Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

aa Orgo > CT 1 > Flashcards

CT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

For some people, COPD causes significant destruction of the terminal airways and air sacs (alveoli). This form of COPD is called

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

air spaces are created when the walls of the small respiratory airways and their alveoli are torn

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Another characteristic of _____ is decreased elasticity of lung tissue

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Besides reducing the lung area available for gas exchange, ____ leads to hyper-inflated lungs and obstructed airflow

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

inflamed airways that become clogged with mucus

A

bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patients with this variant of COPD develop a chronic cough that brings up sputum

A

bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For a COPD patient the POX should be

A

at least 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After securing the COPD patient’s airway, we would then

A

run an ECG because hypoxemia can cause arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For someone in respiratory distress, Semi-Fowler’s position is good because it

A

helps to open the ribcage and helps respiratory muscle expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For someone in respiratory distress, Relaxation is important because

A

anxiety increases dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For someone in respiratory distress, Exercises such as deep breathing can facilitate relaxation; if this is ineffective,

A

an order for an anxiolytic could be recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Consideration when giving azithromycin: Monitor IV site for

A

inflammation and extravasation

Also carefully dilute the medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Consideration when giving azithromycin: which labs should you assess

A

liver function/bilirubin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Consideration when giving azithromycin: because the drug can be nephrotoxic,

A

place on strict I and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Consideration when giving azithromycin: timing?

A

administer over at least an hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s the theory of carb loading

A
  1. CO2 is produced whens carbs are broken down.
  2. The increase in CO2 means that the body has to breath faster to get rid of it.
  3. In COPD patients, this is too much stress for their respiratory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a COPD patient, the largest portion of the diet should be

A

Carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

COPD patient, feeding consideration

A
  • 6 small meals

- Incorporate rest periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Eating large meals can be an excessive workload for a patient with COPD and can

A

press down on the diaphragm which restricts lung movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

COPD patient: ___ foods take less energy to eat

A

Soft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why does someone with COPD crave chocolate

A

it has methylxanthine that acts to relax smooth muscles by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which has a bronchodilating effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What medication that is sometimes taken by a COPD patient could cause elevated blood sugar

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The expected ABG for a patient with COPD

A

partially compensated respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do you do for a COPD patient with partially compensated respiratory acidosis

A

It’s not an urgent situation. It’s the expected finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What’s a goal for the COPD patient’s weight

A

Weight within 10% of the patient’s ideal weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

polycythemia

A

elevated RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the COPD patient should Supplement high-energy activities with

A

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Priority nursing dx for COPD patient

A

Impaired gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ACS is a term used to describe a situation where

A

the blood supplied to the heart muscle is suddenly blocked, leading to unstable angina or acute myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

occurs primarily at rest, is triggered by smoking, and is thought to be due to coronary vasospasm.

A

Variant angina (Prinzmetal angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

can aggravate angina because of potential for ischemia

A

Low Hgb and Hct levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In the MI patient, an ECG is to

A

identify dysrhythmias

identify electrolyte imbalance

identify any myocardial ischemia present

damage to myocardial tissue from the past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

a STEMI patient needs to go to cardiac catheterization lab immediately for

A

angioplasty or stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

a ____ patient needs to go to cardiac catheterization lab immediately for angioplasty or stenting.

A

STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the MI patient, _____ is often an ominous sign of either poor immune response or decompensation

A

Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Although a patient with ACS need to be on continous cardiac monitoring (Telemetry), they should be allowed to ____ as tolerated

A

mobilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is considered a very high Furosemide(lasix) dose

A

200 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

part of standard ACS treatment to assess for cardiac structural defects

A

ECHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You do not do IV _____ push because it can cause heart failure and death

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Main MI dx

A

Altered cardiac perfusion related to myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If ___ ventricular function is significantly impaired,pulmonary congestion and edema can occur

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For MI patient, Monitor vital signs every __ min during ischemic episodes

A

5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what kind of BP readings might you get with an MI patient

A

may initially rise because of sympathetic stimulation, then fall if cardiac output is compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_____ would indicate the client has chronic constipation, which is a strong risk factor for diverticulosis

A

Hemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Constipation increases the intraluminal pressure in the sigmoid colon, leading to

A

weakness in the intestinal lining, which, in turn, causes outpouchings, or diverticula

46
Q

____ susceptibility is an important component for the development of diverticular disease

A

Genetic

47
Q

mental risk factor for diverticular disease

A

stress

48
Q

Shows thickening of bowel wall, indicative of inflammation

Also shows diverticulosis pouches

A

Barium enema

49
Q

Superior to contrast enema in sensitivity and in evaluation of severity of inflammation

A

CT scan

50
Q

Test that is suboptimal in obese patients

A

ultrasound

51
Q

Contraindicated during an acute diverticular situation.

Used to evaluate healing process 6 weeks after acute episode

A

Colonoscopy

52
Q

Diverticula

A

Small mucosal herniations protruding through the intestines

53
Q

Diverticular can occur anywhere along the G.I. tract. They are the most common in

A

the colon, specifically the sigmoid

54
Q

Diverticulitis

A

An inflammation of one or more diverticulae

55
Q

Diverticulitis is caused by

A

a build up of fecal matter or undigested food particles collecting in diverticulum causing obstruction.

The obstruction leads to an overgrowth of the normal bacteria

56
Q

obstructions combined with intraluminal pressure cause erosion of the diverticulum leading to inflammation, necrosis and possible

A

perforation

57
Q

Diverticulitis: If abscesses are left untreated they may lead to the formation of ____

A

fistulas

58
Q

the patient is experiencing the severe crampy pain of acute diverticulitis, Apply a ___ ___ on the lower abdomen

A

warm pack

59
Q

the patient is experiencing the severe crampy pain of acute diverticulitis, the diet should be

A

clear liquid diet for 7 to 10 days

60
Q

the patient is experiencing the severe crampy pain of acute diverticulitis, give Dicyclomine in order to

A

relax the smooth muscles

61
Q

before he takes the initial dose of metronidazole, ask:

Have you had any ____ within the last 24 hours

A

alcohol

62
Q

before he takes the initial dose of metronidazole, ask: Do you have any ___ problems

A

liver

63
Q

before he takes the initial dose of metronidazole, ask: Are you taking

A

disulfiram

64
Q

metronidazole: Do not use if patient has uncorrected ____ or severe renal impairment

A

hypokolemia

65
Q

Ciprofloxacin- Do not use if experiencing peripheral

A

neuropathies

66
Q

During the acute of of diverticulitis, can the patient take a laxative to help with the constipation

A

No

67
Q

Is high fiber good for a diverticulitis patient

A

not during the acute phase. But later on it is good

68
Q

What diet would you use for severe diverticulitis in the acute part

A

NPO

69
Q

What’s the first diet for a diverticulitis patient and how does it progress

A

Clear liquid,
then low fiber
then high fiber

70
Q

After the acute part of diverticulitis, what’s a good laxative

A

Bulk forming laxative

71
Q

At discharge, what will you tell the diverticulosis client to eat

A

high fiber and water

72
Q

What are ways the can diverticulosis patient can avoid increasing intra-abdominal pressure

A

bed rest

avoid straining, bending, lifting

73
Q

diverticulitis nursing dx

A

Acute pain r/t inflammation of bowel secondary to diverticulitis

74
Q

The OGTT is performed between

A

24 and 28 weeks of gestation

75
Q

OGTT includes a total of __ blood draws

A

3

76
Q

OGTT instructions

A

fast starting at midnight

water is OK

77
Q

For the OGTT tests, What is the requirement for diagnosing DM

A

if any one of the 3 draws tests shows elevation, you’re positive

78
Q

Who should undergo a fasting, 2 hour, 75 g glucose load test

A

All pregnant women

79
Q

GDM: After birth, fetus no longer receives mother’s excess blood sugar but still has

A

excess insulin

causes Neonatal hypoglycemia

80
Q

GDM risk factor, maternal age of

A

older than 25

81
Q

diet used in treating GDM: Incorporating ____ in each meal and snack

A

protein

82
Q

In GDM, Ketosis may indicate the need for

A

insulin

83
Q

Consequences of persistent ketoacidosis are decreased

A

psychomotor skills and lower IQ

84
Q

risks for your baby from gestational diabetes: Increased risk of baby developing

A

type II DM later in life

85
Q

risks for your baby from gestational diabetes: spontaneous

A

abortion

86
Q

risks for your baby from gestational diabetes: excess amniotic fluid, aka

A

Hydramnios

87
Q

risks for your baby from gestational diabetes: something to do with the RBCs

A

Polycythemia which can lead to hyperbilirubinemia after birth and eventually jaundice

88
Q

GDM: Don’t use ___ more than once to minimize risk of infection and cellulitis.

A

lancet

89
Q

Appearance of short acting (regular) insulin

A

clear

90
Q

Appearance of intermediate insulin

A

cloudy

91
Q

a meal has to be eaten within __ minutes of the injection of short-acting (clear) insulin

A

30

92
Q

Pneumothorax

A

the presence of air in the pleural space

93
Q

Pneumothorax causes partial or complete

A

collapse of the affected lung

94
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when

A

an air filled bleb or blister on the surface of the lung is ruptured making air enter the pleural cavity

95
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

the intrapleural pressure is greater than the atmospheric pressure. Life threatening.

96
Q

pneumothorax findings: on auscultation on the affected side

A

Reduced breath sounds

97
Q

pneumothorax findings: on percussion

A

Hyper-resonance

98
Q

CLOSED pneumothorax findings: Deviation of the trachea

A

away from the affected side

99
Q

pneumothorax findings: Prominence of the

A

involved side of the chest

100
Q

TREATMENT FOR S. PNEUMOTHORAX

A

Insertion of a chest tube in order to drain air out of the pleural space allowing lungs to re-inflate

101
Q

50% of the patients who had spontaneous pneumothorax are at risk to

A

develop the second one within 3 years

102
Q

When the ambulance came for the phneumothorax patient she was

A

intubated, started on intravenous lactated Ringer’s at KVO

103
Q

Open pneumothorax is where the

A

pleural cavity is exposed to the outside air through a wound

104
Q

Closed pneumothorax (spontaneous) is where

A

a patient with COPD has their lung collapse and the pleural cavity is not exposed to outside air

105
Q

The physician needs to insert a chest tube. What are your responsibilities: Document and

A

witness the signing of consent and confirm the client understands procedure

106
Q

The physician needs to insert a chest tube. What are your responsibilities: Encourage client to

A

void pre-procedure

107
Q

After insertion of a chest tube, what if there’s continuous bubbling

A

this is expected because the hole in the lung is still healing

108
Q

What if a long time after the chest tube is inserted there’s continuous bubbling

A

this is bad, there shouldn’t be an air leak at this time

109
Q

Chest tube: lowering the water level in the suction control chamber ____ the strength of suction

A

lowers

110
Q

Pleurodesis

A

procedure that prevents excess fluid from building up in the pleural space

111
Q

If still draining greater than ___ ml in 24 hours by 48 hours following pleurodesis, repeat chest x ray and consider repeat pleurodesis

A

250

112
Q

After pleurodesis the patient should avoid

A

NSAIDS

aa Orgo (196 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions