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aa Orgo > Medsurg 3 part 6 > Flashcards

Medsurg 3 part 6 Flashcards

1
Q

btwn RA OA SLE which are systemic and which are local

A

RA and SLE are systemic

OA is local

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2
Q

btwn RA OA SLE which have risk for infection

A

RA and SLE

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3
Q

SLE has 3 top causes of death

A

pneumonia
sepsis
kidney failure

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4
Q

SLE can cause inflammation of

A

vessels

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5
Q

steroids can cause hyper___

A

gylcemia

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6
Q

btwn RA OA SLE which is non-inflammatory

A

OA

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7
Q

btwn RA OA SLE which has bone spurs

A

OA

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8
Q

OA exercise recommendation

A

exercise but stop when it hurts

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9
Q

C-reactive protein test: Is there an inflammatory response? If so, the dx is

A

RA or SLE

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10
Q

if ESR is elevated the dx is

A

RA or SLE

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11
Q

btwn RA OA SLE which one needs immediate care to prevent skin breakdown

A

RA

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12
Q

OA exercise goal

A

joint mobility (i.e. swimming, ti chi)

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13
Q

OA can’t be cured but

A

joints can be improved

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14
Q

OA patient that has stiffness in the morning gets

A

heat for 20 minutes

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15
Q

OA patient that has pain after walking gets

A

cold for 20 minutes

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16
Q

Acetaminophen shouldn’t be given in excess of

A

4 gm in 24 h

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17
Q

COX inhibitors have certain ___ risks

A

cardiac

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18
Q

viscosupplementation can be given __ times

A

6 times

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19
Q

defining characteristic of RA

A

symmetric

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20
Q

A patient has RA and their personality changes. It could be cause by

A

vasculitis in the brain

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21
Q

Pericarditis involves chest pain that’s relieved by

A

sitting forward

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22
Q

Abnormal CRP and ESR doesn’t definitively mean

A

you have RA

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23
Q

Splenomegaly risk

A

risk for bleeding if they fall

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24
Q

with pleuritis you will hear pleural rub and

A

crackles

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25
Q

Mitral valve disease: listen for

A

murmur

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26
Q

S3 indicates

A

fluid overload

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27
Q

The key with DMARDS is to

A

use them ASAP

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28
Q

which disease gets a low dose of steroids

A

RA

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29
Q

which disease gets a high dose of steroids

A

SLE

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30
Q

stomatitis aka

A

mouth sores

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31
Q

Mobility recommendation during exacerbation of RA

A

put on bed rest

No exercise, except range of motion

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32
Q

Most people don’t get fungal infections, but you might get one if you have

A

SLE

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33
Q

With SLE testing, are you looking for CK or CKMB

A

CK

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34
Q

The steroid dose for SLE is around

A

40 to 60 mg (very high)

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35
Q

Urine output goal should be

A

50 ml (not 30 ml)

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36
Q

best indicator of nutrition

A

weight history

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37
Q

the first test you do because it’s quick and easy

A

x ray

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38
Q

Between upper and lower GI series, which do you do first

A

lower

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39
Q

Which tests do you do last

A

the ones that require anesthesia

40
Q

subclavian catheter puts you at risk for

A

pneumonia

41
Q

Between PEG and PEJ, which gives residual

A

PEG

42
Q

When you test an NG tube by putting it in water

A

there shouldn’t be bubbles

43
Q

Esophageal varices are common in ppl with

A

cirrhosis of the liver

44
Q

Esophageal varices: do not use __ __ because you could rupture the varices

A

NG tube

45
Q

Esophageal varices: you don’t want the patient to __ or ___

A

vomit or gag (causes rupture)

46
Q

Biggest risk of a pt with stricture

A

aspiration

47
Q

What GI condition can be a trigger for asthma

A

GERD

48
Q

what kind of ulcer has pain when the pt eats

A

gastric

49
Q

what kind of ulcer has pain a couple hours after they eat

A

duodenal

50
Q

The number 1 tx of GERD is

A

PPIs (decrease acid)

51
Q

One food that shouldn’t be given to GERD pt because it increases acid

A

chocolate

52
Q

GERD position

A

raise the entire HOB (not just a pillow underneath)

53
Q

With gastritis, in addition to the same drugs as GERD you will need

A

abx

54
Q

The first thing you do with a vomiting pt

A

make them NPO

55
Q

WBC in a pt with peritonitis

A

decreased

56
Q

Milk stimulates a lot of

A

acid production

57
Q

If you suspect bleeding, the pt may look fine on the outside, but you should check the

A

H and H

58
Q

risk for shock if the systolic pressure is below

A

100

59
Q

obvious sign of obstruction

A

distention

60
Q

pancreatitis has a risk for h___

A

hemorrhage

61
Q

obstruction is ___ danger

A

imminent

62
Q

with obstruction you need to take the vitals because there’s a risk for

A

shock

63
Q

PUD drug regimen must include

A

abx

64
Q

if pt has h/o arthritis, you can assume they are on NSAIDs and therefore have

A

risk for bleeding

65
Q

what complication do you suspect in pt that’s bleeding

A

hypovolemia

66
Q

After someone has had a procedure, you need an order to start

A

feeding

67
Q

Start discharge teaching by asking

A

about the patient about HERSELF

68
Q

with the billroth procedures, watch out for malabsorption of

A

B12

69
Q

3 signs of dumping syndrome

A

dizzy
BM right after eating
BM frequently

70
Q

Dumping syndrome: exercise

A

don’t walk right after eating

71
Q

adhesions are aka

A

scar tissue

72
Q

portal hypertension. think ____

A

varices

73
Q

CEA is a test for

A

cancer

74
Q

If someone was outside the country test for

A

parasites and ova

75
Q

Gastroenteritis: medication do’s and dont’s

A

do give antiemetic

don’t give anti diarrhea

76
Q

vomit smells like feces

A

small intestine block

77
Q

too many enemas can cause what kind of electrolyte problem

A

hyponatremia

78
Q

inflammation causes what kind of fluid imbalance

A

hypOvolemia

79
Q

liver cirrhosis pt might not be allowed to get

A

pain meds

80
Q

2 people who might get gallstones

A

someone that ate a lot of fat and then went on a diet

someone that’s pregnant

81
Q

gallstones: feces is

A

chalky white

82
Q

the biggest issue in ascites is

A

breathing

83
Q

With elevated bilirubin, urine will be

A

dark and frothy

84
Q

With portal htn you need to be worried about

A

decrease CO

85
Q

before and after paracentesis

A

weigh the patient

86
Q

Treat hepatic encephalopathy with

A

lactulose (to decrease ammonia)

87
Q

first sign of hepatic encephalopathy

A

confusion

88
Q

very high ___ puts you at risk for pancreatitis

A

triglycerides

89
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Close personal contact with an infected individual

A

A

90
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Unprotected sex with infected individual

A

B

91
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Infants born to infected mothers

A

B

92
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Contact with infected blood

A

B

93
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Drug abuse

A

B C

94
Q

Hepatitis risk factor: Sexual contact

A

C

95
Q

When do hep B symptoms occur

A

(wide range) 25 to 180 days after exposure

96
Q

What is the incubation period for hep C

A

7 weeks

aa Orgo (196 decks)

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