344 Chap 15 16 Flashcards
1
Q
neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells, and complement proteins are all part of
A
innate immunity
2
Q
Antibodies neutralize microbes and microbial
A
toxins
3
Q
Viruses are handled by which branch of adaptive immunity
A
cell-mediated
4
Q
Both innate and adaptive immunity use phagocytosis and the ___ system
A
complement system
5
Q
The precursor cell for monocytes/macrophages, granulocytes, and dendritic cells
A
myeloid
6
Q
The precursor cell for natural killer cells, lymphocytes
A
Lymphoid
7
Q
Although their primary role is phagocytosis, macrophages also function as
A
APCs
8
Q
Cell that acts as a general scavenger cleaning up debris
A
Macrophages
9
Q
For HIV patients, a decline in ___ helper t-cells is used to track the progression of the disease
A
CD4
10
Q
Lymph nodes (1) ___ foreign material and (2) are sites of immune cell ___
A
filter, proliferation
11
Q
refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types
A
Pleiotropism
12
Q
refers to the ability of different cytokines to stimulate the same or overlapping biological functions
A
redundancy
13
Q
cytokines can exert their effects locally and
A
systemically
14
Q
Chemokines are cytokines that stimulate the ___ and ___ of immune cells
A
migration and activation
15
Q
cytokines that stimulate production of large numbers of platelets, RBC, lymphocytes, neutrophils etc
A
Colony-stimulating factors
16
Q
The skin has antibacterial proteins and the enzyme ___ that inhibits microbes
A
lysozyme
17
Q
In the stomach and intestine, the secretion of ____ kills bacteria by disrupting their membrane
A
defensins
18
Q
The MLB receptor is used to ___ pathogens
A
identify
19
Q
the coating of microbes is called
A
opsonization
20
Q
Cytokines have various functions such as: producing ch_____ for leukocytes, stimulating acute-phase protein production, inhibiting ___ replication, and affecting ___ of immune cells
A
chemotaxis, virus, development
21
Q
type 1 interferon interacts with receptors on neighboring cells to stimulate the translation of an antiviral protein that protects ___ cells
A
unaffected cells
22
Q
the acute phase response involves a shift in the proteins synthesized by the liver into the
A
Plasma
23
Q
substance that elicits adaptive immune response
A
antigen
24
Q
Although their main role is phagocytosis, macrophages also function as __ __ cells
A
antigen-presenting cells
25
the antigen receptors of most T cells only recognize peptide fragments of protein antigens that are bound to specialized peptide display molecules called ___
MHC
26
Helper T cells help B cells __ __ and helps phagocytes __ __ pathogens
produce antibodies
| destroy ingested pathogens
27
lymphocytes are often distinguished by surface proteins. The standard nomenclature for these proteins is the __
CD aka clusters of differentiation
28
In HIV, a decline or rise in __ __ __-cell count is used to follow the progression of the disease and response to treatment
CD4+ helper T-cell
29
Only the T cells that are able to recognize foreign antigens and distinguish self from non-self are allowed to leave the thymus. this is called
thymic selection
30
many cell to cell interactions and effector responses depend on the secretion of short-acting soluble molecules called
cytokines
31
type of cytokine that are made by leukocytes and then act on other leukocytes
interleukins
32
kind of cytokine that interferes with virus multiplication
interferon
33
refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types
pleiotropism
34
refers to the ability of different cytokines to stimulate the same overlapping biologic functions
redundancy
35
The largest family, __ chemokines attracts mononuclear leukocytes to sites of chronic inflammation
CC chemokines
36
The __ chemokines attract neutrophils to sites of acute inflammation
CXC chemokines
37
among the functions of the innate immune system is induction of a complex cascade of events known as the
inflammatory response
38
in the stomach and intestines, death of microbes results from the action of digestive enzymes, acidic conditions, and secretions of
defensins
39
defensins are small cationic ___ that rapidly kill many types of bacteria by disrupting their membrane
peptides
40
the early-responding phagocyte cell is the
neutrophil
41
the 2nd cell to arrive after neutrophils is
macrophage
42
___ cells are derived form bone marrow cells and related to the macrophage, they also play important role in the innate response to infections and in linking innate and adaptive responses
dendritic cells
43
some microbial components have repetitive structures called
PAMP (pathogen associated molecular patterns
44
the best definied activation pathway for the pathogen sensors of innate immunity is a family of transmembrane receptors
toll-like receptors
45
the coating of particles, such as microbes, is called
opsonization
46
the __ pathway recognizes complement-fixing antibodies (IgG, IgM) of adaptive immunity bound to the surface of a microbe or other structure
classical pathway
47
the __ pathway uses a plasma protein called mannose-binding ligand that binds to mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins or glycolipids.
the lectin pathway
48
pathway that recognizes certain microbial molecules in the absence of antibody
alternative
49
for the purpose of inducing immunity through vaccination, adaptive immune responses may be induced by antigens without microbes. In such instances, the antigens have to be administered with substances called ___ that elicit the same adaptive immune reactions as microbes do
adjuvants
50
dendritic cells and macrophages express surface molecules call __-____ which bind to receptors on naive T cells and function together with antigen recognition to activate T cells
co-stimulators
51
antigens are also called
immunogens
52
foreign molecules are recognized by receptors on immune cells and by secreted proteins, called __ or __
antibodies or immunoglobulins
53
antibodies or immunoglobulins are made in response to an
antigen
54
discrete, immunologically active sites on antigens are called __ __ or ___
antigenic determinants or epitopes
55
it is the unique molecular shape of the __ that is recognized by a specific immunoglobulin receptor found on a lymphocyte or antibody
epitope
56
low-molecular weight compounds called ___ that combine with larger molecules and are then an antigen
haptens
57
Class 1 MHC are cell surface molecules that interact with the __ __ T cells
CD8 cytotoxic t cells
58
Class 2 MHC are on macrophages, __ cells and __ cells
dendritic cells and B cells
59
Class 2 MHC interact with the
CD4 helper t cells
60
Human MHC proteins are called
HLAs (human leukocyte antigens)
61
because the class 1 and 2 MHC genes are closely linked on one chromosome, the combination of HLA genes usually is inherited as a unit, called a
haplotype
62
only Ig that crosses the placenta
IgG
63
Ig in saliva, mucous, breast milk
IgA
64
Ig forms the natural antibodies such as those for ABO blood antigens
IgM
65
Ig prominent in early immune responses
IgM
66
Ig found on B lymphocytes and needed for maturation of B cells
IgD
67
Ig binds to mast cells and basophils
IgE
68
Ig involved in parasites and allergic reactions
IgE
69
the __ regions contain the antigen-binding sites of the molecule
variable regions
70
Ig responsive to bacteria such as S pneumoniae, H influenzae and N meningitidis
IgG
71
__ t cell suppresses immune responses by inhibiting the proliferation of other potentially harmful self-reactive lymphocytes
regulatory t cell
72
term used to define the ability of the immune system to be nonreactive to self cells, while also producing immunity to pathogens
tolerance
73
disorders caused by immune responses are collectively called ___ reactions
hypersensitivity reactions
74
refers to a genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens mediated by an IgE-mast cell reaction
atopic
75
localized tissue necrosis (usually in the skin) caused by type III immune complexes
arthus reaction
76
graft where the donor and recipient are the same person
autologous graft
77
graft where donor and recipient are identical twins
syngeneic graft
78
graft where donor and recipient are unrelated
alloantigens
79
in the ___ pathway, t cells of the transplant recipient directly recognize donor MHC molecules of the surface of APCs in the graft
direct pathway
80
the the ___ pathway, recipient CD4 T cells recognize donor MHC molecules after they have been picked up, processed, and presented by the recipient's own APCs
indirect pathway
81
one proposed link between infections and autoimmunity is molecular ___ in which a microbe shares an immunologic epitope with the host
molecular mimicry
82
for most serological assays, the patient's serum is serially diluted until it no longer produces a visible reaction. This is called a positive
positive titer
83
any abnormality that interferes with the production of Ig-producing plasma cells can result in a state of i_____
immunodeficiency
84
certain infants may have a delay in IgG production. The communication between B and T cells that is supposed to lead to clonal proliferation is reduced. This is called Transient ____ of infancy
hypogammaglobulinemia
85
In this syndrome, maturation of B cells is blocked. It's called Common ___ Immunodeficiency
Common Variable Immunodeficiency
86
characterized by low IgG and IgA levels. Hyper-Ig_ Syndrome
M
87
HIV screening tests may be negative in the first 1 to 6 months, this is called the __ period
window period
88
the point at which an infected person converts from being negative for the presence of HIV antibodies to positive is called
seroconversion
89
HIV replication, first step is binding of the virus to the ___ t cell
CD4
90
HIV replication, second step is ____tion of the virus
internalization
91
HIV replication, 3rd step is __ synthesis
DNA
92
HIV replication, the 4th step is called ___. The new vrial DNA enters the host nucleus and is inserted into the host's DNA
integration
93
HIV replication, the 5th step involves ___ of the viral DNA to form RNA
transcription
94
HIV replication, the 6th step is ____, where the mRNA directs rRNA
translation
95
HIV replication, the 7th step is ___, where a protein chain is cut into smaller pieces that will become new viruses
cleavage
96
HIV replication, the 8th step is when the virus ___s the cell
leaves
97
term for the contents of the viral core entering the host cell
uncoating
98
in order for HIV to reproduce it must change its RNA to DNA. It does this using Reverse ___ enzyme
Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
99
Once a virus' DNA is inserted into the host's DNA its called a
provirus
100
The ELISA test is confirmed with a
western blot
101
hypersensitivity response that's mediated by IgE
type 1
102
hypersensitivity response that include anaphylactic shock, hay fever, and bronchial asthma
type 1
103
hypersensitivity response includes antibody mediated cell destruction, complement and antibody mediated inflammation, and antibody mediated cell dysfunction
type 2
104
hypersensitivity response, transfusion reactions
type 2
105
type 2 hypersensitivity response, transfusion reaction, what kind of type 2?
antibody mediated cell destruction
106
type 2 hypersensitivity response, Grave disease and myasthenia gravis, what kind of type 2?
antibody-mediated cell dysfunction
107
hypersensitivity response, involves the accumulation of insoluble antigen-antibody complexes
type 3
108
hypersensitivity response, vasculitis, serum sickness, local immune complex diseases (arthus reaction)
type 3
109
hypersensitivity response, include direct cell cytotoxicity (t cells killing other cells)
type 4
110
hypersensitivity response, delayed type
type 4
111
hypersensitivity response, helper t cell releases cytokines that damage and kill antigen-containing cells
delayed type (type 4)
112
___ rejection occurs immediately after the transplant
hyperacute rejection
113
__ rejection occurs within a few weeks or months after the transplant
acute
114
__ rejection occurs when graft tissue or blood vessels are damaged by alloreactive T cells or antibodies
acute
115
__ rejection is caused by t cell generated cytokines that damage blood vessels, causing ischemic damage to graft tissue
chronic
116
one of the requirements for GVHD is the transplant must have a functional __ component
immune
117
one of the requirements for GVHD is the recipient tissue must bear ___ foreign to the donor tissue
antigens
118
one of the requirements for GVHD is recipient immunity must be
compromised
119
autoimmune disorders may be caused by genetics or by
the environment (such as infection)
120
primary immunodeficiency is caused by
something youre born with
121
secondary immunodeficiency is caused by
something you're not born with
122
immunodeficiency in __ immunity makes you more vulnerable to fungi, protozoa, viral, bacterial, and cancer
cellular
123
type 1 reactions are often called __ reactions
allergic reactions
124
systemic reaction is aka
anaphylactic reactions
125
local reactions are aka
atopic reaction
126
Allergic r___ is characterized by sneezing, itching, discharge
rhinitis
127
food allergy is type _ reaction
1
128
reaction mediated by IgG or IgM
type 2
129
disease where autoantibodies are directed against TSH receptors on thyroid cells, leading to hyperthyroidism
Graves disease
130
type of hypersensitivity reaction involving insoluble antigen-antibody complexes
type 3
131
the 2 kinds of cell mediated (aka type 4) hypersensitivity reactions
direct cell and delayed type
132
the kind of type 4 hypersensitivity reaction that involves waiting for the helper T cells to make effector molecules
delayed type
133
contact dermatitis is type _ hypersensitivity
4 (delayed type)
134
hypersensitivity pneumonitis is type _ hypersensitivity
4 (delayed type)
135
any self-antigen that was completely sequestered during development and then introduced later could be regard as
foreign
136
after a baby gets an infection in the womb, his immune system starts earlier than normal and throws everything off balance. There is less communication between B cells and T cells, which leads to less anti body producing plasma cells
transient hypogammaglobulinemia (less IgG)
137
disease where boys have undetectable levels of all kinds of Igs
x linked agammaglobulinemia
138
in this syndrome the maturation of B cells in blocked
common variable immunodeficiency
139
syndrome characterized by moderate to marked reduction in levels of serum and secretory IgA, probably due to a block in the pathway that promotes maturation of some B cells
selective immunoglobulin A deficiency
140
disease that can affect a certain type of IgG even though the total amount of IgG may be normal
immunoglobulin G subclass deficiency
141
characterized by low IgG and IgA levels, and normal/high IgM
x linked immunodeficiency with hyperimmunoglobulinemia
142
stems from an embryonic developmental defect where the the thymus/parathyroid doesn't work
Thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge Syndrome)
143
In Thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge Syndrome) the baby can't produce _ cells
T cells
144
syndrome of diverse genetic causes characterized by profound deficiencies in T and B cell function, and in some cases NK cells and function
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
145
x linked recessive disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and marked susceptibility to bacterial infections
immune deficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)
146
characterized by weight loss of 10% of body weight from diarrhea, chronic weakness, fatigue
wasting syndrome (AIDS defining illness)
147
a self-limiting lymphoproliferative disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a member of the herpes virus family
mono
148
___phil antibodies are used for the diagnosis of mono
heterophil
149
in ____ leukemia there's an interference with maturation of blood cells like granulocytes, RBCs, and thrombocytes
myelogenous
150
condition in which there's way too many leukemic blasts
leukostasis
151
occurs as the result of increased proliferation of increased breakdown of purine nucleotides secondary to leukemic cell death
hyperuricemia
152
hyperuricemia results from
chemotherapy
153
chronic leukemia involves mature cells whereas acute leukemia involves hematopoietic __ cells
progenitor
154
kind of leukemia characterized by too many granulocytes, erythoid precursors, and megakaryocytes
chronic myelogenous leukemia
155
a diverse group of solid tumors made of neoplastic lymphoid cells
lymphomas (2 kinds of lymphomas, hodgkin and non hodgkin)
156
features reed-sternberg cells
hodgkin lymphoma
157
characterized by expansion of a single clone of immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells
plasma cell dyscrasias
158
characterized by the presence of the monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum without other findings of multiple myeloma
MGUS
159
a B-cell malignancy of terminally differentiated plasma cells
Multiple myeloma
160
characterized by proliferation of malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow and osteolytic bone lesions throughout the skeletal system
Multiple myeloma
161
characterized by abnormal production of M protein
Multiple myeloma
162
associated with Bence Jones proteins in the urine
Multiple myeloma
163
type 1 neurofibromatosis aka
recklinghausen disease
