344 Chap 15 16 Flashcards

1
Q

neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells, and complement proteins are all part of

A

innate immunity

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2
Q

Antibodies neutralize microbes and microbial

A

toxins

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3
Q

Viruses are handled by which branch of adaptive immunity

A

cell-mediated

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4
Q

Both innate and adaptive immunity use phagocytosis and the ___ system

A

complement system

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5
Q

The precursor cell for monocytes/macrophages, granulocytes, and dendritic cells

A

myeloid

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6
Q

The precursor cell for natural killer cells, lymphocytes

A

Lymphoid

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7
Q

Although their primary role is phagocytosis, macrophages also function as

A

APCs

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8
Q

Cell that acts as a general scavenger cleaning up debris

A

Macrophages

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9
Q

For HIV patients, a decline in ___ helper t-cells is used to track the progression of the disease

A

CD4

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10
Q

Lymph nodes (1) ___ foreign material and (2) are sites of immune cell ___

A

filter, proliferation

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11
Q

refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types

A

Pleiotropism

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12
Q

refers to the ability of different cytokines to stimulate the same or overlapping biological functions

A

redundancy

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13
Q

cytokines can exert their effects locally and

A

systemically

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14
Q

Chemokines are cytokines that stimulate the ___ and ___ of immune cells

A

migration and activation

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15
Q

cytokines that stimulate production of large numbers of platelets, RBC, lymphocytes, neutrophils etc

A

Colony-stimulating factors

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16
Q

The skin has antibacterial proteins and the enzyme ___ that inhibits microbes

A

lysozyme

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17
Q

In the stomach and intestine, the secretion of ____ kills bacteria by disrupting their membrane

A

defensins

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18
Q

The MLB receptor is used to ___ pathogens

A

identify

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19
Q

the coating of microbes is called

A

opsonization

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20
Q

Cytokines have various functions such as: producing ch_____ for leukocytes, stimulating acute-phase protein production, inhibiting ___ replication, and affecting ___ of immune cells

A

chemotaxis, virus, development

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21
Q

type 1 interferon interacts with receptors on neighboring cells to stimulate the translation of an antiviral protein that protects ___ cells

A

unaffected cells

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22
Q

the acute phase response involves a shift in the proteins synthesized by the liver into the

A

Plasma

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23
Q

substance that elicits adaptive immune response

A

antigen

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24
Q

Although their main role is phagocytosis, macrophages also function as __ __ cells

A

antigen-presenting cells

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25
Q

the antigen receptors of most T cells only recognize peptide fragments of protein antigens that are bound to specialized peptide display molecules called ___

A

MHC

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26
Q

Helper T cells help B cells __ __ and helps phagocytes __ __ pathogens

A

produce antibodies

destroy ingested pathogens

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27
Q

lymphocytes are often distinguished by surface proteins. The standard nomenclature for these proteins is the __

A

CD aka clusters of differentiation

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28
Q

In HIV, a decline or rise in __ __ __-cell count is used to follow the progression of the disease and response to treatment

A

CD4+ helper T-cell

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29
Q

Only the T cells that are able to recognize foreign antigens and distinguish self from non-self are allowed to leave the thymus. this is called

A

thymic selection

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30
Q

many cell to cell interactions and effector responses depend on the secretion of short-acting soluble molecules called

A

cytokines

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31
Q

type of cytokine that are made by leukocytes and then act on other leukocytes

A

interleukins

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32
Q

kind of cytokine that interferes with virus multiplication

A

interferon

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33
Q

refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types

A

pleiotropism

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34
Q

refers to the ability of different cytokines to stimulate the same overlapping biologic functions

A

redundancy

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35
Q

The largest family, __ chemokines attracts mononuclear leukocytes to sites of chronic inflammation

A

CC chemokines

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36
Q

The __ chemokines attract neutrophils to sites of acute inflammation

A

CXC chemokines

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37
Q

among the functions of the innate immune system is induction of a complex cascade of events known as the

A

inflammatory response

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38
Q

in the stomach and intestines, death of microbes results from the action of digestive enzymes, acidic conditions, and secretions of

A

defensins

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39
Q

defensins are small cationic ___ that rapidly kill many types of bacteria by disrupting their membrane

A

peptides

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40
Q

the early-responding phagocyte cell is the

A

neutrophil

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41
Q

the 2nd cell to arrive after neutrophils is

A

macrophage

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42
Q

___ cells are derived form bone marrow cells and related to the macrophage, they also play important role in the innate response to infections and in linking innate and adaptive responses

A

dendritic cells

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43
Q

some microbial components have repetitive structures called

A

PAMP (pathogen associated molecular patterns

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44
Q

the best definied activation pathway for the pathogen sensors of innate immunity is a family of transmembrane receptors

A

toll-like receptors

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45
Q

the coating of particles, such as microbes, is called

A

opsonization

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46
Q

the __ pathway recognizes complement-fixing antibodies (IgG, IgM) of adaptive immunity bound to the surface of a microbe or other structure

A

classical pathway

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47
Q

the __ pathway uses a plasma protein called mannose-binding ligand that binds to mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins or glycolipids.

A

the lectin pathway

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48
Q

pathway that recognizes certain microbial molecules in the absence of antibody

A

alternative

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49
Q

for the purpose of inducing immunity through vaccination, adaptive immune responses may be induced by antigens without microbes. In such instances, the antigens have to be administered with substances called ___ that elicit the same adaptive immune reactions as microbes do

A

adjuvants

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50
Q

dendritic cells and macrophages express surface molecules call __-____ which bind to receptors on naive T cells and function together with antigen recognition to activate T cells

A

co-stimulators

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51
Q

antigens are also called

A

immunogens

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52
Q

foreign molecules are recognized by receptors on immune cells and by secreted proteins, called __ or __

A

antibodies or immunoglobulins

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53
Q

antibodies or immunoglobulins are made in response to an

A

antigen

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54
Q

discrete, immunologically active sites on antigens are called __ __ or ___

A

antigenic determinants or epitopes

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55
Q

it is the unique molecular shape of the __ that is recognized by a specific immunoglobulin receptor found on a lymphocyte or antibody

A

epitope

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56
Q

low-molecular weight compounds called ___ that combine with larger molecules and are then an antigen

A

haptens

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57
Q

Class 1 MHC are cell surface molecules that interact with the __ __ T cells

A

CD8 cytotoxic t cells

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58
Q

Class 2 MHC are on macrophages, __ cells and __ cells

A

dendritic cells and B cells

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59
Q

Class 2 MHC interact with the

A

CD4 helper t cells

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60
Q

Human MHC proteins are called

A

HLAs (human leukocyte antigens)

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61
Q

because the class 1 and 2 MHC genes are closely linked on one chromosome, the combination of HLA genes usually is inherited as a unit, called a

A

haplotype

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62
Q

only Ig that crosses the placenta

A

IgG

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63
Q

Ig in saliva, mucous, breast milk

A

IgA

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64
Q

Ig forms the natural antibodies such as those for ABO blood antigens

A

IgM

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65
Q

Ig prominent in early immune responses

A

IgM

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66
Q

Ig found on B lymphocytes and needed for maturation of B cells

A

IgD

67
Q

Ig binds to mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

68
Q

Ig involved in parasites and allergic reactions

A

IgE

69
Q

the __ regions contain the antigen-binding sites of the molecule

A

variable regions

70
Q

Ig responsive to bacteria such as S pneumoniae, H influenzae and N meningitidis

A

IgG

71
Q

__ t cell suppresses immune responses by inhibiting the proliferation of other potentially harmful self-reactive lymphocytes

A

regulatory t cell

72
Q

term used to define the ability of the immune system to be nonreactive to self cells, while also producing immunity to pathogens

A

tolerance

73
Q

disorders caused by immune responses are collectively called ___ reactions

A

hypersensitivity reactions

74
Q

refers to a genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens mediated by an IgE-mast cell reaction

A

atopic

75
Q

localized tissue necrosis (usually in the skin) caused by type III immune complexes

A

arthus reaction

76
Q

graft where the donor and recipient are the same person

A

autologous graft

77
Q

graft where donor and recipient are identical twins

A

syngeneic graft

78
Q

graft where donor and recipient are unrelated

A

alloantigens

79
Q

in the ___ pathway, t cells of the transplant recipient directly recognize donor MHC molecules of the surface of APCs in the graft

A

direct pathway

80
Q

the the ___ pathway, recipient CD4 T cells recognize donor MHC molecules after they have been picked up, processed, and presented by the recipient’s own APCs

A

indirect pathway

81
Q

one proposed link between infections and autoimmunity is molecular ___ in which a microbe shares an immunologic epitope with the host

A

molecular mimicry

82
Q

for most serological assays, the patient’s serum is serially diluted until it no longer produces a visible reaction. This is called a positive

A

positive titer

83
Q

any abnormality that interferes with the production of Ig-producing plasma cells can result in a state of i_____

A

immunodeficiency

84
Q

certain infants may have a delay in IgG production. The communication between B and T cells that is supposed to lead to clonal proliferation is reduced. This is called Transient ____ of infancy

A

hypogammaglobulinemia

85
Q

In this syndrome, maturation of B cells is blocked. It’s called Common ___ Immunodeficiency

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency

86
Q

characterized by low IgG and IgA levels. Hyper-Ig_ Syndrome

A

M

87
Q

HIV screening tests may be negative in the first 1 to 6 months, this is called the __ period

A

window period

88
Q

the point at which an infected person converts from being negative for the presence of HIV antibodies to positive is called

A

seroconversion

89
Q

HIV replication, first step is binding of the virus to the ___ t cell

A

CD4

90
Q

HIV replication, second step is ____tion of the virus

A

internalization

91
Q

HIV replication, 3rd step is __ synthesis

A

DNA

92
Q

HIV replication, the 4th step is called ___. The new vrial DNA enters the host nucleus and is inserted into the host’s DNA

A

integration

93
Q

HIV replication, the 5th step involves ___ of the viral DNA to form RNA

A

transcription

94
Q

HIV replication, the 6th step is ____, where the mRNA directs rRNA

A

translation

95
Q

HIV replication, the 7th step is ___, where a protein chain is cut into smaller pieces that will become new viruses

A

cleavage

96
Q

HIV replication, the 8th step is when the virus ___s the cell

A

leaves

97
Q

term for the contents of the viral core entering the host cell

A

uncoating

98
Q

in order for HIV to reproduce it must change its RNA to DNA. It does this using Reverse ___ enzyme

A

Reverse Transcriptase enzyme

99
Q

Once a virus’ DNA is inserted into the host’s DNA its called a

A

provirus

100
Q

The ELISA test is confirmed with a

A

western blot

101
Q

hypersensitivity response that’s mediated by IgE

A

type 1

102
Q

hypersensitivity response that include anaphylactic shock, hay fever, and bronchial asthma

A

type 1

103
Q

hypersensitivity response includes antibody mediated cell destruction, complement and antibody mediated inflammation, and antibody mediated cell dysfunction

A

type 2

104
Q

hypersensitivity response, transfusion reactions

A

type 2

105
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity response, transfusion reaction, what kind of type 2?

A

antibody mediated cell destruction

106
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity response, Grave disease and myasthenia gravis, what kind of type 2?

A

antibody-mediated cell dysfunction

107
Q

hypersensitivity response, involves the accumulation of insoluble antigen-antibody complexes

A

type 3

108
Q

hypersensitivity response, vasculitis, serum sickness, local immune complex diseases (arthus reaction)

A

type 3

109
Q

hypersensitivity response, include direct cell cytotoxicity (t cells killing other cells)

A

type 4

110
Q

hypersensitivity response, delayed type

A

type 4

111
Q

hypersensitivity response, helper t cell releases cytokines that damage and kill antigen-containing cells

A

delayed type (type 4)

112
Q

___ rejection occurs immediately after the transplant

A

hyperacute rejection

113
Q

__ rejection occurs within a few weeks or months after the transplant

A

acute

114
Q

__ rejection occurs when graft tissue or blood vessels are damaged by alloreactive T cells or antibodies

A

acute

115
Q

__ rejection is caused by t cell generated cytokines that damage blood vessels, causing ischemic damage to graft tissue

A

chronic

116
Q

one of the requirements for GVHD is the transplant must have a functional __ component

A

immune

117
Q

one of the requirements for GVHD is the recipient tissue must bear ___ foreign to the donor tissue

A

antigens

118
Q

one of the requirements for GVHD is recipient immunity must be

A

compromised

119
Q

autoimmune disorders may be caused by genetics or by

A

the environment (such as infection)

120
Q

primary immunodeficiency is caused by

A

something youre born with

121
Q

secondary immunodeficiency is caused by

A

something you’re not born with

122
Q

immunodeficiency in __ immunity makes you more vulnerable to fungi, protozoa, viral, bacterial, and cancer

A

cellular

123
Q

type 1 reactions are often called __ reactions

A

allergic reactions

124
Q

systemic reaction is aka

A

anaphylactic reactions

125
Q

local reactions are aka

A

atopic reaction

126
Q

Allergic r___ is characterized by sneezing, itching, discharge

A

rhinitis

127
Q

food allergy is type _ reaction

A

1

128
Q

reaction mediated by IgG or IgM

A

type 2

129
Q

disease where autoantibodies are directed against TSH receptors on thyroid cells, leading to hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease

130
Q

type of hypersensitivity reaction involving insoluble antigen-antibody complexes

A

type 3

131
Q

the 2 kinds of cell mediated (aka type 4) hypersensitivity reactions

A

direct cell and delayed type

132
Q

the kind of type 4 hypersensitivity reaction that involves waiting for the helper T cells to make effector molecules

A

delayed type

133
Q

contact dermatitis is type _ hypersensitivity

A

4 (delayed type)

134
Q

hypersensitivity pneumonitis is type _ hypersensitivity

A

4 (delayed type)

135
Q

any self-antigen that was completely sequestered during development and then introduced later could be regard as

A

foreign

136
Q

after a baby gets an infection in the womb, his immune system starts earlier than normal and throws everything off balance. There is less communication between B cells and T cells, which leads to less anti body producing plasma cells

A

transient hypogammaglobulinemia (less IgG)

137
Q

disease where boys have undetectable levels of all kinds of Igs

A

x linked agammaglobulinemia

138
Q

in this syndrome the maturation of B cells in blocked

A

common variable immunodeficiency

139
Q

syndrome characterized by moderate to marked reduction in levels of serum and secretory IgA, probably due to a block in the pathway that promotes maturation of some B cells

A

selective immunoglobulin A deficiency

140
Q

disease that can affect a certain type of IgG even though the total amount of IgG may be normal

A

immunoglobulin G subclass deficiency

141
Q

characterized by low IgG and IgA levels, and normal/high IgM

A

x linked immunodeficiency with hyperimmunoglobulinemia

142
Q

stems from an embryonic developmental defect where the the thymus/parathyroid doesn’t work

A

Thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge Syndrome)

143
Q

In Thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge Syndrome) the baby can’t produce _ cells

A

T cells

144
Q

syndrome of diverse genetic causes characterized by profound deficiencies in T and B cell function, and in some cases NK cells and function

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

145
Q

x linked recessive disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and marked susceptibility to bacterial infections

A

immune deficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)

146
Q

characterized by weight loss of 10% of body weight from diarrhea, chronic weakness, fatigue

A

wasting syndrome (AIDS defining illness)

147
Q

a self-limiting lymphoproliferative disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a member of the herpes virus family

A

mono

148
Q

___phil antibodies are used for the diagnosis of mono

A

heterophil

149
Q

in ____ leukemia there’s an interference with maturation of blood cells like granulocytes, RBCs, and thrombocytes

A

myelogenous

150
Q

condition in which there’s way too many leukemic blasts

A

leukostasis

151
Q

occurs as the result of increased proliferation of increased breakdown of purine nucleotides secondary to leukemic cell death

A

hyperuricemia

152
Q

hyperuricemia results from

A

chemotherapy

153
Q

chronic leukemia involves mature cells whereas acute leukemia involves hematopoietic __ cells

A

progenitor

154
Q

kind of leukemia characterized by too many granulocytes, erythoid precursors, and megakaryocytes

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia

155
Q

a diverse group of solid tumors made of neoplastic lymphoid cells

A

lymphomas (2 kinds of lymphomas, hodgkin and non hodgkin)

156
Q

features reed-sternberg cells

A

hodgkin lymphoma

157
Q

characterized by expansion of a single clone of immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells

A

plasma cell dyscrasias

158
Q

characterized by the presence of the monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum without other findings of multiple myeloma

A

MGUS

159
Q

a B-cell malignancy of terminally differentiated plasma cells

A

Multiple myeloma

160
Q

characterized by proliferation of malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow and osteolytic bone lesions throughout the skeletal system

A

Multiple myeloma

161
Q

characterized by abnormal production of M protein

A

Multiple myeloma

162
Q

associated with Bence Jones proteins in the urine

A

Multiple myeloma

163
Q

type 1 neurofibromatosis aka

A

recklinghausen disease