Patho Final Flashcards
1
Q
INNATE IMMUNITY is ___ and ___ response
A
early and rapid
2
Q
4 cells of innate immunity
A
Phagocytic granulocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
NKCs
3
Q
1st line of defense against viral infection
A
NKCs
4
Q
Dendritic cells
A
antigen-presenting cells
5
Q
Phagocytic granulocytes examples
A
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
6
Q
Substances that elicit adaptive immune responses are called
A
ANTIGENS
7
Q
help B-cells make antibodies & help phagocytic cells destroy ingested pathogens
A
helper T cells
8
Q
kill intracellular microbes
A
Cytotoxic T-cells
9
Q
Vaccinations depend on ___ immunity
A
Humoral
10
Q
Cell-Mediated Immunity involves the use of __ to influence other cells
A
Cytokines
11
Q
Defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses
A
Cell-Mediated Immunity
12
Q
immunity that recognizes abnormal cells from cancers, viruses, infections, and transplanted tissues
A
Cell-Mediated Immunity
13
Q
Innate or adaptive, general protection
A
Innate
14
Q
Innate or adaptive, early phase of host response
A
Innate
15
Q
Innate or adaptive, lag time between exposure and maximal response
A
Adaptive
16
Q
Bones of the skeleton house __% of body’s calcium and __% phosphorus
A
99% of body’s calcium & 85% phosphorus
17
Q
Osteopenia
A
Metabolic bone disease
18
Q
Osteopenia is characterized by a
A
reduction in bone mineral density
19
Q
Osteopenia occurs because of a decrease in ___ ___, inadequate ___ ___, or excessive bone ____
A
decrease in bone formation, inadequate bone mineralization, or excessive bone deossification
20
Q
Osteopenia is not a diagnosis but a term used to describe an apparent loss of __ __ seen on x-ray studies
A
bone density
21
Q
The 5 major causes of osteopenia are:
A
- Osteoporosis
- Osteomalacia
- Malignancies
- Multiple myeloma
- Hyperparathyroidism
22
Q
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease characterized by
A
decreased bone density (i.e., increased porosity)
23
Q
In addition to decreased bone density, Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased
A
strength because the bone matrix and mineralization are decreased.
24
Q
Osteoporosis risk factors
A
50yrs or older Female White or Asian Small bone structure/low body weight Postmenopausal Family history Sedentary Calcium/Vitamin D deficiency High-protein diet Smoking, drinking, caffeine
25
The cause of osteoporosis remains largely unknown, but most data suggest an
imbalance between bone resorption and formation.
26
___ factors play a significant role in the development of osteoporosis, particularly in postmenopausal women.
Hormonal
27
Postmenopausal osteoporosis is caused by an ___ deficiency.
estrogen
28
Postmenopausal osteoporosis: The loss of bone mass is greatest during
early menopause
29
decreased physical ___ that often accompanies aging may also contribute to the loss of bone mass in the elderly.
Activity
30
associated with many conditions, including endocrine disorders, malabsorption disorders, malignancies (multiple myeloma), alcoholism, and certain medications.
Secondary osteoporosis
31
___ use is the most common cause of drug-related osteoporosis
Corticosteroid
32
Several groups of children and adolescents are at particular risk for decreased bone mass, including ___ infants with low birth weight
premature
33
Children with ___ ___ often have impaired GI function that reduces the absorption of calcium and other nutrients, and many also require frequent corticosteroid drugs.
cystic fibrosis
34
Premature osteoporosis is increasingly being seen in female ___ due to increased prevalence of eating disorders and amenorrhea.
athletes
35
The female athlete ___ refers to a pattern of disordered eating that leads to amenorrhea and eventually osteoporosis
triad
36
Osteoporotic changes occur in the diaphysis and __ of bone.
Metaphysis
37
Osteoporosis is usually a silent disorder. Often, the first manifestations of the disorder accompany a skeletal
Fracture
38
Hip fractures occur mainly in persons over the age of
65
39
An important advance in diagnostic methods used for the identification of osteoporosis has been the use of ___ assessment
BMD assessment.
40
The clinical method of choice for BMD studies is dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) of the
spine and hip.
41
Measurement of serial ___ in older adults is another simple way to screen for osteoporosis.
Heights
42
Studies have indicated that premenopausal women need more than 1000mg/day of calcium, and postmenopausal women need at least ____ of calcium daily.
1200mg
43
A daily intake of ___ IU of vitamin D is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older.
800-1000
44
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic ___ systemic disease
autoimmune
45
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune systemic disease that affects all ethnic groups throughout the worlds, with
women being affected more frequently than men.
46
Rheumatoid arthritis: The onset of the disease can occur at any age, but its peak incidence is between
50 & 75 years of age.
47
Rheumatoid arthritis: Evidence points to a ___ predisposition and the development of joint inflammation that is immunologically mediated.
genetic
48
It has been suggested that the disease is initiated in a genetically predisposed individual by the activation of a ___-cell mediated response to an immunological trigger, such as a microbial agent.
T-cell-mediated
49
____ is a strong risk factor for the development of RA and may also influence the severity of the disease.
smoking
50
The pathogenesis of RA can be viewed as an aberrant immune response that leads to ____ inflammation and ____ of the joint architecture.
Synovial, destruction
51
RA has an insidious onset marked by systemic manifestations such as
fatigue, weakness, and generalized aching and stiffness.
52
The person may complain of joint pain and stiffness that lasts for 30 minutes and frequently for several hours.
RA
53
RA: The limitation of joint motion that occurs early in the disease is because of pain; later, it is because of
Fibrosis
54
In early disease, the wrists, metacarpophalangeal joints, proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers, the thumbs, and hands are most commonly affected.
RA
55
RA: A ___ cyst may develop in the popliteal area behind the knee.
Baker
56
RA frequently has constitutional symptoms such as
fatigue, weakness, anorexia, and weight loss that are due to systemic inflammation.
57
Osteoarthritis aka
degenerative joint disease
58
Osteoarthritis most ___ type of joint disease
Prevalent
59
Osteoarthritis is characterized by degenerative changes of the ___ cartilage
articular
60
OA appears ____, without any apparent initiating cause, as an aging phenomenon.
Insidiously
61
Joint changes associated with OA include a gradual loss of articular cartilage, combined with ____ of bones.
thickening
62
OA is a multifactorial disease that has genetic and environmental risk factors.
* Age (strongest factor)
* Gender (Women)
* Race (Hand-White women) (Knees- Black women)
* Obesity
* Wear-and-tear arthritis
63
Wear-and-tear arthritis
OA
64
OA has audible
Crepitus
65
RBCs are derived from precursor cells called
Proerythroblasts
66
Most maturing RBCs enter blood as
Reticulocytes
67
__ to __ % of oxygen is bound to RBCs
95%-98%
68
Lack of iron= lack of ___ in RBC
Hemoglobin
69
__% iron is in hemoglobin
65%
70
When red blood cells age and are destroyed in the spleen, the iron from their hemoglobin is released into circulation & returned to the
bone marrow for incorporation into new RBCs or to the liver and other tissues for storage.
71
After 20yrs old, RBC production takes place in:
vertebrae, sternum, ribs, and pelvis
72
Maturation from reticulocyte to erythrocyte takes
24-48 hours
73
During maturation, RBC loses its
mitochondria, ribosomes, and ability to produce hemoglobin
74
Decreased O2 content is sensed by the ___, which in turn produce the hormone erythropoietin to produce more RBCs
KIDNEYS
75
Mature RBCs have a life span of
120 days
76
Mature RBCs do NOT have a nucleus, mitochondria, or endoplasmic reticulum, but do have cytoplasmic enzymes that metabolize
glucose and form ATP
77
Rate of RBC destruction=
rate of RBC production
78
When red blood cell destruction takes place in the circulation, as in hemolytic anemia, the hemoglobin remains in the plasma where it binds to a hemoglobin- binding protein called
haptoglobin
79
Anemia usually results from excessive loss (bleeding) or destruction (hemolysis) of RBC or
deficient RBC production due to lack of nutritional elements (iron) or bone marrow failure.
80
Anemias caused by premature destruction of the RBCs
hemolytic anemia
81
anemia associated with hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice, and gallstones.
hemolytic anemia
82
Chronic blood loss does not affect blood volume, but instead leads to
IRON-DEFIECNCIEY ANEMIA
83
Without adequate ___, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin for red blood cells.
Iron
84
The result is iron-deficiency anemia. This type of anemia can be caused by: An iron-poor diet, especially in infants, children, teens,
vegans, and vegetarians
85
Iron balance is maintained by absorption of 0.5-1.5 mg daily to replace __mg lost in feces.
1mg
86
Persons are commonly asymptomatic until the hemoglobin level is less than __g/dL
8 g/dL
87
Iron can be derived from meat and is absorbed in the small intestine, especially the
duodenum
88
Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of RBCs, the retention of Iron and the other products of hemoglobin destruction, and the compensatory increase in
erythropoiesis
89
Extravascular hemolysis produces jaundice and
Gallstones
90
Intravascular hemolysis occurs as a result of
mechanical injury.
91
Sickle cell anemia: RBCs break down ___, so oxygen does not get to the body's organs, causing anemia.
rapidly
92
The crescent-shaped red blood cells can also get stuck in tiny blood vessels, causing
pain
93
Sickle cell disease is an inherited disorder in which abnormal hemoglobin leads to chronic hemolytic anemia, pain, and
organ failure
94
Most infants with sickle cell disease do not begin to experience the effects until
8-10 wks of age.
95
2 most common probs of sickle cell disease:
Vasocclusive pain crisis
Acute chest syndrome (Pulmonary infarction)
96
an inhibitor of DNA synthesis, has been shown to reduce pain crisis and prevent the complications of sickle cell disease.
Hydroxyurea
97
May occur when vitamin B12 ( aka cobalamin) and folate are deficient.
Vitamin-deficiency anemia
98
These two vitamins are needed to make red blood cells.
vitamin B12 ( aka cobalamin) and folate
99
Megaloblastic (enlarged RBCs) anemia : Vitamin B12 or folate or both are
deficient
100
Dietary deficiency: Eating little or no meat, cereals and fruits may cause a lack of
vitamin B12
101
overcooking or eating too few vegetables may cause a
folate deficiency.
102
Lead exposure is toxic to the bone marrow, leading to fewer
red blood cells
103
Diabetes is a disorder of carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism resulting from a
lack of insulin availability or a reduction in the biologic effects of insulin.
104
After digestion, glucose passes into our bloodstream where it is available for body cells to use for growth and
Energy
105
For the glucose to get into the cells, ___ must be present
Insulin
106
Insulin is a hormone produced by the
pancreas
107
When we eat, the pancreas is supposed to automatically produce the right amount of insulin to move the glucose from our blood into our cells. In people with diabetes, however, the pancreas either produces
little or no insulin, or the body cells do not respond to the insulin that is produced.
108
DM: glucose builds up in the blood, and overflows into the
Urine
109
DM: the body loses its main source of fuel even though the blood contains large amount of
glucose
110
Fasting plasma glucose (FGP) test measures plasma glucose levels after food has been withheld for at least
8 hours
111
Normal FGP
below 100mg/dL
112
Normal OGTT
below 140mg/dL
113
An elevated FPG or OGTT is classified as having impaired fasting plasma glucose (IFG) and/ or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) → Persons with these are often referred to as being
prediabetic
114
known as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus or juvenile diabetes
Type 1
115
In diabetes, the immune system attacks the insulin-producing
beta cells in the pancreas
116
One of the actions of insulin is the inhibition of ___ (fat breakdown) and release of free fatty acids from fat cells.
Lipolysis
117
In the absence of insulin, ___ develops when these fatty acids are released from fat cells and converted to ketones by the liver.
Ketosis
118
About 90 to 95 percent of people with diabetes have type __
2
119
form of diabetes usually develops in adults over the age of
40 and is most common among adults over age 55
120
In type 2 diabetes, the pancreas usually produces insulin, but for some reason,
the body cannot use the insulin effectively.
121
The end result of Type 2 is the same as for type 1 diabetes -- an unhealthy buildup of
glucose in the blood and an inability of the body to make efficient use of it
122
Metabolic abnormalities involved in type 2 diabetes: Increased ___ production by the liver
Glucose
123
Gestational diabetes usually disappears when after
pregnancy
124
women who have had gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing
type 2 diabetes later in their lives
125
greater risk of developing diabetes
African American, Hispanic, or Native American
126
Type 1 diabetes occurs equally among males and females, but is more common in
whites than in nonwhites.
127
A diet that is too high in sodium and too low in ___ puts you at risk for high blood pressure.
Potassium
128
Potassium is found in bananas,
potatoes, beans, and yogurt.
129
Men should have no more than __ drinks a day.
2
130
Tobacco use: carbon monoxide reduces the amount of
oxygen that your blood can carry.
131
Whole blood contains red cells, white cells, and platelets which are __% of total volume
45
132
refers to the acute or chronic inflammation of the liver
Hepatitis
133
-Hepatitis is caused by (4 things)
viruses
Chronic alcoholism
Drug toxicities
Autoimmune disorders
134
* Symptoms last for about 2 months
* Fever, nausea, anorexia, malaise, abdominal discomfort, dark urine and JAUNDICE.
* Children younger that 6 years are asymptomatic
* Jaundice usually occurs in 70% of cases
* Does not cause chronic hepatitis
* Rarely causes acute fulminant hepatitis
Hepatitis A
135
```
Associated with the Delta virus
• Longer incubation period
• More serious health problems
• Worldwide perinatal transmission
• In the U.S. intravenous drug use and unprotected sex is the main routes of transmission
• Can cause acute and chronic hepatitis
• Causes hepatic failure
• Participates in the development of Hepatitis D
```
Hepatitis B
136
* Most common cause of chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular cancer in the world.
* Currently the most common mode of transmission is recreational injection drug use.
* Other risks include needle stick injuries in the health care settings and birth by an HCV infected mother.
* Children and adults are usually asymptomatic
* Nonspecific including fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss.
* Most serious are progressive liver fibrosis leading to cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer.
Hepatitis C
137
Fecal-oral route
Acute hepatitis
Signs and symptoms are similar to Hepatitis A
Fever, nausea, anorexia, malaise, and abdominal discomfort
Does not cause chronic hepatitis
Very high morality rate among pregnant women
Hepatitis E
138
Chronic viral hepatitis: defined as a chronic inflammatory reaction of the liver, positive viral serology for more than ___ months.
6
139
Chronic viral hepatitis is the main reason for
liver transplantation in adults
140
Hepatic insufficiency that progresses from onset of hepatitis symptoms to hepatic encephalopathy within 2 to 3 weeks in patients that do not have chronic liver disease.
Acute Fulminant Hepatitis (Hepatic Failure)
141
Leading cause of Acute Fulminant Hepatitis (Hepatic Failure):
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity
142
Intracellular Fluids (ICF):
2/3 of body water (40%) of body weight
143
Extracellular Fluids (ECF):
1/3 of body water (20%) of body weight
144
Kidney function includes:
Helps to maintain RBC levels
145
➢ Kidneys produce urine at about 50 to __ ml per hour
60
146
➢ Kidneys produce urine at about ___ ml per day.
1500
147
➢ People usually void about __ times per day.
8
148
Bladder can store
500 ml
149
Urethra sizes in men and women
Women: 3 to 4 cm (1.5 in)
Men: Extends about 20 cm (8 in)
150
Pyelonephritis is a renal disease affecting the
tubules, instertitium, and pelvis of the kidney.
151
Acute Pyelonephritis: Defined as acute inflammation of the kidney caused by
bacterial infection.
152
Uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis: Most commonly occurs in young women without
structural or urinary tract obstructions.
153
• Complicated acute pyelonephritis: Occurs in adults and children with
structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities or predisposing medical conditions.
154
2 ways bacteria can gain access to the kidneys:
* Ascending infection from the lower urinary tract is the most common.
* Hematogenous spread from the bloodstream
155
• ADH is synthesized in the
Hypothalamus
156
• ADH is stored in the
• pituitary gland
157
➢ Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH): Results from a failure of the
negative feedback system
158
Bronchial Asthma: Represents an acute and reversible form of airway disease caused by narrowing of the airways due to bronchospasm, inflammation, and increased
airway secretions
159
There are two categories of asthma:
Extrinsic and intrinsic
160
Extrinsic asthma (Allergic or Atopic) is caused by
type I hypersensitivity reaction.
161
Asthma can be triggered by
exercise, ingestion of aspirin, emotional upset, cigarette smoke.
162
Atopic Asthma onset is usually during
early childhood or adolescence
163
• Late response develops 4 to _ hours after the exposure
8
164
Leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide. The fourth leading cause of death in the United States.
COPD
165
Most common cause of COPD is
Smoking
166
Two types of airway obstructive disease are
emphysema and chronic obstructive bronchitis
167
loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, with destruction of the alveolar walls and the capillary beds.
emphysema
168
___ emphysema: Affects the bronchioles in the central part of the respiratory lobule, initially preserves the alveolar ducts and sacs. Most commonly seen in make smokers.
Centriacinar
169
____ emphysema: Produces initial involvement of the peripheral alveoli and later extends to the more central bronchioles.
Panacinar
170
Chronic Bronchitis:
Airway obstruction of the major and small airways.
171
Chronic Bronchitis: Most commonly seen in middle aged me and in associated with irritation from
smoking
172
Chronic Bronchitis: Associated with ____ of the submucosal glands in the trachea and bronchi.
hypertrophy
173
Late stages of COPD:
Recurrent respiratory infections
174
Permanent dilation of bronchi caused by destruction of the bronchial tissue wall and elastic supporting tissue.
Bronchiectasis
175
Bronchiectasis is commonly associated with
TB
176
Major cause of severe chronic respiratory disease in children and young adults. Autosomal recessive genetic disorder manifested by:
• Chronic lung disease
• pancreatic exocrine deficiency
• elevation of sodium chloride in the sweat.
Cystic Fibrosis
177
Cystic Fibrosis causes exocrine gland secretions to become exceedingly
Viscid
178
promotes colonization of the respiratory tract with P. areuginosa and other organisms such as S. aureus.
Cystic Fibrosis
179
Signs and Symptoms: Steatorrhea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain is common
Cystic Fibrosis
180
Refers to the presence of air in the pleural space.
Pneumothorax
181
Pneumothorax causes partial or complete
collapse of the affected lung
182
* Ipsilateral chest pain
* Increased respiratory rate
* Dyspnea
* Assymetry of the chest
* Breath sounds may be decreased or absent over the affected
Pneumothorax symptoms
183
change in cell number
Hyperplasia
184
change in cell type (reversible, cells switch jobs)
Metaplasia
185
change in cell shape & organization (deranged growth, cancer)
Dysplasia
186
autosomal recessive single-gene disorder that causes lung and pancreatic disease
Cystic Fibrosis
187
ICF is ___ of the water in our body (which makes it 40% of total body weight)
2/3
188
Hyperkalemia & hypocalcemia
raise resting potential toward threshold (it takes less of a stimulus for cells to fire)
189
hypokalemia & hypercalcemia
decrease resting potential
190
Hodgkin’s Lympoma
involves malignant B cells (Reed-Sternberg cells)
191
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
involves B & T cells malignancies (therefore worse prognosis)
192
Leukemia
neoplasm arising in bone marrow
193
Lymphocytic leukemia
affecting lymphocytes
194
Myelocytic leukemia
affecting granulocytes, monocytes, RBC’s, platelets
195
Lymphoma
neoplasm arising in lymphoid organs
196
Myeloma
malignant tumor of bone marrow
197
abnormal condition esp. imbalance of the constituents of blood
Dyscrasia
198
AML more common than
ALL
199
ALL – most common in
pediatric
200
ALL is associated with having more
B cells than T cells
201
CML - associated with
Philadelphia chromosome (translocation of chromosomes 9 & 22)
202
CLL- immature
lymphocytes are released, unable to ward off infection
203
Kostmans Syndrome
congenital neutropenia (low WBC)
204
In each type, overproduction of abnormal cells of that line occur, crowding out the normal cells.
Leukemia (blood cancer)
205
Antigen presenting cells eat the invading antigen, break it down into pieces called
Epitopes
206
T helpers (CD4) attach to MHC __, start an immune response (activate B cells)
2
207
T cytotoxic (CD8) attach to MHC __, kill infected cells
1
208
Primary immune response can take __ weeks
2-3
209
In secondary immune response B cells respond
immediately (booster shots cause 2nd immune response)
210
Passive immunity is much ___ than active because you already have the antibodies
Faster
211
Ig – most common; found in blood, lymph, CSF; involved in phagocytosis of pathogens
G
212
Ig – first immunoglobulin built during immune response; involved in agglutination
M
213
Ig – found in body secretions; involved in neutralization of pathogens
A
214
Ig – found on surface of B lymphocytes
D
215
Ig__ – involved in allergic reactions, parasitic infections
E
216
fibrous scar tissue makes pericardium stick to heart
Constrictive pericarditis
217
serous exudate fills the pericardial cavity, restricting heart expansion
Pericardial effusion
218
rapid accumulation of exudate compresses the heart
Cardiac tamponade
219
friction rub, adhesions
Fibrous exudate
220
pain when heart’s oxygen demand increases
Stable angina
221
ventricles too stiff to stretch
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
222
ventricles too weak to pump blood
Dilated cardiomyopathy
223
heart hypertrophies because it must work harder to achieve oxygenation
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
224
LV dysfunction in late pregnancy or postpartum
Peripartum cardiomyopathy
225
artery wall weakens and stretches into an outpouching; risk of rupture & clot formation
Aneurysm
226
crackles, frothy pink sputum
Pulmonary edema
227
heart fails to pump blood adequately (MI most common cause)
Cardiogenic shock
228
vasodilatory, not enough blood to circulate
Distributive shock
229
specialized form of lymphoma that features the presence of an abnormal cell called a Reed- Sternberg cell
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
230
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Occurs in early adulthood (15-40 years old) and in
older adulthood (55 years or older)
231
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Characterized by the presence of large, atypical, mononuclear
tumor cells called Reed- Sternberg cells
232
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Individuals with a history of infectious
mononucleosis
233
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Most patients are present with painless enlargement of
a single node or group of nodes
234
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: There may be complaints of
chest discomfort with cough or dyspnea
235
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Fatigue and ___ are often present when the disease has spread.
Anemia
236
The main difference between Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is in the specific
lymphocyte each involves
237
Leukemia that involves immature lymphocytes and their pregenitors that originate in the bone marrow but enter the spleen, lymph nodes, CNS, and other tissues.
Lymphocytic
238
Pathway: recognizes complement- fixing antibodies (IgG and IgM) of adaptive immunity bound to the surface of a microbe or another structure
Classical
239
Pathway: uses a plasma protein called the mannose- binding ligand (MNL) that binds to mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins or glycolipids
Lectin
240
Pathway: recognizes certain microbial molecules in the absence of antibody
Alternative
241
* Most abundant antibody (80%)
* Readily enters tissues
* ONLY immunoglobulin that crosses placenta & can transfer immunity from mother to fetus
IgG (“googoo”)→
242
* 1st circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen in a NEWBORN
* Suggests a current infection in babies because sometimes inflammation & fever cannot be known.
IgM
243
a large bone marrow cell responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets), which are necessary for normal blood clotting.
Megakaryocyte
244
first Phil to show up
Neutrophils
245
* Highly toxic to parasitic worms
| * Involved in allergic reactions & interact with basophils
Eosinophils
246
Prominent in allergic reactions
| • Release histamine!!
Basophils
247
o CLL- tests show an increase in WBC greater than
20,000
248
o AML- normally fatal with in
o weeks if untreated. More Dangerous
249
o CML- Tests show WBC around
o 150,000
250
Kostmanns Syndrome is an inherited autosomal ____ disease
recessive
251
Neutrophil less than 500 chronically normally less than 200
Kostmanns Syndrome
252
o Fever, nausea, anorexia, ab. Discomfort, dark urine, jaundice
o RNA last 2 months
o Feces, sexual contact, water contamination Eating Food
• Hep A
253
o Fecal oral route
o Acute
o High mortality in pregnant women
• Hep E
254
o Long incubation period
o DNA
o Blood, bodily fluids, Needles drug users, sex
o Chronic Hepatitis
• Hep B
255
o Blood
o Drug users BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS
o Most common cause of Cirrhosis liver cancer
o Chronic Hepatitis
• Hep C
256
Caused by Hep B
o Drug users
o Chronic Hepatitis
• Hep D
257
How many liters should you urinate per day
Less than 2
258
the term "Leukemia" describes a reverse in the ratio of ___ to ___
RBCs to WBCs
259
Malignant neoplasms of cells originally derived from precursor myeloid or lymphoid tissue
Leukemia
260
Leukemias are classified according to whether they are acute or chronic and according to their predominant cell type (___ or ___)
lymphocytic or myelocytic
261
Which kind of leukemia involves immature lymphocytes
lymphocytic leukemia
262
Which kind leukemia has an interference with the maturation of all blood cells including granulocytes, erythrocytes, and thrombocytes
myelogenous leukemia
263
exposure to ___ increases risk for Leukemia
radiation
264
it appears that leukemia results, at least in part, from disruption in the activity of ___ that normally regulate blood cell development
genes
265
Acute leukemias are cancers of the hematopoietic ___ cells
progenitor cells (immature cells)
266
In contrast to acute leukemias, Chronic leukemias are cancers of more ___ cells
mature/developed
267
Acute or Chronic leukemia- depressed bone marrow function
Acute
268
AML is mainly a disease of __ adults
older adults
269
leukemia that encompasses a group of neoplasms composed of precursor B or precursor T lymphocytes
ALL
270
A diverse group of neoplasms affecting myeloid precursor cells in the bone marrow
AML
271
leukemia where normal marrow elements are replaced by an accumulation of relatively undifferentiated blast cells
AML
272
term for when the circulating blast count is extremely high
Leukostasis
273
Diagnosis of what disease requires finding leukemic cells in the peripheral blood, bone marrow, or extramedullary tissue
Acute Leukemia
274
Besides chemotherapy, what can be used to treat acute leukemia
stem cell or bone marrow transplant
275
Bone marrow transplant is contraindicated for which patients?
older than 50 years old
276
CLL and CML are mainly a diseases of what age group
older adults
277
A clonal malignancy of B lymphocytes. It's the most common form of leukemia in adults in the western world
CLL
278
disease where the WBC is usually greater than 20,000
CLL
279
Sometimes clinicians choose not to treat CLL, but high-risk CLL is treated with
combination chemotherapy
280
In younger patients with high-risk ____, destroying bone marrow or non-myeloablative stem cell transplant is an option
CLL
281
disease characterized by excessive amount of granulocytes, erythroid precursors, and megakaryocytes
CML
282
The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which leukemia
CML
283
disease treated with allogenic bone marrow transplant, stem cell transplant, or an inhibitor of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase (imatinib mesylate)
CML
284
Can result from decreased production of erythrocytes by the bone marrow
anemia
285
Deficient amount of iron leads to decreased ___ synthesis
hemoglobin
286
Iron in the body is used
repeatedly (not always excreted)
287
The most common cause of iron deficiency is
blood loss
288
what happens to the heart rate during anemia
tachycardia
289
what causes spoon shaped deformity of the finger nails
iron deficiency
290
smooth tongue, brittle hair and nails, eating abnormal substances
iron deficiency
291
B12 is needed for DNA synthesis, which is needed for __ ___ maturation
red cell maturation
292
B12 is needed to prevent ____ breakdown which would lead to neurologic complications
myelin
293
An important cause of B12 deficiency is ___ anemia
pernicious
294
___ anemia results from autoimmune destruction of gastric mucosa
pernicious anemia
295
the hallmark of B12 deficiency is _____ anemia
megaloblastic anemia (I think this means increased cell size)
296
When B12 is deficient, red cells are abnormally ___ in size
large
297
condition where the RBCs have immature nuclei and the membrane is oval shaped instead of biconcave
pernicious anemia
298
pernicious anemia can be reversed by
oral dose or injection of B12
299
Anemia is defined as an abnormally low number of ___, or low level of ___, or both
RBCs or hemoglobin
300
Anemias caused by premature destruction of RBC
hemolytic anemia
301
Anemias that result from ineffective hematopoises (premature death of RBCs in the bone marrow) are associated with inappropriately high levels of
iron absorption from the gut
302
Iron deficiency and B12 deficiency both cause deficient number of
RBCs
303
Kind of hypertension where the cause is unknown
primary hypertension
304
Kind of hypertension where the cause is related to a specific illness
secondary hypertension
305
Between primary and secondary, the most common hypertension is
primary
306
Family history, race, and age are ___ risk factors in hypertension
Constitutional risk factors (part of primary hypertension)
307
primary hypertension is aka
essential hypertension
308
An infant's BP is much ____ than an adult's
lower
309
The goal of treating hypertension for diabetic patients is to reduce BP to
less than 130/80
310
the goal of treating hypertension is to reduce BP below
140/90
311
Most MIs are caused by
CAD (coronary artery disease)
312
MI often involves the rupture of ___ which leads to blockage of an artery
plaque
313
If the the sickled cell hasn't been repeatedly damaged, it can return to its normal shape with _____ in the lungs
oxidation
314
The abnormal hemoglobin in sickle cell anemia is called
HbS
315
The 2 major consequences of RBC sickling
hemolytic anemia and blood vessel occlusion
316
during sickle cell, RBCs are destroyed prematurely (since they're deformed). This decrease in the number of RBC causes ___ ___
hemolytic anemia
317
Lifespan of RBC in sickle cell anemia is __ days
20 days
318
In sickle cell, pain and tissue ischemia is caused by blood vessel ____
occlusion
319
___ reduces the affinity of hemoglobin of oxygen, increasing sickling
acidosis
320
During sickle cell, damage to what organ makes the person vulnerable to infections
spleen
321
an inhibitor of DNA synthesis that has been shown to reduce pain crises and prevent complications of sickle cell anemia
hydroxyurea
322
Which leukemia is most common among children/adolescents?
ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia)
323
Treatment includes giving the patient G-CSF
Kostmann syndrome
