Patho Final Flashcards

1
Q

INNATE IMMUNITY is ___ and ___ response

A

early and rapid

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2
Q

4 cells of innate immunity

A

Phagocytic granulocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
NKCs

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3
Q

1st line of defense against viral infection

A

NKCs

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4
Q

Dendritic cells

A

antigen-presenting cells

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5
Q

Phagocytic granulocytes examples

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

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6
Q

Substances that elicit adaptive immune responses are called

A

ANTIGENS

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7
Q

help B-cells make antibodies & help phagocytic cells destroy ingested pathogens

A

helper T cells

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8
Q

kill intracellular microbes

A

Cytotoxic T-cells

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9
Q

Vaccinations depend on ___ immunity

A

Humoral

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10
Q

Cell-Mediated Immunity involves the use of __ to influence other cells

A

Cytokines

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11
Q

Defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

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12
Q

immunity that recognizes abnormal cells from cancers, viruses, infections, and transplanted tissues

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

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13
Q

Innate or adaptive, general protection

A

Innate

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14
Q

Innate or adaptive, early phase of host response

A

Innate

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15
Q

Innate or adaptive, lag time between exposure and maximal response

A

Adaptive

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16
Q

Bones of the skeleton house __% of body’s calcium and __% phosphorus

A

99% of body’s calcium & 85% phosphorus

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17
Q

Osteopenia

A

Metabolic bone disease

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18
Q

Osteopenia is characterized by a

A

reduction in bone mineral density

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19
Q

Osteopenia occurs because of a decrease in ___ ___, inadequate ___ ___, or excessive bone ____

A

decrease in bone formation, inadequate bone mineralization, or excessive bone deossification

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20
Q

Osteopenia is not a diagnosis but a term used to describe an apparent loss of __ __ seen on x-ray studies

A

bone density

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21
Q

The 5 major causes of osteopenia are:

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteomalacia
  • Malignancies
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Hyperparathyroidism
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22
Q

Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease characterized by

A

decreased bone density (i.e., increased porosity)

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23
Q

In addition to decreased bone density, Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased

A

strength because the bone matrix and mineralization are decreased.

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24
Q

Osteoporosis risk factors

A
50yrs or older
Female
White or Asian
Small bone structure/low body weight
Postmenopausal
Family history
Sedentary
Calcium/Vitamin D deficiency
High-protein diet
Smoking, drinking, caffeine
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25
Q

The cause of osteoporosis remains largely unknown, but most data suggest an

A

imbalance between bone resorption and formation.

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26
Q

___ factors play a significant role in the development of osteoporosis, particularly in postmenopausal women.

A

Hormonal

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27
Q

Postmenopausal osteoporosis is caused by an ___ deficiency.

A

estrogen

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28
Q

Postmenopausal osteoporosis: The loss of bone mass is greatest during

A

early menopause

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29
Q

decreased physical ___ that often accompanies aging may also contribute to the loss of bone mass in the elderly.

A

Activity

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30
Q

associated with many conditions, including endocrine disorders, malabsorption disorders, malignancies (multiple myeloma), alcoholism, and certain medications.

A

Secondary osteoporosis

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31
Q

___ use is the most common cause of drug-related osteoporosis

A

Corticosteroid

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32
Q

Several groups of children and adolescents are at particular risk for decreased bone mass, including ___ infants with low birth weight

A

premature

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33
Q

Children with ___ ___ often have impaired GI function that reduces the absorption of calcium and other nutrients, and many also require frequent corticosteroid drugs.

A

cystic fibrosis

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34
Q

Premature osteoporosis is increasingly being seen in female ___ due to increased prevalence of eating disorders and amenorrhea.

A

athletes

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35
Q

The female athlete ___ refers to a pattern of disordered eating that leads to amenorrhea and eventually osteoporosis

A

triad

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36
Q

Osteoporotic changes occur in the diaphysis and __ of bone.

A

Metaphysis

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37
Q

Osteoporosis is usually a silent disorder. Often, the first manifestations of the disorder accompany a skeletal

A

Fracture

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38
Q

Hip fractures occur mainly in persons over the age of

A

65

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39
Q

An important advance in diagnostic methods used for the identification of osteoporosis has been the use of ___ assessment

A

BMD assessment.

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40
Q

The clinical method of choice for BMD studies is dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) of the

A

spine and hip.

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41
Q

Measurement of serial ___ in older adults is another simple way to screen for osteoporosis.

A

Heights

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42
Q

Studies have indicated that premenopausal women need more than 1000mg/day of calcium, and postmenopausal women need at least ____ of calcium daily.

A

1200mg

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43
Q

A daily intake of ___ IU of vitamin D is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older.

A

800-1000

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44
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic ___ systemic disease

A

autoimmune

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45
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune systemic disease that affects all ethnic groups throughout the worlds, with

A

women being affected more frequently than men.

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46
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis: The onset of the disease can occur at any age, but its peak incidence is between

A

50 & 75 years of age.

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47
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis: Evidence points to a ___ predisposition and the development of joint inflammation that is immunologically mediated.

A

genetic

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48
Q

It has been suggested that the disease is initiated in a genetically predisposed individual by the activation of a ___-cell mediated response to an immunological trigger, such as a microbial agent.

A

T-cell-mediated

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49
Q

____ is a strong risk factor for the development of RA and may also influence the severity of the disease.

A

smoking

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50
Q

The pathogenesis of RA can be viewed as an aberrant immune response that leads to ____ inflammation and ____ of the joint architecture.

A

Synovial, destruction

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51
Q

RA has an insidious onset marked by systemic manifestations such as

A

fatigue, weakness, and generalized aching and stiffness.

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52
Q

The person may complain of joint pain and stiffness that lasts for 30 minutes and frequently for several hours.

A

RA

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53
Q

RA: The limitation of joint motion that occurs early in the disease is because of pain; later, it is because of

A

Fibrosis

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54
Q

In early disease, the wrists, metacarpophalangeal joints, proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers, the thumbs, and hands are most commonly affected.

A

RA

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55
Q

RA: A ___ cyst may develop in the popliteal area behind the knee.

A

Baker

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56
Q

RA frequently has constitutional symptoms such as

A

fatigue, weakness, anorexia, and weight loss that are due to systemic inflammation.

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57
Q

Osteoarthritis aka

A

degenerative joint disease

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58
Q

Osteoarthritis most ___ type of joint disease

A

Prevalent

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59
Q

Osteoarthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the ___ cartilage

A

articular

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60
Q

OA appears ____, without any apparent initiating cause, as an aging phenomenon.

A

Insidiously

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61
Q

Joint changes associated with OA include a gradual loss of articular cartilage, combined with ____ of bones.

A

thickening

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62
Q

OA is a multifactorial disease that has genetic and environmental risk factors.

A
  • Age (strongest factor)
  • Gender (Women)
  • Race (Hand-White women) (Knees- Black women)
  • Obesity
  • Wear-and-tear arthritis
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63
Q

Wear-and-tear arthritis

A

OA

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64
Q

OA has audible

A

Crepitus

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65
Q

RBCs are derived from precursor cells called

A

Proerythroblasts

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66
Q

Most maturing RBCs enter blood as

A

Reticulocytes

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67
Q

__ to __ % of oxygen is bound to RBCs

A

95%-98%

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68
Q

Lack of iron= lack of ___ in RBC

A

Hemoglobin

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69
Q

__% iron is in hemoglobin

A

65%

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70
Q

When red blood cells age and are destroyed in the spleen, the iron from their hemoglobin is released into circulation & returned to the

A

bone marrow for incorporation into new RBCs or to the liver and other tissues for storage.

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71
Q

After 20yrs old, RBC production takes place in:

A

vertebrae, sternum, ribs, and pelvis

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72
Q

Maturation from reticulocyte to erythrocyte takes

A

24-48 hours

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73
Q

During maturation, RBC loses its

A

mitochondria, ribosomes, and ability to produce hemoglobin

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74
Q

Decreased O2 content is sensed by the ___, which in turn produce the hormone erythropoietin to produce more RBCs

A

KIDNEYS

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75
Q

Mature RBCs have a life span of

A

120 days

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76
Q

Mature RBCs do NOT have a nucleus, mitochondria, or endoplasmic reticulum, but do have cytoplasmic enzymes that metabolize

A

glucose and form ATP

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77
Q

Rate of RBC destruction=

A

rate of RBC production

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78
Q

When red blood cell destruction takes place in the circulation, as in hemolytic anemia, the hemoglobin remains in the plasma where it binds to a hemoglobin- binding protein called

A

haptoglobin

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79
Q

Anemia usually results from excessive loss (bleeding) or destruction (hemolysis) of RBC or

A

deficient RBC production due to lack of nutritional elements (iron) or bone marrow failure.

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80
Q

Anemias caused by premature destruction of the RBCs

A

hemolytic anemia

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81
Q

anemia associated with hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice, and gallstones.

A

hemolytic anemia

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82
Q

Chronic blood loss does not affect blood volume, but instead leads to

A

IRON-DEFIECNCIEY ANEMIA

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83
Q

Without adequate ___, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin for red blood cells.

A

Iron

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84
Q

The result is iron-deficiency anemia. This type of anemia can be caused by: An iron-poor diet, especially in infants, children, teens,

A

vegans, and vegetarians

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85
Q

Iron balance is maintained by absorption of 0.5-1.5 mg daily to replace __mg lost in feces.

A

1mg

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86
Q

Persons are commonly asymptomatic until the hemoglobin level is less than __g/dL

A

8 g/dL

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87
Q

Iron can be derived from meat and is absorbed in the small intestine, especially the

A

duodenum

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88
Q

Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of RBCs, the retention of Iron and the other products of hemoglobin destruction, and the compensatory increase in

A

erythropoiesis

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89
Q

Extravascular hemolysis produces jaundice and

A

Gallstones

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90
Q

Intravascular hemolysis occurs as a result of

A

mechanical injury.

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91
Q

Sickle cell anemia: RBCs break down ___, so oxygen does not get to the body’s organs, causing anemia.

A

rapidly

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92
Q

The crescent-shaped red blood cells can also get stuck in tiny blood vessels, causing

A

pain

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93
Q

Sickle cell disease is an inherited disorder in which abnormal hemoglobin leads to chronic hemolytic anemia, pain, and

A

organ failure

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94
Q

Most infants with sickle cell disease do not begin to experience the effects until

A

8-10 wks of age.

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95
Q

2 most common probs of sickle cell disease:

A

Vasocclusive pain crisis

Acute chest syndrome (Pulmonary infarction)

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96
Q

an inhibitor of DNA synthesis, has been shown to reduce pain crisis and prevent the complications of sickle cell disease.

A

Hydroxyurea

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97
Q

May occur when vitamin B12 ( aka cobalamin) and folate are deficient.

A

Vitamin-deficiency anemia

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98
Q

These two vitamins are needed to make red blood cells.

A

vitamin B12 ( aka cobalamin) and folate

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99
Q

Megaloblastic (enlarged RBCs) anemia : Vitamin B12 or folate or both are

A

deficient

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100
Q

Dietary deficiency: Eating little or no meat, cereals and fruits may cause a lack of

A

vitamin B12

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101
Q

overcooking or eating too few vegetables may cause a

A

folate deficiency.

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102
Q

Lead exposure is toxic to the bone marrow, leading to fewer

A

red blood cells

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103
Q

Diabetes is a disorder of carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism resulting from a

A

lack of insulin availability or a reduction in the biologic effects of insulin.

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104
Q

After digestion, glucose passes into our bloodstream where it is available for body cells to use for growth and

A

Energy

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105
Q

For the glucose to get into the cells, ___ must be present

A

Insulin

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106
Q

Insulin is a hormone produced by the

A

pancreas

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107
Q

When we eat, the pancreas is supposed to automatically produce the right amount of insulin to move the glucose from our blood into our cells. In people with diabetes, however, the pancreas either produces

A

little or no insulin, or the body cells do not respond to the insulin that is produced.

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108
Q

DM: glucose builds up in the blood, and overflows into the

A

Urine

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109
Q

DM: the body loses its main source of fuel even though the blood contains large amount of

A

glucose

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110
Q

Fasting plasma glucose (FGP) test measures plasma glucose levels after food has been withheld for at least

A

8 hours

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111
Q

Normal FGP

A

below 100mg/dL

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112
Q

Normal OGTT

A

below 140mg/dL

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113
Q

An elevated FPG or OGTT is classified as having impaired fasting plasma glucose (IFG) and/ or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) → Persons with these are often referred to as being

A

prediabetic

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114
Q

known as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus or juvenile diabetes

A

Type 1

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115
Q

In diabetes, the immune system attacks the insulin-producing

A

beta cells in the pancreas

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116
Q

One of the actions of insulin is the inhibition of ___ (fat breakdown) and release of free fatty acids from fat cells.

A

Lipolysis

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117
Q

In the absence of insulin, ___ develops when these fatty acids are released from fat cells and converted to ketones by the liver.

A

Ketosis

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118
Q

About 90 to 95 percent of people with diabetes have type __

A

2

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119
Q

form of diabetes usually develops in adults over the age of

A

40 and is most common among adults over age 55

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120
Q

In type 2 diabetes, the pancreas usually produces insulin, but for some reason,

A

the body cannot use the insulin effectively.

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121
Q

The end result of Type 2 is the same as for type 1 diabetes – an unhealthy buildup of

A

glucose in the blood and an inability of the body to make efficient use of it

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122
Q

Metabolic abnormalities involved in type 2 diabetes: Increased ___ production by the liver

A

Glucose

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123
Q

Gestational diabetes usually disappears when after

A

pregnancy

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124
Q

women who have had gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing

A

type 2 diabetes later in their lives

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125
Q

greater risk of developing diabetes

A

African American, Hispanic, or Native American

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126
Q

Type 1 diabetes occurs equally among males and females, but is more common in

A

whites than in nonwhites.

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127
Q

A diet that is too high in sodium and too low in ___ puts you at risk for high blood pressure.

A

Potassium

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128
Q

Potassium is found in bananas,

A

potatoes, beans, and yogurt.

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129
Q

Men should have no more than __ drinks a day.

A

2

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130
Q

Tobacco use: carbon monoxide reduces the amount of

A

oxygen that your blood can carry.

131
Q

Whole blood contains red cells, white cells, and platelets which are __% of total volume

A

45

132
Q

refers to the acute or chronic inflammation of the liver

A

Hepatitis

133
Q

-Hepatitis is caused by (4 things)

A

viruses
Chronic alcoholism
Drug toxicities
Autoimmune disorders

134
Q
  • Symptoms last for about 2 months
  • Fever, nausea, anorexia, malaise, abdominal discomfort, dark urine and JAUNDICE.
  • Children younger that 6 years are asymptomatic
  • Jaundice usually occurs in 70% of cases
  • Does not cause chronic hepatitis
  • Rarely causes acute fulminant hepatitis
A

Hepatitis A

135
Q
Associated with the Delta virus
•	Longer incubation period
•	More serious health problems
•	Worldwide perinatal transmission
•	In the U.S. intravenous drug use and unprotected sex is the main routes of transmission
•	Can cause acute and chronic hepatitis
•	Causes hepatic failure
•	Participates in the development of Hepatitis D
A

Hepatitis B

136
Q
  • Most common cause of chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular cancer in the world.
  • Currently the most common mode of transmission is recreational injection drug use.
  • Other risks include needle stick injuries in the health care settings and birth by an HCV infected mother.
  • Children and adults are usually asymptomatic
  • Nonspecific including fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss.
  • Most serious are progressive liver fibrosis leading to cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer.
A

Hepatitis C

137
Q

Fecal-oral route
Acute hepatitis
Signs and symptoms are similar to Hepatitis A
Fever, nausea, anorexia, malaise, and abdominal discomfort
Does not cause chronic hepatitis
Very high morality rate among pregnant women

A

Hepatitis E

138
Q

Chronic viral hepatitis: defined as a chronic inflammatory reaction of the liver, positive viral serology for more than ___ months.

A

6

139
Q

Chronic viral hepatitis is the main reason for

A

liver transplantation in adults

140
Q

Hepatic insufficiency that progresses from onset of hepatitis symptoms to hepatic encephalopathy within 2 to 3 weeks in patients that do not have chronic liver disease.

A

Acute Fulminant Hepatitis (Hepatic Failure)

141
Q

Leading cause of Acute Fulminant Hepatitis (Hepatic Failure):

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity

142
Q

Intracellular Fluids (ICF):

A

2/3 of body water (40%) of body weight

143
Q

Extracellular Fluids (ECF):

A

1/3 of body water (20%) of body weight

144
Q

Kidney function includes:

A

Helps to maintain RBC levels

145
Q

➢ Kidneys produce urine at about 50 to __ ml per hour

A

60

146
Q

➢ Kidneys produce urine at about ___ ml per day.

A

1500

147
Q

➢ People usually void about __ times per day.

A

8

148
Q

Bladder can store

A

500 ml

149
Q

Urethra sizes in men and women

A

Women: 3 to 4 cm (1.5 in)
Men: Extends about 20 cm (8 in)

150
Q

Pyelonephritis is a renal disease affecting the

A

tubules, instertitium, and pelvis of the kidney.

151
Q

Acute Pyelonephritis: Defined as acute inflammation of the kidney caused by

A

bacterial infection.

152
Q

Uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis: Most commonly occurs in young women without

A

structural or urinary tract obstructions.

153
Q

• Complicated acute pyelonephritis: Occurs in adults and children with

A

structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities or predisposing medical conditions.

154
Q

2 ways bacteria can gain access to the kidneys:

A
  • Ascending infection from the lower urinary tract is the most common.
  • Hematogenous spread from the bloodstream
155
Q

• ADH is synthesized in the

A

Hypothalamus

156
Q

• ADH is stored in the

A

• pituitary gland

157
Q

➢ Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH): Results from a failure of the

A

negative feedback system

158
Q

Bronchial Asthma: Represents an acute and reversible form of airway disease caused by narrowing of the airways due to bronchospasm, inflammation, and increased

A

airway secretions

159
Q

There are two categories of asthma:

A

Extrinsic and intrinsic

160
Q

Extrinsic asthma (Allergic or Atopic) is caused by

A

type I hypersensitivity reaction.

161
Q

Asthma can be triggered by

A

exercise, ingestion of aspirin, emotional upset, cigarette smoke.

162
Q

Atopic Asthma onset is usually during

A

early childhood or adolescence

163
Q

• Late response develops 4 to _ hours after the exposure

A

8

164
Q

Leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide. The fourth leading cause of death in the United States.

A

COPD

165
Q

Most common cause of COPD is

A

Smoking

166
Q

Two types of airway obstructive disease are

A

emphysema and chronic obstructive bronchitis

167
Q

loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, with destruction of the alveolar walls and the capillary beds.

A

emphysema

168
Q

___ emphysema: Affects the bronchioles in the central part of the respiratory lobule, initially preserves the alveolar ducts and sacs. Most commonly seen in make smokers.

A

Centriacinar

169
Q

____ emphysema: Produces initial involvement of the peripheral alveoli and later extends to the more central bronchioles.

A

Panacinar

170
Q

Chronic Bronchitis:

A

Airway obstruction of the major and small airways.

171
Q

Chronic Bronchitis: Most commonly seen in middle aged me and in associated with irritation from

A

smoking

172
Q

Chronic Bronchitis: Associated with ____ of the submucosal glands in the trachea and bronchi.

A

hypertrophy

173
Q

Late stages of COPD:

A

Recurrent respiratory infections

174
Q

Permanent dilation of bronchi caused by destruction of the bronchial tissue wall and elastic supporting tissue.

A

Bronchiectasis

175
Q

Bronchiectasis is commonly associated with

A

TB

176
Q

Major cause of severe chronic respiratory disease in children and young adults. Autosomal recessive genetic disorder manifested by:
• Chronic lung disease
• pancreatic exocrine deficiency
• elevation of sodium chloride in the sweat.

A

Cystic Fibrosis

177
Q

Cystic Fibrosis causes exocrine gland secretions to become exceedingly

A

Viscid

178
Q

promotes colonization of the respiratory tract with P. areuginosa and other organisms such as S. aureus.

A

Cystic Fibrosis

179
Q

Signs and Symptoms: Steatorrhea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain is common

A

Cystic Fibrosis

180
Q

Refers to the presence of air in the pleural space.

A

Pneumothorax

181
Q

Pneumothorax causes partial or complete

A

collapse of the affected lung

182
Q
  • Ipsilateral chest pain
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Dyspnea
  • Assymetry of the chest
  • Breath sounds may be decreased or absent over the affected
A

Pneumothorax symptoms

183
Q

change in cell number

A

Hyperplasia

184
Q

change in cell type (reversible, cells switch jobs)

A

Metaplasia

185
Q

change in cell shape & organization (deranged growth, cancer)

A

Dysplasia

186
Q

autosomal recessive single-gene disorder that causes lung and pancreatic disease

A

Cystic Fibrosis

187
Q

ICF is ___ of the water in our body (which makes it 40% of total body weight)

A

2/3

188
Q

Hyperkalemia & hypocalcemia

A

raise resting potential toward threshold (it takes less of a stimulus for cells to fire)

189
Q

hypokalemia & hypercalcemia

A

decrease resting potential

190
Q

Hodgkin’s Lympoma

A

involves malignant B cells (Reed-Sternberg cells)

191
Q

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

involves B & T cells malignancies (therefore worse prognosis)

192
Q

Leukemia

A

neoplasm arising in bone marrow

193
Q

Lymphocytic leukemia

A

affecting lymphocytes

194
Q

Myelocytic leukemia

A

affecting granulocytes, monocytes, RBC’s, platelets

195
Q

Lymphoma

A

neoplasm arising in lymphoid organs

196
Q

Myeloma

A

malignant tumor of bone marrow

197
Q

abnormal condition esp. imbalance of the constituents of blood

A

Dyscrasia

198
Q

AML more common than

A

ALL

199
Q

ALL – most common in

A

pediatric

200
Q

ALL is associated with having more

A

B cells than T cells

201
Q

CML - associated with

A

Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of chromosomes 9 & 22)

202
Q

CLL- immature

A

lymphocytes are released, unable to ward off infection

203
Q

Kostmans Syndrome

A

congenital neutropenia (low WBC)

204
Q

In each type, overproduction of abnormal cells of that line occur, crowding out the normal cells.

A

Leukemia (blood cancer)

205
Q

Antigen presenting cells eat the invading antigen, break it down into pieces called

A

Epitopes

206
Q

T helpers (CD4) attach to MHC __, start an immune response (activate B cells)

A

2

207
Q

T cytotoxic (CD8) attach to MHC __, kill infected cells

A

1

208
Q

Primary immune response can take __ weeks

A

2-3

209
Q

In secondary immune response B cells respond

A

immediately (booster shots cause 2nd immune response)

210
Q

Passive immunity is much ___ than active because you already have the antibodies

A

Faster

211
Q

Ig – most common; found in blood, lymph, CSF; involved in phagocytosis of pathogens

A

G

212
Q

Ig – first immunoglobulin built during immune response; involved in agglutination

A

M

213
Q

Ig – found in body secretions; involved in neutralization of pathogens

A

A

214
Q

Ig – found on surface of B lymphocytes

A

D

215
Q

Ig__ – involved in allergic reactions, parasitic infections

A

E

216
Q

fibrous scar tissue makes pericardium stick to heart

A

Constrictive pericarditis

217
Q

serous exudate fills the pericardial cavity, restricting heart expansion

A

Pericardial effusion

218
Q

rapid accumulation of exudate compresses the heart

A

Cardiac tamponade

219
Q

friction rub, adhesions

A

Fibrous exudate

220
Q

pain when heart’s oxygen demand increases

A

Stable angina

221
Q

ventricles too stiff to stretch

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

222
Q

ventricles too weak to pump blood

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

223
Q

heart hypertrophies because it must work harder to achieve oxygenation

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

224
Q

LV dysfunction in late pregnancy or postpartum

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy

225
Q

artery wall weakens and stretches into an outpouching; risk of rupture & clot formation

A

Aneurysm

226
Q

crackles, frothy pink sputum

A

Pulmonary edema

227
Q

heart fails to pump blood adequately (MI most common cause)

A

Cardiogenic shock

228
Q

vasodilatory, not enough blood to circulate

A

Distributive shock

229
Q

specialized form of lymphoma that features the presence of an abnormal cell called a Reed- Sternberg cell

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

230
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Occurs in early adulthood (15-40 years old) and in

A

older adulthood (55 years or older)

231
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Characterized by the presence of large, atypical, mononuclear

A

tumor cells called Reed- Sternberg cells

232
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Individuals with a history of infectious

A

mononucleosis

233
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Most patients are present with painless enlargement of

A

a single node or group of nodes

234
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: There may be complaints of

A

chest discomfort with cough or dyspnea

235
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Fatigue and ___ are often present when the disease has spread.

A

Anemia

236
Q

The main difference between Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is in the specific

A

lymphocyte each involves

237
Q

Leukemia that involves immature lymphocytes and their pregenitors that originate in the bone marrow but enter the spleen, lymph nodes, CNS, and other tissues.

A

Lymphocytic

238
Q

Pathway: recognizes complement- fixing antibodies (IgG and IgM) of adaptive immunity bound to the surface of a microbe or another structure

A

Classical

239
Q

Pathway: uses a plasma protein called the mannose- binding ligand (MNL) that binds to mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins or glycolipids

A

Lectin

240
Q

Pathway: recognizes certain microbial molecules in the absence of antibody

A

Alternative

241
Q
  • Most abundant antibody (80%)
  • Readily enters tissues
  • ONLY immunoglobulin that crosses placenta & can transfer immunity from mother to fetus
A

IgG (“googoo”)→

242
Q
  • 1st circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen in a NEWBORN
  • Suggests a current infection in babies because sometimes inflammation & fever cannot be known.
A

IgM

243
Q

a large bone marrow cell responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets), which are necessary for normal blood clotting.

A

Megakaryocyte

244
Q

first Phil to show up

A

Neutrophils

245
Q
  • Highly toxic to parasitic worms

* Involved in allergic reactions & interact with basophils

A

Eosinophils

246
Q

Prominent in allergic reactions

• Release histamine!!

A

Basophils

247
Q

o CLL- tests show an increase in WBC greater than

A

20,000

248
Q

o AML- normally fatal with in

A

o weeks if untreated. More Dangerous

249
Q

o CML- Tests show WBC around

A

o 150,000

250
Q

Kostmanns Syndrome is an inherited autosomal ____ disease

A

recessive

251
Q

Neutrophil less than 500 chronically normally less than 200

A

Kostmanns Syndrome

252
Q

o Fever, nausea, anorexia, ab. Discomfort, dark urine, jaundice
o RNA last 2 months
o Feces, sexual contact, water contamination Eating Food

A

• Hep A

253
Q

o Fecal oral route
o Acute
o High mortality in pregnant women

A

• Hep E

254
Q

o Long incubation period
o DNA
o Blood, bodily fluids, Needles drug users, sex
o Chronic Hepatitis

A

• Hep B

255
Q

o Blood
o Drug users BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS
o Most common cause of Cirrhosis liver cancer
o Chronic Hepatitis

A

• Hep C

256
Q

Caused by Hep B
o Drug users
o Chronic Hepatitis

A

• Hep D

257
Q

How many liters should you urinate per day

A

Less than 2

258
Q

the term “Leukemia” describes a reverse in the ratio of ___ to ___

A

RBCs to WBCs

259
Q

Malignant neoplasms of cells originally derived from precursor myeloid or lymphoid tissue

A

Leukemia

260
Q

Leukemias are classified according to whether they are acute or chronic and according to their predominant cell type (___ or ___)

A

lymphocytic or myelocytic

261
Q

Which kind of leukemia involves immature lymphocytes

A

lymphocytic leukemia

262
Q

Which kind leukemia has an interference with the maturation of all blood cells including granulocytes, erythrocytes, and thrombocytes

A

myelogenous leukemia

263
Q

exposure to ___ increases risk for Leukemia

A

radiation

264
Q

it appears that leukemia results, at least in part, from disruption in the activity of ___ that normally regulate blood cell development

A

genes

265
Q

Acute leukemias are cancers of the hematopoietic ___ cells

A

progenitor cells (immature cells)

266
Q

In contrast to acute leukemias, Chronic leukemias are cancers of more ___ cells

A

mature/developed

267
Q

Acute or Chronic leukemia- depressed bone marrow function

A

Acute

268
Q

AML is mainly a disease of __ adults

A

older adults

269
Q

leukemia that encompasses a group of neoplasms composed of precursor B or precursor T lymphocytes

A

ALL

270
Q

A diverse group of neoplasms affecting myeloid precursor cells in the bone marrow

A

AML

271
Q

leukemia where normal marrow elements are replaced by an accumulation of relatively undifferentiated blast cells

A

AML

272
Q

term for when the circulating blast count is extremely high

A

Leukostasis

273
Q

Diagnosis of what disease requires finding leukemic cells in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, or extramedullary tissue

A

Acute Leukemia

274
Q

Besides chemotherapy, what can be used to treat acute leukemia

A

stem cell or bone marrow transplant

275
Q

Bone marrow transplant is contraindicated for which patients?

A

older than 50 years old

276
Q

CLL and CML are mainly a diseases of what age group

A

older adults

277
Q

A clonal malignancy of B lymphocytes. It’s the most common form of leukemia in adults in the western world

A

CLL

278
Q

disease where the WBC is usually greater than 20,000

A

CLL

279
Q

Sometimes clinicians choose not to treat CLL, but high-risk CLL is treated with

A

combination chemotherapy

280
Q

In younger patients with high-risk ____, destroying bone marrow or non-myeloablative stem cell transplant is an option

A

CLL

281
Q

disease characterized by excessive amount of granulocytes, erythroid precursors, and megakaryocytes

A

CML

282
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which leukemia

A

CML

283
Q

disease treated with allogenic bone marrow transplant, stem cell transplant, or an inhibitor of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase (imatinib mesylate)

A

CML

284
Q

Can result from decreased production of erythrocytes by the bone marrow

A

anemia

285
Q

Deficient amount of iron leads to decreased ___ synthesis

A

hemoglobin

286
Q

Iron in the body is used

A

repeatedly (not always excreted)

287
Q

The most common cause of iron deficiency is

A

blood loss

288
Q

what happens to the heart rate during anemia

A

tachycardia

289
Q

what causes spoon shaped deformity of the finger nails

A

iron deficiency

290
Q

smooth tongue, brittle hair and nails, eating abnormal substances

A

iron deficiency

291
Q

B12 is needed for DNA synthesis, which is needed for __ ___ maturation

A

red cell maturation

292
Q

B12 is needed to prevent ____ breakdown which would lead to neurologic complications

A

myelin

293
Q

An important cause of B12 deficiency is ___ anemia

A

pernicious

294
Q

___ anemia results from autoimmune destruction of gastric mucosa

A

pernicious anemia

295
Q

the hallmark of B12 deficiency is _____ anemia

A

megaloblastic anemia (I think this means increased cell size)

296
Q

When B12 is deficient, red cells are abnormally ___ in size

A

large

297
Q

condition where the RBCs have immature nuclei and the membrane is oval shaped instead of biconcave

A

pernicious anemia

298
Q

pernicious anemia can be reversed by

A

oral dose or injection of B12

299
Q

Anemia is defined as an abnormally low number of ___, or low level of ___, or both

A

RBCs or hemoglobin

300
Q

Anemias caused by premature destruction of RBC

A

hemolytic anemia

301
Q

Anemias that result from ineffective hematopoises (premature death of RBCs in the bone marrow) are associated with inappropriately high levels of

A

iron absorption from the gut

302
Q

Iron deficiency and B12 deficiency both cause deficient number of

A

RBCs

303
Q

Kind of hypertension where the cause is unknown

A

primary hypertension

304
Q

Kind of hypertension where the cause is related to a specific illness

A

secondary hypertension

305
Q

Between primary and secondary, the most common hypertension is

A

primary

306
Q

Family history, race, and age are ___ risk factors in hypertension

A

Constitutional risk factors (part of primary hypertension)

307
Q

primary hypertension is aka

A

essential hypertension

308
Q

An infant’s BP is much ____ than an adult’s

A

lower

309
Q

The goal of treating hypertension for diabetic patients is to reduce BP to

A

less than 130/80

310
Q

the goal of treating hypertension is to reduce BP below

A

140/90

311
Q

Most MIs are caused by

A

CAD (coronary artery disease)

312
Q

MI often involves the rupture of ___ which leads to blockage of an artery

A

plaque

313
Q

If the the sickled cell hasn’t been repeatedly damaged, it can return to its normal shape with _____ in the lungs

A

oxidation

314
Q

The abnormal hemoglobin in sickle cell anemia is called

A

HbS

315
Q

The 2 major consequences of RBC sickling

A

hemolytic anemia and blood vessel occlusion

316
Q

during sickle cell, RBCs are destroyed prematurely (since they’re deformed). This decrease in the number of RBC causes ___ ___

A

hemolytic anemia

317
Q

Lifespan of RBC in sickle cell anemia is __ days

A

20 days

318
Q

In sickle cell, pain and tissue ischemia is caused by blood vessel ____

A

occlusion

319
Q

___ reduces the affinity of hemoglobin of oxygen, increasing sickling

A

acidosis

320
Q

During sickle cell, damage to what organ makes the person vulnerable to infections

A

spleen

321
Q

an inhibitor of DNA synthesis that has been shown to reduce pain crises and prevent complications of sickle cell anemia

A

hydroxyurea

322
Q

Which leukemia is most common among children/adolescents?

A

ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia)

323
Q

Treatment includes giving the patient G-CSF

A

Kostmann syndrome