Medsurg 3 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

an erosion of the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum

A

peptic ulcer

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2
Q

PUD: The mucous membranes can become eroded to the point that the epithelium is exposed to gastric acid and pepsin, which can precipitate

A

bleeding and perforation

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3
Q

PUD: Perforation that extends through all the layers of the stomach or duodenum can cause

A

peritonitis

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4
Q

PUD prevention: use ___ management techniques

A

stress

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5
Q

2 drugs that can cause PUD

A

NSAIDS and steroids

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6
Q

which blood type is a risk factor for PUD

A

type O

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7
Q

when does a Gastric ulcer occur

A

30 to 60 minutes after meal

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8
Q

when does a duodenal ulcer occur

A

1.5 to 3 hours after meal

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9
Q

ulcer that often occurs at night

A

duodenal

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10
Q

ulcer where pain is exacerbated by ingestion of food

A

gastric ulcer

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11
Q

duodenal ulcer pain is relieved by

A

ingestion of food or antacid

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12
Q

Pain findings in someone with PUD

A

pain on palpation

back pain

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13
Q

PUD: Pain that radiates to the back may indicate

A

perforation is imminent

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14
Q

Where might you find blood with PUD pt

A

Bloody emesis (hematemesis) or stools (melena).

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15
Q

PUD pt’s weight might

A

decrease

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16
Q

PUD: Gastric samples are collected via an ___ to test for H. pylori.

A

endoscopy

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17
Q

C 13 urea breath testing is used for

A

detecting H pylori in PUD

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18
Q

IgG serologic testing documents the presence of

A

H pylori in PUD

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19
Q

provides a definitive diagnosis of peptic ulcers and may be repeated to evaluate the
effectiveness of treatment

A

EGD

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20
Q

PUD: Monitor for __ __ and tachycardia as these findings are suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding.

A

orthostatic hypotension

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21
Q

PUD: Administer ___ lavage via nasogastric tube, if prescribed.

A

saline

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22
Q

PUD: A combination of two to three different ___ may be used to eliminate H pylori

A

antibiotics

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23
Q

Medication used to prevent stress ulcers in clients who are NPO after major surgery, have large areas of burns, are septic, or have increased intracranial pressure.

A

histamine blocker

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24
Q

Histamine blocker tx for PUD: Instruct clients to notify the provider of

A

obvious or occult GI bleeding

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25
Q

PPIs: Reduce gastric acid secretion by

A

irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme that produces gastric acid.

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26
Q

Mucosal protectant: when should they take the meds?

A

1 hr before meals and bedtime

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27
Q

Mucosal protectant: monitor for

A

constipation

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28
Q

PUD: areas of bleeding may be treated with ___ or ___ ___

A

epinephrine or laser coagulation.

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29
Q

Vagotomy

A

a PUD procedure where certain nerves are cut (the nerves that cause acid secretion)

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30
Q

Surgical procedure for PUD: after the procedure, Notify the provider before

A

repositioning or irrigating the nasogastric tube (disruption of sutures)

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31
Q

PUD surgery, POST op: Consume small, frequent meals while avoiding large quantities of ___ as directed.

A

carbohydrates

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32
Q

rebound tenderness in someone with PUD can indicate

A

perforation (which is an emergency)

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33
Q

if someone with PUD has a perforation and you palpated the abd it would feel

A

rigid and stiff

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34
Q

PUD perforation: maintain BP by

A

increasing fluids

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35
Q

PUD perforation: insert

A

NG tube

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36
Q

PUD perforation: provide

A

saline lavages

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37
Q

Complication of PUD: ___ anemia occurs due to a deficiency of the intrinsic factor normally secreted by the gastric mucosa.

A

Pernicious anemia

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38
Q

Pernicious anemia: Monthly lifelong vitamin __ injections will be necessary.

A

B12

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39
Q

a group of manifestations that occur following eating. A shift of fluid to the abdomen is triggered by rapid gastric emptying or high-carbohydrate ingestion.

A

dumping syndrome

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40
Q

Dumping syndrome: In response to the sudden influx of a hypertonic fluid, the small intestine pulls fluid from the

A

extracellular space to convert the hypertonic fluid to an isotonic fluid

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41
Q

Dumping syndrome: instruct the client to __ __ when vasomotor manifestations occur

A

lie down

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42
Q

Dumping syndrome: Client teaching: Eliminate liquids with meals for

A

1 hr prior to, and following a meal.

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43
Q

Dumping syndrome: Client teaching: diet should be low in

A

sugar, diary, fiber, and carbs

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44
Q

Dumping syndrome: Client teaching: diet should be high in

A

protein and fat

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45
Q

an inflammation in the lining of the stomach

A

Gastritis

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46
Q

___ enzymes produce mucosal prostaglandins that form a protective layer over the lining of the stomach.

A

Cox 1

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47
Q

Chronic gastritis has a slow onset and, if profuse, may damage parietal cells resulting in ___ anemia.

A

pernicious

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48
Q

autoimmune diseases that increase risk for gastritis

A

SLE and RA

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49
Q

___ therapy can increase risk for gastritis

A

radiation therapy

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50
Q

A risk factor for Gastritis is excessive ___

A

stress

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51
Q

Pt with gastritis might have weight

A

loss

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52
Q

what’s the main bacteria you want to check for in gastritis

A

H pylori

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53
Q

what do you tell the pt about anesthesia/pain having to do with an upper endoscopy

A

a local anesthetic will be sprayed onto the back of the throat, but throat may be sore following the procedure

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54
Q

With what drug should you monitor for Monitor for neutropenia and hypotension

A

histamine blockers

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55
Q

Do not give antacid to clients with

A

kidney problems

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56
Q

Monitor aluminum antacids for

A

constipation

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57
Q

Monitor magnesium antacids for

A

diarrhea

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58
Q

2 Medications that should be taken on an empty stomach

A

antacid and PPI

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59
Q

Medication that needs an IV filter

A

PPI

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60
Q

Medication: Advise to allow 30 min before eating and not to crush or chew pills

A

PPI

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61
Q

PPI: It can take up to

A

4 days to see the effects

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62
Q

Gastric bleeding intervention: Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for ___ ___

A

gastric lavage

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63
Q

Gastric bleeding intervention: Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric lavage (irrigate with __ __ or ___ to stop active gastric bleed)

A

normal saline or water

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64
Q

Gastric bleeding intervention: After you insert the NG, but BEFORE you use it you must

A

do an x ray to confirm the proper placement

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65
Q

distended or edematous intestinal veins resulting from increased intra-abdominal pressure (straining, obesity)

A

Hemorrhoids

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66
Q

Hemorrhoids result from

A

increased intra-abdominal pressure (straining, obesity, pregnancy)

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67
Q

A hernia that cannot be ________________ is considered irreducible and should be treated surgically.

A

moved back into place with gentle palpation

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68
Q

Physical finding of hernia

A

Protrusion or “lump” at involved site

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69
Q

Hernia for a nonsurgical pt: Instruct client to wear

A

truss pad with hernia belt during waking hours and to inspect skin daily

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70
Q

Hernia for surgical pt: Instruct client to avoid increased intra-abdominal pressure for

A

2 to 3 weeks postoperatively

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71
Q

IBS: Avoid foods that contain

A

dairy, eggs, and wheat products

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72
Q

IBS: eat lots of

A

fiber

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73
Q

Although IBS is difficulty to dx with a specific test, one test used is the

A

Hydrogen Breath Test

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74
Q

2 IBS-specific medications

A

Alosetron and Lubiprostone

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75
Q

Intestinal obstruction can result from ___ or ___ causes

A

mechanical or nonmechanical

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76
Q

Intestinal obstruction: Mechanical obstructions have ___, ___ pain that is milder.

A

colicky, intermittent

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77
Q

Intestinal obstruction: Nonmechanical obstructions tend to have vague, diffuse, constant pain and significant

A

abdominal distention

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78
Q

Intestinal obstruction: bowel sounds are

A

hyperactive above the block, hypoactive below

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79
Q

Intestinal obstruction: nonmechanical obstruction is aka

A

paralytic ileus

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80
Q

an electrolyte imbalance that can lead to nonmechanical obstruction (aka paralytic ileus)

A

hypokalemia

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81
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

small

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82
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Minor fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

large

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83
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Metabolic alkalosis

A

small

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84
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Metabolic acidosis

A

large

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85
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Visible peristaltic waves

A

small

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86
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Significant abdominal

distention

A

large

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87
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Abdominal pain, discomfort

A

small

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88
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Intermittent abdominal cramping

A

large

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89
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Profuse, sudden projectile vomiting with fecal odor; vomiting relieves pain

A

small

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90
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Infrequent vomiting

A

large

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91
Q

Small or Large intestine block? Diarrhea or “ribbon-like” stools around an impaction

A

large

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92
Q

In bowel obstruction, ___ hemoglobin, BUN, creatinine, and hematocit may indicate dehydration.

A

Increased

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93
Q

In bowel obstruction, ____ serum amylase and WBC count may be due to strangulating obstructions

A

Increased

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94
Q

Intestinal block dx test that evaluates the presence of free air and gas patterns.

A

x ray

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95
Q

Intestinal block dx test that determines the cause of obstruction.

A

endoscopy

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96
Q

Intestinal block dx test that determines the cause and exact location of the obstruction.

A

CT scan

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97
Q

Intestinal block: if surgery is needed for a mechanical block, withhold food until

A

peristalsis returns

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98
Q

Intestinal block: with suspected bowel strangulation, the best meds are

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

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99
Q

Intestinal block: Monitor for ___ instability

A

hemodynamic

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100
Q

Intestinal block: after surgery, advance diet as tolerated when prescribed, beginning with clear liquids – clamp tube after

A

eating for 1 to 2 hr

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101
Q

Small intestinal obstruction causes vomiting, leading to metabolic

A

alkalosis

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102
Q

a lower level obstruction causes metabolic acidosis because

A

alkaline fluids aren’t being reabsorbed

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103
Q

Edema and inflammation of the rectum and sigmoid colon

A

Ulcerative colitis

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104
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

Edema and inflammation of the rectum and sigmoid colon

105
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Inflammation and ulceration of the gastrointestinal tract, often at the distal ileum.

106
Q

Inflammation and ulceration of the gastrointestinal tract, often at the distal ileum.

A

Crohn’s disease

107
Q

Ulcerative colitis may cause

A

obstruction

108
Q

Ulcerative colitis: intestinal mucosal cell changes may cause ___ ___

A

colon cancer

109
Q

Ulcerative colitis: intestinal mucosal cell changes may cause insufficient production of intrinsic factor, resulting in

A

insufficient absorption of vitamin B12 (pernicious anemia).

110
Q

Crohn’s disease: supplemental ___ may be needed

A

B12

111
Q

Diverticula may perforate and cause

A

peritonitis

112
Q

A diet low in ___ may predispose a client to ulcerative colitis and the development
of diverticula.

A

fiber

113
Q

Ulcerative colitis: pain

A

Abdominal pain/cramping: often left-lower quadrant pain

114
Q

Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease: Steatorrhea

A

Crohn’s disease

115
Q

Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease: Rectal bleeding

A

Ulcerative colitis

116
Q

Crohn’s disease: pain

A

RLQ

117
Q

Small intestine ulcerations and narrowing may be consistent with

A

Crohn’s disease

118
Q

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease: seek emergency care if you have ___, severe abdominal pain, ___

A

fever, vomiting

119
Q

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease: Educate the client to eat foods that are

A

high in protein and calories, and low in fiber

120
Q

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease: take a multivitamin that contains

A

iron

121
Q

Diverticulitis: give client ___ for pain

A

opiates

122
Q

Diverticulitis: Educate the client to consume a ___ __ diet until manifestations subside

A

clear liquid

123
Q

Diverticulitis: Instruct the client to add fiber to the diet once solid foods are tolerated without other manifestations. The client should slowly advance to a

A

high-fiber diet as tolerated

124
Q

Diverticulitis: Teach client to avoid seeds or indigestable material, which can block diverticulum (3 examples)

A

nuts, popcorn, seeds

125
Q

Diverticulitis: limit fat to ___ of daily calorie intake

A

30%

126
Q

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease: 5 ASA is prescribed to

A

decrease inflammation

127
Q

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease: steroids are prescribed to

A

decrease inflammation

128
Q

Surgical Procedure for Ulcerative Colitis

A

Colectomy with or without ileostomy

129
Q

Surgical Procedures for Crohn’s Disease

A

Stricturoplasty
or
Surgical repair of fistulas

130
Q

Surgical Procedures for Diverticulitis (dependent on problem type)

A

Colon resection

Double-barrel colostomy, but may be temporary

Treatment of complications (peritonitis, abscess, obstruction, fistula, bleeding)

131
Q

An ileostomy may drain as much as __ mL/day.

A

1,000

132
Q

Complications of ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, and diverticulitis: ___ may occur due to perforation of the bowel

A

Peritonitis

133
Q

hallmark sign of peritonitis

A

rigid, board like abd

134
Q

a life threatening inflammation involving the abd cavity

A

peritonitis

135
Q

peritonitis positioning

A

Fowler or semi-Fowler’s position. (This promotes comfort and allows for the
client to breathe easier.)

136
Q

Peritonitis: No __ __ for at least 6 weeks.

A

heavy lifting

137
Q

Abscess and fistula formation: diet should be

A

high in protein and calories (at least 3,000 calories/day), and low in fiber.

138
Q

an inflammation of the gallbladder wall

A

Cholecystitis

139
Q

cholelithiasis

A

gallstones

140
Q

Cholecystitis can obstruct the pancreatic duct, causing

A

pancreatitis

141
Q

Cholecystitis: health promotion: consume a diet that is

A

low-fat diet rich in HDL sources (seafood, nuts, olive oil)

142
Q

Cholecystitis: Sharp pain in the right upper quadrant, often radiating to the

A

right shoulder

143
Q

Cholecystitis: Pain with deep inspiration during

A

right subcostal palpation (Murphy’s sign)

144
Q

Cholecystitis: Intense pain after

A

ingestion of high-fat food

145
Q

Cholecystitis findings: s____

A

steatorrhea

146
Q

Cholecystitis findings: ___ ___ stools

A

clay-colored stools

147
Q

Cholecystitis findings: J____

A

jaundice

148
Q

Cholecystitis findings: ___ urine

A

dark

149
Q

Cholecystitis findings: p____

A

pruritus

150
Q

Older adult clients who have diabetes mellitus may have atypical presentation of cholecystitis (absence of ___ or ___)

A

pain or fever

151
Q

Cholecystitis findings: Amylase and lipase are

A

increased

152
Q

Cholecystitis findings: increased (AST), (LDH), and (ALP) may indicate the

A

common bile duct is obstructed.

153
Q

Cholecystitis Dx: _____ visualizes gall stones and a dilated common bile duct.

A

Ultrasound

154
Q

Cholecystitis Dx: An abdominal ___ or ___ scan can visualize calcified gallstones and an enlarged gall bladder

A

x-ray or CT

155
Q

Cholecystitis Dx: ___ scan (HIDA) assesses the patency of the biliary duct system after an IV injection of contrast

A

hepatobiliary

156
Q

Cholecystitis Dx: allows for direct visualization using an endoscope that is inserted through the esophagus and into the common bile duct via the duodenum

A

(ERCP)

157
Q

Cholecystitis Dx: involves the direct injection of contrast into the biliary tract through the use of a flexible needle. The gallbladder and ducts can be visualized.

A

PTC

158
Q

___ acid gradually dissolves cholesterol-based gall stones, with few adverse effects.

A

Bile acid (it’s a medication)

159
Q

Shock waves are used to break up gall stones

A

(ESWL)

160
Q

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) – Shock waves are used to break up stones. This may be used more on nonsurgical candidates of normal weight who

A

have small, cholesterol-based stones

161
Q

open surgical approach to gallbladder removal: A ___ may be placed in the common bile duct

A

T-tube

162
Q

open surgical approach to gallbladder removal: the T-tube drainage is

A

initially bloody, then green-brown bile

163
Q

open surgical approach to gallbladder removal: the amount of T-tube drainage

A

more than 400 mL of drainage in 24 hr initially, with gradual decrease in amount

164
Q

surgical approach to gallbladder removal: the stools will be ____ ___ until biliary flow is reestablished

A

clay-colored

165
Q

Laparoscopic removal of gallbladder: in order to treat free air pain

A

ambulate pt

166
Q

A rupture of the gallbladder wall can cause a local abscess or peritonitis (which is manifested by ___, ___ abdomen)

A

rigid, board-like

167
Q

This can occur if adequate amounts of bile are not drained from the surgical site after gallbladder removal

A

Bile peritonitis

168
Q

Manifestations of gallbladder disease can continue after surgical removal. This is called

A

Postcholecystectomy syndrome

169
Q

an inflammation of liver cells

A

Hepatitis

170
Q

Cirrhosis

A

permanent scarring of the liver that is usually caused by chronic inflammation

171
Q

Use PPE for Hep A pts that are

A

incontinent

172
Q

Use PPE for Hep B and C pts who are

A

bleeding

173
Q

Hep A and E transmission

A

fecal-oral

174
Q

Hep B and C transmission

A

blood

175
Q

Hep that can be passed from mother to offspring

A

B

176
Q

Hep that’s a coinfection with Hep B

A

D

177
Q

Hep findings: skin color

A

jaundice

178
Q

Hep findings: stool

A

clay color

179
Q

Hep findings: urine

A

dark

180
Q

Hep: Dx test used to identify the intensity of the infection, and the degree of liver damage

A

liver biopsy

181
Q

Hep: the most definitive diagnostic approach

A

liver biopsy

182
Q

Before liver biopsy, pt must be NPO for

A

2 hours

183
Q

Liver biopsy: Assist the client into the supine position with the

A

upper right quadrant of the

abdomen exposed

184
Q

Liver biopsy: instruct the client to breath by

A

Instruct client to exhale breath and hold for at least 10 seconds

185
Q

Liver biopsy: After needle is removed

A

Pt can resume breathing after the needle is removed

Apply pressure to the insertion site

186
Q

Liver biopsy: after the procedure, position the pt

A

right side-lying position and maintain for several hours.

187
Q

Hepatitis A vaccination is recommended for ___ protection

A

postexposure

188
Q

Acute Hep B: Tx

A

No medications, supportive care.

189
Q

Chronic Hep B: Tx

A

Antiviral medications

190
Q

Hepatitis C: Combination therapy with peginterferon and ___ is the preferred treatment.

A

ribavirin

191
Q

Hepatitis D: Tx

A

same as Hep B

192
Q

Hepatitis E: Tx

A

same as Hep B

193
Q

Chronic Hepatitis results from which Heps?

A

BCD

194
Q

Extremely progressive form of viral hepatitis.

A

Fulminating hepatitis

195
Q

cirrhosis caused by viral hepatitis or certain medications or toxins.

A

Postnecrotic

196
Q

cirrhosis caused by chronic alcoholism

A

Laennec’s

197
Q

biliary cirrhosis is caused by chronic biliary obstruction or ___ disease

A

autoimmune

198
Q

Cardiac cirrhosis results from severe right heart failure inducing necrosis and fibrosis due to

A

lack of blood flow

199
Q

Cirrhosis: Personality and mentation changes such as

A

emotional lability, euphoria, sometimes depression

200
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: Altered

A

sleep/wake pattern

201
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: Ascites, specifically

A

fluid buildup in abdomen and legs

202
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: 2 skin findings besides jaundice

A

petechiae

Ecchymoses

203
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: Hands

A

red warm

204
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: red lesions, vascular in nature called

A

spider angiomas

205
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: Dependent ___ ___

A

peripheral edema

206
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: tremor characterized by rapid, nonrhythmic extension and flexion of the wrists and fingers

A

Asterixis

207
Q

Cirrhosis Objective findings: odor

A

fruit/musty breath

208
Q

Cirrhosis: ALT and AST are elevated initially due to hepatic inflammation, and return to normal when liver cells are no longer able to

A

create an inflammatory response

209
Q

Cirrhosis: ___ increases in cirrhosis due to intrahepatic biliary obstruction.

A

ALP (Alkaline phosphatase)

210
Q

Cirrhosis: Bilirubin level

A

elevated

211
Q

Cirrhosis: serum albumin level

A

decreased

212
Q

Cirrhosis: serum protein level

A

decreased

213
Q

Cirrhosis: H and H level

A

decreased

214
Q

Cirrhosis: all blood components

A

decreased

215
Q

Cirrhosis: PT/INR is

A

prolonged due to decreased synthesis of prothrombin

216
Q

Cirrhosis: Ammonia and creatinine levels

A

increase

217
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: used to detect ascites, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, biliary stones, or biliary obstruction.

A

Ultrasound

218
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: Used to visualize possible hepatomegaly, ascites, and splenomegaly.

A

Abdominal x-rays and CT scan

219
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: Used to visualize mass lesions and determine whether the liver is malignant or benign.

A

MRI

220
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: most definitive

A

biopsy

221
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: A liver biopsy identifies the ___ of the cirrhosis.

A

extent

222
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: This is performed under moderate (conscious) sedation to detect the presence of esophageal
varices, ulcerations in the stomach, or duodenal ulcers and bleeding.

A

EGD

223
Q

Cirrhosis: Dx test: Used to view the biliary tract to assist in removing stones, to collect specimens for biopsy, and for placement of a stent.

A

ERCP

224
Q

EGD is performed under ___ sedation

A

moderate (conscious)

225
Q

Cirrhosis: to decrease the itching, encourage

A

washing with cold water and applying lotion

226
Q

Cirrhosis: Because the metabolism of most medications is dependent upon a functioning liver, general medications are administered ___

A

sparingly

227
Q

Type of drug used for clients who have varices to prevent bleeding.

A

beta blockers

228
Q

Cirrhosis: Drug used to promote excretion of ammonia from the body through the stool.

A

Lactulose

229
Q

Paracentesis: Position the client

A

supine with head of bed elevated.

230
Q

Cirrhosis: Performed in interventional radiology for clients who require further intervention with ascites or hemorrhage

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

231
Q

This is a last resort for Cirrhosis clients who have portal hypertension and esophageal varices

A

Surgical bypass shunting procedures

232
Q

Cirrhosis: Surgical bypass shunting procedures: The ascites is shunted from the abdominal cavity to the

A

superior vena cava

233
Q

Clients who have severe cardiac and respiratory disease, metastatic malignant liver cancer, and a continued history of alcohol/substance abuse are not candidates for

A

liver transplantation

234
Q

liver transplantation, acute graft rejection: t____

A

tachycardia

235
Q

liver transplantation, acute graft rejection: f___

A

fever

236
Q

liver transplantation, acute graft rejection: pain in the

A

RUQ (where the liver is….)

237
Q

liver transplantation, acute graft rejection: increased ___ or ___ levels

A

ALT or AST

238
Q

Cirrhosis pt: quitting drinking helps to

A

regenerate the liver

239
Q

Cirrhosis diet: high __ and moderate ___

A

high calorie and moderate fat

240
Q

Cirrhosis diet: low __ and ___

A

sodium and protein

241
Q

Cirrhosis diet: Supplemental vitamin-enriched liquids like ___ or ___

A

ensure or boost

242
Q

Cirrhosis complication: Portal systemic _____ (PSE)

A

Portal systemic encephalopathy (PSE)

243
Q

What is this condition: Clients who have a poorly functioning liver are unable to convert ammonia and other waste products to a less toxic form. These products are carried to the brain and cause neurological symptoms

A

Portal systemic encephalopathy (PSE)

244
Q

Portal systemic encephalopathy (PSE) medication

A

Lactulose (reduces ammonia level)

245
Q

The main concern with varices is

A

bleeding (they are fragile)

246
Q

Acute graft rejection post liver transplantation usually occurs around

A

4 to 10 days after surgery

247
Q

Serum creatinine – produced due to ___ and ___ breakdown.

A

protein and muscle

248
Q

Kidney disease is the only condition that increases serum ____ level

A

creatinine

249
Q

Kidney function loss of at least __ will cause an elevation of serum creatinine values.

A

50%

250
Q

Serum creatinine values are ____ in older adults unless kidney disease is present.

A

normal

251
Q

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) – results from breakdown of ____ in the liver

A

protein

252
Q

Elevated BUN is highly suggestive of

A

kidney disease

253
Q

Urinalysis: Collection of an ___ specimen provides a more concentrated sample.

A

early-morning

254
Q

Kidney Dx tests: Allows for visualization of structures and to detection of renal calculi, strictures, calcium deposits, or obstructions.

A

X ray

255
Q

Kidney Dx tests: Provides three-dimensional imaging of renal/urinary system to assess for kidney size and obstruction, cysts, or masses.

A

CT

256
Q

Kidney Dx tests: IV contrast dye (iodine-based) may be used to enhance images.

A

CT

257
Q

Kidney Dx tests: Useful in staging cancer

A

MRI

258
Q

Kidney Dx tests: Used to assess size of kidney, image the ureters, bladder, masses, cysts, calculi, and obstructions of the lower urinary tract

A

Ultrasound