronic bronchitis

153
Q

type of COPD- Diagnosis comes from a history at least 2 years where at least 3 months a years there is a consecutive productive cough

A

chronic bronchitis

154
Q

type of COPD where there’s an enlargement of air space & destruction of Alveolar Walls

A

Emphysema

155
Q

type of COPD that is thought to result from the breakdown of ELASTIN and other wall components

A

Emphysema

156
Q

type of COPD,
Caused most commonly by
SMOKING
GENETICs –deficiency of alpha1 antitrypsin synthesis

A

Emphysema

157
Q

In COPD (chronic bronchitis and emphysema) the Po2 level falls below

A

55

158
Q

Involves low O2 (hypoxia) and high CO2 (hypercapnea)

A

COPD (chronic bronchitis and emphysema)

159
Q

A Recessive disorder in Chloride transport proteins

A

cystic fibrosis

160
Q

characterized by a high amount of NaCl in Sweat

A

cystic fibrosis

161
Q

In cyctic fibrosis there is less Na+ and __ in respiratory mucas and pancreatic secretions

A

water

162
Q

Thick mucus obstructs airways and pancreatic and bile ducts

A

cystic fibrosis

163
Q

cystic fibrosis mostly is in what age group

A

child/adolescent

164
Q

excessive fat in feces

A

Steatorrhea

165
Q

Steatorrhea and weight loss are symptoms of

A

cystic fibrosis

166
Q

Bronchiectasis Infection causes permanent ___ of bronchi

A

dilation

167
Q

Bronchiectasis Infection causes permanent dilation of bronchi by destroying __ and __ tissue

A

muscle and elastic

168
Q 
Signs and Symptoms
Chronic cough
Hundreds of ml’s of foul smelling sputum a day
Wheezing 
Dyspnea 
Weight loss
Anemia
A

Bronchiectasis Infection

169
Q

Recruitment of compensatory mechanisms to try and increase O2 to tissues
o Tachycardia
o Palpations

A

Anemia

170
Q

overt symptom of sickle cell anemia

A

jaundice

171
Q

a condition that occurs when your body stops producing enough new blood cells

A

Aplastic Anemia

172
Q

Symptoms:
Petechiae (small skin hemorrhages)
Ecchymosis (bruises)

A

Aplastic Anemia

173
Q

caused by High doses of RADIATION
o Chemicals
o Toxins

A

Aplastic Anemia

174
Q

Caused by B12 Deficiency and Folic Acid Deficiency, which causes impaired DNA synthesis

A

megaloblastic anemia

175
Q 
symptoms, 
o	Brittle Hair and Nails
o	Spoon shaped fingers
o	Smooth tongue
o	Sores in corner of mouth
A

Iron deficiency Anemia

176
Q

potentially dangerous pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure.

A

Preeclampsia

177
Q

Preeclampsia: Causes unknown however many think has something to do with __ blood flow leading to the release of toxic mediators that alter blood vessels throughout body

A

placental

178
Q

symptoms,
o Persistent headache
o Cerebral or visual disturbances
o Hydatidiform mole

A

Preeclampsia

179
Q

the occurrence of seizures in pregnant women who have preeclampsia

A

Eclampsia

180
Q

edema is caused by ___ed capillary pressure

A

increased capillary pressure (pressure builds as fluid collects)

181
Q

edema is caused by ___ed colloid osmotic pressure

A

decreased

182
Q 
Signs and Symptoms
Gasping for air
Rapid pulse
Skin moist and cool
Lips and nails blue
A

Pulmonary Edema

183
Q

Signs and Symptoms
Neurological issues once O2 to brain gets lowered
CRACKLES
Frothy Pink Sputum

A

Pulmonary Edema

184
Q

Disorders of the heart muscle. Usually associated with disorders of myocardial performance

A

Cardiomyopathies

185
Q

Primary Cardiomyopathies are classified as __, mixed or acquired based on their etiology

A

genetic

186
Q

Many cases are of unknown cause and are referred to as ___ cardiomyopathy

A

idiopathic

187
Q

• Unexplained ventricular hypertrophy with disproportionate thickening of the ventricular sputum

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

188
Q

• Massive hypertrophied left ventricle reduces the chamber size and decreases stroke volume that results from impaired diastolic filling

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

189
Q

muscles need more oxygen and perform less efficiently, person is prone to heart failure and may suffer sudden death during exertion.

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

190
Q

CHF means your heart cannot pump efficiently causing blood to back up into the __ and arteries. The heart becomes overworked attempting to maintain blood flow and it may weaken and enlarge

A

lungs

191
Q

Risk factors for sudden death among patients with HCM include:
Family h/o __ or sudden cardiac death

A

syncope

192
Q

The incomplete opening of the mitral valve during diastole, left atrial distention, and impaired filling of the left ventricle

A

Stenosis

193
Q

Most commonly the result of rheumatic fever

A

Stenosis

194
Q

Incomplete closure of the mitral valve. May result in a rigid and thickened valve that does not open or close completely. This allows the left atrium to undergo compensatory responses. Blood leaks when the mitral valve should be closed

A

Regurgitation

195
Q

During regurgitation, there is incomplete closure of the mitral valve, this causes the __ ventricle to be impaired

A

left

196
Q

Acute failure of the circulatory system to supply the peripheral tissues and organs of the body with adequate blood supply, resulting in hypoxia (oxygen deficiency in body tissue)

A

Shock (Circulatory Failure)

197
Q

Types of Shock:

  • Loss of WBC
  • Loss of plasma
  • Loss of extracellular fluid
A

Hypovolemic

198
Q

Types of Shock:

- Related to low peripheral blood flow and excessive sympathetic stimulation

A

Hypovolemic

199
Q

Types of Shock:

- Thirst, increased heart rate, cool and clammy skin, decreased arterial pressure, decreased urinary output

A

Hypovolemic

200
Q

Types of Shock:

  • Myocardial damage (myocardial infraction, contusion)
  • Sustained arrhythmias
  • Acute valve damage, ventricular septal defect
  • Cardiac surgery
A

Cardiogenic

201
Q

Types of Shock:
Signs and Symptoms:
- Consistent with those of end stage heart failure
- Lips, nail bed, and skin may become cyanotic
- Decreased blood pressures and urine output
- Alterations in cognition and consciousness due to poor cerebral profusion

A

Cardiogenic

202
Q

Types of Shock:

- GOAL: Increase cardiac contractibility without increasing heart rate

A

Cardiogenic

203
Q

Types of Shock: - Inability of the heart to fill properly (cardiac tamponade)

A

Obstructive

204
Q

Types of Shock: - problem with outflow from the heart (pulmonary embolus, cardiac myxoma, pneumothorax, or dissecting aneurysm)

A

Obstructive

205
Q

Types of Shock:

  • Loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone (neurogenic shock)
  • Presence of vasodilating substances in the blood (anaphylactic shock)
  • Presence of inflammatory mediators (septic shock)
  • Normal volume of blood does not fill the circulatory system
A

Distributive

206
Q

Types of Shock: Caused by decreased sympathetic control of blood vessel tone due to a defect in the vasomotor entre in the brain stem or the sympathetic outflow to the blood vessels.

A

Neurogenic

207
Q

Types of Shock: - Outflow can be interrupted by brain injury, depressant action of drugs, general or spinal anesthesia, hypoxia, or lack of glucose (insulin reaction).
- General anesthesia (induction)

A

Neurogenic

208
Q

Types of Shock: Most severe systemic allergic reaction resulting from an immunologically mediated reaction in which vasodilator mediators are released into the blood

A

Anaphylactic Shock

209
Q

Types of Shock: Treatment-

- Administration of oxygen, antihistamine drugs, corticosteroids, and bronchodilators.

A

Anaphylactic Shock

210
Q

Types of Shock: Treatment

- The person should be placed in the supine position to prevent decrease in venous return.

A

Anaphylactic Shock

211
Q

Eclampsia is characterized by the presence of ___ in urine

A

protein

212
Q

premature destruction of RC, the retention of iron, and the other products of hemoglobin destruction, and a compensatory increase in erythropoiesis

A

Hemolytic Anemia

213
Q

edema that occurs when plasma proteins have accumulated in the tissue spaces and coagulated

A

Non-pitting edema

214
Q

life span of sickle cells

A

20 days

215
Q

disease where ventricle walls are RIGID not necessarily thicker

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

216
Q

Can result from decreased production of erythrocytes by the bone marrow

A

anemia

217
Q

Deficient amount of iron leads to decreased ___ synthesis

A

hemoglobin

218
Q

Iron in the body is used

A

repeatedly (not always excreted)

219
Q

The most common cause of iron deficiency is

A

blood loss

220
Q

what happens to the heart rate during anemia

A

tachycardia

221
Q

what causes spoon shaped deformity of the finger nails

A

iron deficiency

222
Q

smooth tongue, brittle hair and nails, eating abnormal substances

A

iron deficiency

223
Q

To prevent iron deficiency in infants, give supplements and avoid

A

cow’s milk

224
Q

B12 is needed to prevent ____ breakdown which would lead to neurologic complications

A

myelin

225
Q

An important cause of B12 deficiency is ___ anemia

A

pernicious

226
Q

___ anemia results from autoimmune destruction of gastric mucosa

A

pernicious anemia

227
Q

____ anemia is caused by by inhibition of DNA synthesis

A

megaloblastic anemia (the DNA problem can be caused by lack of B12)

228
Q

When B12 is deficient, red cells are abnormally ___ in size

A

large

229
Q

condition where the RBCs have immature nuclei and the membrane is oval shaped instead of biconcave

A

pernicious anemia

230
Q

pernicious anemia can be reversed by

A

oral dose or injection of B12

231
Q

Anemia is defined as an abnormally low number of ___, or low level of ___, or both

A

RBCs or hemoglobin

232
Q

Anemias caused by premature destruction of RBC

A

hemolytic anemia

233
Q

Anemias that result from ineffective hematopoises (premature death of RBCs in the bone marrow) are associated with inappropriately high levels of

A

iron absorption from the gut

234
Q

OTC drug that can be used as an immediate treatment if MI is suspected

A

aspirin

235
Q

MI often involves the rupture of ___ which leads to blockage of an artery

A

plaque

236
Q

kind of edema that occurs when the accumulation of interstitial fluid exceeds the absorptive capacity of the tissue

A

pitting edema

237
Q

In this form of edema, the tissue water becomes mobile and can be moved when you press with your finger

A

pitting edema

238
Q

Edema that occurs when the swollen area is firm and discolored

A

nonpitting edema

239
Q

Pitting verse nonpitting: seen in areas of local infection or trauma

A

nonpitting

240
Q

Edema can be treated by administering d____ or a____

A

diuretics or albumin

241
Q

Edema can also be treated with light massage, tight garments, and ___ ___ ___ exercise

A

range of motion

242
Q

____ edema occurs with conditions that impair the blood brain barrier

A

vasogenic edema

243
Q

___ edema involves an increase in intracellular fluid

A

cytotoxic edema

244
Q

describes an accumulation of fluid in the lower parts of the body (for example, happens because of gravity while standing for long periods)

A

dependent edema

245
Q

Edema caused by decreased colloid osmotic pressure (decreased albumin) is ___ edema

A

generalized edema

246
Q

jaundice is aka

A

icterus

247
Q

Jaundice can be caused by impaired uptake of bilirubin by ___ cells

A

liver

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