301 Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In cardiac assessment always look for __ and __ problems

A

oxygenation and perfusion problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

tricuspid

Mitral (bicuspid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Semilunar valvues

A

pulmonic

aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First heart sound (s1)

A

closing of the AV valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Second heart sound (s2)

A

closing of semi lunar valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

produces a rhythm classically compared to the cadence of the word “Kentucky”

A

3rd heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

third heart sound

A

rare extra heart sound that occurs soon after the normal two “lub-dub” heart sounds (S1 and S2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S3 is associated with

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in cardiac assessment diaphoresis, pallor, palpitations, dyspnea, nausea, tachycardia, or fatigue should be considered to be equivalent to

A

angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many pillows do you use when sleeping or lying down?

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

S1 is louder than S2 at the

A

apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

S1 coincides with

A

carotid artery pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S1 coincides with _ wave on electrocardiogram

A

R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

second intercostal space (patient’s right of sternum)

A

aortic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

second intercostal space (patient’s left of sternum)

A

pulmonic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

third intercostal space (patient’s left of sternum)

A

erb’s point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fifth intercostal space (patient’s left of sternum)

A

tricuspid area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular

A

mitral area (apex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Peripheral VascularSubjective Data—Health History Questions

A
Leg pain or cramps
Skin changes on arm or legs
Swelling
Lymph node enlargement
Medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

test where you block the radial and ulnar arteries. When you release the ulnar, perfusion (color) should return to the hand within 7 seconds

A

allen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

positive allen test is when

A

ulnar circulation does NOT return in 7 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ankle systolic pressure divided by arm systolic pressure

A

ABI (Ankle-brachial index)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Normal ABI (Ankle-brachial index)

A

1.06 or 106%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ABI (Ankle-brachial index) is less reliable in patients with

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
condition in which cramping pain in the leg is induced by exercise, typically caused by obstruction of the arteries
claudication
26
ABI for ischemia, with impending loss of tissue
less than 30%
27
Weak, “thready” pulse rating
+1
28
Full, bounding pulse rating
+3
29
two heartbeats close together followed by a longer pause. The second pulse is weaker than the first
Pulsus bigeminus
30
It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis
Pulsus alternans
31
Pulsus alternans
peripheral pulses vary in intensity
32
A condition in which some areas of the body feel numb and cool in certain circumstances.
Raynaud’s syndrome
33
Swelling in an arm or leg caused by a lymphatic system blockage
Lymphedema
34
A vibration accompanying a cardiac or vascular murmur that can be palpated
thrill
35
Intracellular Fluids are what percent of total body weight
42%
36
Intracellular Fluids are what fraction of total body water
2/3
37
Extracellular Fluid includes 3 areas
Interstitial, intravascular, and transcellular
38
___ fluid is separated from other fluids by a cellular barrier and consists of cerebrospinal, pleural, gastrointestinal, intraocular, peritoneal, and synovial fluids. Loss of these fluids can produce fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
Transcellular
39
Interstitial fluids are the fluids between the cells and outside the blood vessels. These contain
lymphs
40
are triggered if hypovolemia (decreased BP due to dec CO, hemorrhage, dehydration), trigger thirst, and RAA
Baroreceptors
41
also triggered w decreased perfusion to the kidney
RAA
42
Produced in response to atrial stretch from FVE and cause as a diuretic that causes NA loss and inhibition of thirst
Atrial natriuretic Peptide
43
Insensible water loss is from the ___ and lungs
skin and lungs
44
Insensible water loss increases w temperature and increased RR. Also increases w
burns
45
The body’s thirst control center is in the
hypothalamus
46
normal sodium level
135-145
47
normal calcium level
8.5-10.5
48
normal potassium level
3.5-5
49
normal magnesium level
1.5-2.5
50
electrolyte responsible for serum osmolality, nerve conduction, regulation of acid-base
sodium
51
electrolyte responsible for glycogen deposits in liver and skeletal muscle, transmission, nerve conduction, normal cardiac function, muscle contraction
potassium
52
electrolyte needed for hormone secretion
calcium
53
electrolyte needed for enzyme activity
magnesium
54
normal chloride level
95 to 105
55
normal bicarbonate level
22 to 26
56
normal phosphorus level
2.8 to 4.5
57
H2CO3
Carbonic acid
58
PaCO2:
35 to 45 mm Hg
59
PaO2: should be higher than
60 mm Hg, normal 80 to 100 mm Hg
60
Extreme thirst, dry flushed skin, postural hypotension, fever, dizziness, agitation, seizures, restlessness
hypernatremia
61
apprehension, postural hypotension, abdominal cramping, n/v/d, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, seizures, coma
hyponatremia
62
Weakness, fatigue, muscle weakness, n/v, intestinal distention, dec BS, decreased deep tendon reflexes, ventricular dysrhythmias, paresthesias, weak irregular pulse
hypokalemia
63
Anxiety, weakness and dizziness, muscle cramps, N/V, diarrhea, intestinal colic, ECG changes, cardiac arrest
Hyperkalemia
64
Anorexia, n/x, weakness, dec peristalsis, illeus, renal calculi, decreased level of consciousness, personality changes, cardiac arrest
Hypercalcemia
65
Hypocalcemia Nuero-musc
Tetny, Chevstek’s & Trousseau’s sign, hyperactive DTR, numbness/tingling, larnygospasm
66
Hypercalcemia Nuero-musc
Muscle weakness, increased fatigue, decreased DTR
67
Hypocalcemia GI
Hyperactive BS, cramps
68
Hypercalcemia GI
Hypoactive BS, N/V, constipation, anorexia
69
Hypocalcemia CNS
Irritability, depression, apprehension, confusion, convulsions, anxiety
70
Hypercalcemia CNS
Headache, personality changes, confusion, lethargy, memory impairment, coma, bizarre behavior
71
Hypocalcemia CV
Hypotension, prolonged qt, dec myocardial contractility
72
Hypercalcemia CV
Hypertension, heart block, short QT, cardiac arrest
73
Hypocalcemia renal
Oliguria, anuria
74
Hypercalcemia renal
Polyuria, polydipsia, renal colic-calculi
75
Hypocalcemia Heme
Increased bleeding & bruising
76
Hypocalcemia skin
Dry brittle nails, hair
77
`urine specific gravity results will fall between
1.002 and 1.030
78
The most commonly used ___ fluid is normal saline, a solution of sodium chloride at 0.9% concentration, which is close to the concentration in the blood (isotonic)
crystalloid
79
Peripherally inserted catheters are for
short therapy, such as fluid restoration postoperatively and antibiotic use
80
Long-term use would include
central lines, PICC catheter, or implanted ports
81
what do you escalate immediately in an abdominal assessment
Marked pulsations and widened pulse pressure: (HTN, aortic insufficiency, aortic aneurysm)
82
Auscultate the abdomin: begin in the
RLQ
83
Normal BS frequency
5-30 times per minute
84
Normal result of abdominal percussion
tympany
85
May be a sign of early bowel obstruction, gastroenteritis
Hyperactive BS
86
may be expected following abdominal surgery for a short time
hypoactive BS
87
may be a sign of inflammation, impending bowel obstruction
hypoactive BS
88
the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling
ascites
89
Splenic dullness: 9th to __th intercostal
11th
90
an opening in the belly (abdominal wall) that's made during surgery. The end of the ileum is brought through this opening to form a stoma
Ileostomy
91
a surgical procedure in which an opening (stoma) is formed by drawing the healthy end of the large intestine or colon through an incision in the anterior abdominal wall and suturing it into place
Colostomy
92
Not recommended for acute diarrhea
Antidiarrheal medications
93
Lomotil, immodium
Antidiarrheal medications
94
can be used for constipation when lifestyle changes are ineffective
Laxatives
95
the best treatment of fecal impaction is
prevention
96
presence of fecal impaction is determined by
digital examination
97
Oil retention enemas are to
soften
98
Tap water or Fleet enemas are to
remove and cleanse
99
Establishing a Bowel Training Program may include
stool softener
100
nitrogen comes from
proteins
101
Negative nitrogen balance:
sepsis, infection, burns, fever, starvation, draining wounds
102
BMR increases with
illness
103
Main source of energy
carbs
104
The body breaks down proteins when there are insufficient carbs to use for energy--- leads to
ketosis and metabolic acidosis.
105
the secret to long-term health reducing your risk of heart disease and diabetes and is the key to sustainable weight loss
Choosing low GI (glycemic index) carbs
106
the carbs that produce only small fluctuations in our blood glucose and insulin levels
low GI (glycemic index) carbs
107
nutrient essential for growth and repair
protein
108
complete or incomplete proteins, cereals, legumes, vegetables
incomplete
109
complete or incomplete proteins, fish, chicken, soybeans, turkey, cheese
complete
110
Water % of body weight is less in ___ people
obese
111
Water % of body weight is more in
infants
112
Antioxidants:
beta-carotene, A,C,E
113
water soluble vitamins
B and C
114
Digestion starts in mouth:
amylase
115
Gastric:
lipase, amylase, pepsinogen, gastrin promotes HCL (protein)
116
Duodenum:
secretin and cholecystekinin (CCK)
117
inhibits further gastrin secretion and promotes pancreas and GB to secrete enzymes
CCK
118
Elderly have slower
peristalsis
119
Colon: bacteria synthesize vitamins
K and B
120
Benefits of breast feeding include
reduced food allergies, fewer infant infections, easier digestion
121
vitamin and mineral requirements for older adults
remain the same
122
iron requirement for post menopausal women
decreases
123
First diet after surgery or if NPO for a while
Clear liquid
124
Clear liquid diet
broth, tea, carbonated beverages, clear fruit juices, gelatin, ice pops
125
Full liquid diet
clear liquid diet plus custards, cooked cerals, veg juice, pureed veg, all fruit juices
126
Mechanical soft diet
Finely diced meats, flaked fish, cottage cheese, rice, potatoes
127
Soft/low residue diet
low fiber
128
Diabetic diet usually __ cal
1800
129
parenteral feedings, if TPN, use
central line
130
parenteral feedings, if PPN, use
peripheral line
131
TPN __% or > glucose content
10%
132
xerostomia
dry mouth
133
increases potency of coumadin
grapefruit juice
134
An inflammation or infection in one or more small pouches in the digestive tract
Diverticulitis
135
Diverticulitis diet
low residue, then high fiber
136
DM diet
High glycemic index foods. Limit sat fat.
137
If someone has a nasal fracture, they could also have trauma
deeper in the skull
138
If someone gets hit in the head, what might leak out
CSF
139
to distinguish between CSF and blood check for
a halo (which surrounds CSF)
140
to distinguish between CSF and regular drainage, check for
glucose (which is in CSF)
141
You can't see swelling of the brain because the skull holds it in, except for in
infants
142
the brain could __ down the spinal cord to relieve pressure
herniate
143
At risk for salivary gland problems
radiation patients chemo patients head and neck injury patients
144
thyroid gland normally isn't
palpable
145
labored breathing includes the use of accessory muscles such as
sternocleidomastoid and intercostals
146
vertigo
an illusion of movement
147
increase in growth hormone
acromegaly
148
cushings syndrome is caused by
too much cortisone or an adrenal gland problem
149
bulging eyes
exophthalmos
150
when someone looks like they're dying
cachectic appearance
151
CSF leaking could indicate __ __ damage
basal skull damage
152
Head injury could cause drainage from the nose and
ears
153
fine crackles are heard during
inspiration
154
type of crackles that if heard in the lower back could indicate heart problem
bi-basilar inspiratory crackles
155
crackles heard in the anterior chest are probably a ___ problem
lung
156
Left heart failure causes
lung problems
157
The best indicator for PE
low SAO2
158
Which lung lobe can only be heard anteriorly
right middle
159
If you can hear someone's heart over the posterior axillary line, their heart is prob
enlarged
160
Sometimes in a person with HF you hear crackles in the
mid-clavicular line
161
The main driver of breathing in a normal person is increased CO2, but the driver in a COPD patient is
decrease O2
162
Patient gets air in, but can't push it out (a problem with expiration)
COPD
163
stridor indicates a problem with getting air
into the lungs
164
respiratory rate that indicates imminent danger
around 36
165
respiratory rate that indicates possible danger
around 26
166
If breathing is shallow, you auscultate sounds in the upper chest, but not the
lower back
167
a symptom of hyperventilation
cramping fingers
168
breathing heavily, then nothing, repeats over and over
cheyne-stokes
169
sometimes it is the breathing pattern right before death
cheyne-stokes
170
During Biots breathing you should record
how long the apnea lasts
171
packs per day x years of smoking
pack years
172
Increased tactile fremitis indicates
consolidation
173
how long do listen to each lung site
one in and and out
174
If a patient is wheezing and we give albuterol, the wheezing could stop. Does this mean there's an improvement?
Not necessarily. It could be that now there's not enough air moving
175
depression of the sternum that prevents lung growth
rectus excavation
176
tympany over the chest could indicate
pneumothorax
177
pink puffer
emphysema. No cyanosis. Thin and frail because they're using a lot of energy to expel CO2. Not a lot of secretion
178
blue bloater
bronchitis. Bloated because of right sided heart failure which causes edema. Lots of secretion
179
Sounds of someone with PE would be
diminished
180
the hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome is
hypoxemia
181
Do not take BP in the arm where the patient has had a
lymphadenectomy
182
What happens to the vitals of a COPD patient getting lots of oxygen
RR decreases
183
Ejection fraction
measurement of the percentage of blood leaving your heart each time it contracts
184
respiration
the actual exchange of gases at the alveoli (different from ventilation)
185
breathing rate of someone having an asthma attack
at first the rate is increased, but would slow after a while as they get tired
186
a few neuromuscular diseases that would effect oxygenation
ALS MS Parkinsons
187
decreased oxygen in blood
hypoxemia
188
decreased oxygen in tissues
hypoxia
189
respiratory Oh Shoot
``` nasal flaring retractions (muscles in between ribs sucking in) grunting PND Stridor ```
190
grunting indicates
they're getting tired from labored breathing
191
PND
paroxismal nocturnal dyspnea (wake up in middle of night and can't breath)
192
measures end expiratory pressure
peak flow monitoring
193
person takes a deep breath and blows. The breathing rating is Green, Yellow, or Red
peak flow monitoring
194
even if someone is a mouth breather they can probably still use a
nasal cannula
195
LDL levels
below 100 is best (100 to 129 is so-so)
196
instructions for patient using spacer/puffer
breath in and hold for 1 minute
197
patients at risk for aspiration include
GERD
198
One way to lower aspiration risk
thicken liquids
199
oxygen setting for nasal cannula
24 to 44
200
oxygen setting for venturi mask
24 to 50
201
oxygen setting for face mask
40 to 60
202
oxygen setting for non rebreather mask
70 to 100
203
best test for evidence for IGE
ABG
204
A late symptom of IGE
sweating
205
Polycethemia (over production of RBCs) increases risk for
DVT (it thickens the blood)
206
if you see an adult suddenly collapse
call 911 and do compressions
207
if you find an adult already already collapsed
- are you ok? - call 911 - get AED if possible - start traditional CPR (compressions and breaths)
208
traditional CPR (compressions and breaths) should be used for
- adults you didn't see collapse - children - drowning or breathing problems
209
murmurs are not
extra heart sounds, they're part of the lub dub
210
first intervention for patient having trouble breathing
elevate HOB
211
patient is having trouble breathing, after elevating HOB
suction
212
patient is having trouble breathing, after elevating HOB and suctioning
give 2L oxygen
213
patient is having trouble breathing, after giving oxygen
check meds
214
patient is having trouble breathing, after giving oxygen and checking meds
call provider
215
the earliest sign of heart failure that can be detected
S3 sound
216
bibasilar crackles indicate
impending heart failure
217
sound that is a sign of stiffened valve
S4
218
murmur indicates a problem with the
valves
219
to check for JVD place patient in what position
semi fowler
220
what do you do if you find a bruit in the carotid
escalate
221
DM is a ___ cardiac risk factor
modifiable
222
what part of the stethoscope is used to hear abnormal heart sounds
bell
223
If you hear a loud murmur,
palpate with your palm
224
Total cholesterol level
less than 200
225
HDL level
greater than 50
226
LDL level
less than 130
227
triglyceride level
less than 150
228
what do you do before a cholesterol test
fast for 10 to 12 hours
229
During hypoxemia what happens to HR
initially goes up, then down
230
CVA tenderness is found while
percussing the kidneys
231
If someone has a strong pulsation in the stomach
do not palpate
232
to put someone on a thickened diet you need
an order
233
Most common cause of diarrhea in hospital patients is
C diff
234
Scar tissue in abdomen
adhesions
235
high intake of calcium and iron can cause
constipation
236
black stool can indicate
bleeding
237
painless GI bleeding
very abnormal, could signal something serious
238
occurs during palpation when you remove your hand and the patient feels pain
rebound tenderness
239
spleen could be enlarged for someone with
leukemia or car accident
240
older adults might not complain of GI pain despite
severe damage
241
Even in an obese person you should be able to auscultate
bowel sounds
242
soap sud
?
243
fleet
?
244
oil retention
?
245
gastroenteritis can cause
diarrhea
246
fluid balance is especially risky for
very young and very old
247
before colonoscopy
NPO for 24 hours | No beef
248
culture and sensitivity test needs ___ container
sterile
249
lomotil or immodium should NOT be used for
diarrhea related to infection (short term)
250
diarrhea can cause decreased (which electrolyte)
potassium
251
If someone has dehydration or fluid loss give them
NS (isotonic)
252
Is someone has blood loss or they're going to the OR give them
ringer lactate (isotonic)
253
burning fat causes
ketones
254
signs of fluid volume excess
crackles S3 JVD
255
creatinine indicates ___ damage
kidney damage
256
Be very careful with what kind of NS
3% NS (high risk of pulmonary edema)
257
If you suspect a sodium problem pay special attention to __ status
neuro status
258
symptoms of low calcium
tetany | muscle cramping
259
symptoms of high calcium
constipated
260
KCl 10 meq
should be given or 30 to 60 min. IF pushed, patient could die
261
symptoms of low calcium
Chvostek's and Trousseau's Signs
262
low calcium- face twitches when touched
Chvostek's
263
low calcium- arm flexes when taking BP
Trousseau's
264
best way measure to monitor fluid intake over a long period
weight
265
best way to measure short term fluid intake
I/O