Med surg test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

perioperative

A

preop, intraop, and postop

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2
Q

Reasons for Surgery: restorative

A

improve the patient’s ability to function

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3
Q

Surgery can be canceled if the patient does not

A

follow instructions

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4
Q

even though the patient should be NPO before surgery, which drugs are usually allowed with a sip of water

A

Cardiac disease
Respiratory disease
Seizures
Hypertension

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5
Q

who obtains signed consent before sedation and/or surgery

A

surgeon

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6
Q

before surgery, the nurse is not responsible for

A

explaining lots of details to the patient

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7
Q

An anxiety Intervention used before surgery

A

distraction

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8
Q

Preoperative Teaching includes 5 things

A
Coughing and deep-breathing 
Extremity exercises
Ambulation
Pain control
Equipment
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9
Q

Before surgery: if malnourished may defer surgery and give tpn and high

A

carbohydrate
protein
vitamin c

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10
Q

Med history:

H

A

Heart disease, renal disease, respiratory disease (copd, asthma),allergies

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11
Q

Med history:

A

A

allergies to anything-fish, chemicals, latex (avocado, banana, carrot, melons, tomato)

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12
Q

Med history:

B

A

bleeding tendencies-asa, coumadin, herbal meds (ginkoba, garlic), vitamin e

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13
Q

Med history:

C

A

cortisone or steroid use

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14
Q

Med history:

D

A

diabetes

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15
Q

Med history:

E

A

history of emboli

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16
Q

Deep Breathing: have patient sit in what position

A

semi fowlers

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17
Q

Deep Breathing: have patient place his hands

A

on his abdomen, to feel if the air is flowing

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18
Q

Deep Breathing: have the patient inhale through his

A

nose until the abdomen distends

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19
Q

Deep Breathing: have the client exhale through pursed lips while

A

contracting the abdomen

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20
Q

Deep Breathing: client should DB every

A

hour on the day of surgery

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21
Q

Surgery positions: hernia, mastectomy, bowel surgery

A

Dorsal recumbent (supine)

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22
Q

Surgery positions: surgery of lower intestines

A

Trendelenberg

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23
Q

Surgery positions: gyn surgery

A

Lithotomy

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24
Q

Surgery positions: kidney, chest or hip surgery

A

Lateral

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25
Q

Surgery positions: some types of neurosurgery/craniotomy

A

Prone

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26
Q

Regional anesthesia includes:

A

spinal, epidural, or caudal

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27
Q

Avoiding wrong site surgery: Ask the patient to mark the surgical site with a

A

permanent marker

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28
Q

For GB surgery; was the __ __ __ explored

A

common bile duct

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29
Q

preferred patient position in the PACU is

A

lateral sims

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30
Q

watch for ___ after extubation

A

laryngospasms

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31
Q

PACU: stay at bedside until the

A

gag reflex returns

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32
Q

What to do in case of shock-

4 things

A

o2,

raise legs above the level of heart,

increase iv fluids unless contraindicatied,

notify anesthesia and surgeon

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33
Q

. Pt must have a minimum temperature of __ before they are discharged form pacu.

A

96.8

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34
Q

The stress response to surgery stimulates the secretion of __ and aldosterone, which cause fluid retention

A

ADH

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35
Q

Until the stress of surgery subsides, urine volume decreases regardless of

A

fluid intake

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36
Q

Discharge from the PACU: SaO2 must be greater than

A

90%

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37
Q

Hypoxia is SaO2 below

A

90%

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38
Q

evisceration- what do you do?

3 things

A

return the pt to bed,

do not try to return organs to abd,

cover wound with sterile dressings moistened with normal saline

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39
Q

PACU: if in the first 2 days the temperature is above 100.4, suspect that the problem is

A

respiratory

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40
Q

PACU: if after 3 days the temperature is above 100.4, suspect that the problem is

A

wound infection,
urinary infection,
resp infection,
phlebitis

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41
Q

Highest incidence of hypoxemia occurs on the __ postoperative day

A

2nd

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42
Q

Orthopaedic-joint replacement (hip)- unique complications:

A

peroneal nerve palsy,
leg length discrepancy,
peripheral neuropathies.

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43
Q

Knee surgery- unique complications:

A

tibial nerve palsy,

poor wound healing

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44
Q

NG Tube is inserted during surgery to promote GI __

A

rest (also lets the lower GI tract rest)

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45
Q

In addition to regular pain meds, an adjuvant may be added such as

A

tricyclic antidepressants like elavil

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46
Q

what is the gauge size needed for a blood transfusion

A

18 to 20

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47
Q

One of the symptoms indicating that you should stop the blood infusion

A

back pain

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48
Q

What do you do after having to stop a blood infusion

A

blood and urine sample

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49
Q

insensible water loss adds up to ___ ml per day

A

900

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50
Q

What volume of urine requires escalation

A

less than 500 ml per day

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51
Q

In dehydration, the urine SG will be greater than

A

1.030

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52
Q

Isotonic fluids

A

NS

Ringers Lactate

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53
Q

Hypotonic fluids

A

D5W (after infusing for a while)

0.45 NS

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54
Q

Hypertonic fluids

A

D5RL

D5/.45NS

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55
Q

Very hypertonic fluids

A

50% dextrose

3% NaCl

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56
Q

too much lactate can cause

A

alkalosis

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57
Q

EFV, pulse rate

A

increased

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58
Q

EFV, pulse pressure

A

decreased

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59
Q

EFV, respiratory rate

A

increased

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60
Q

EFV, quality of respiration

A

shallow

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61
Q

EFV, breath sounds

A

crackles

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62
Q

EFV, skin

A

pale and cool

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63
Q

EFV, GI

A

increased motility

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64
Q

EFV, liver

A

enlarged

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65
Q

EFV, skeletal muscles

A

weakened

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66
Q

EFV outcome: Bun, na, h and h, osmolality approaching normal levels in

A

48 to 72 hours

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67
Q

EFV intervention (besides obvious ones)

A

Mobilize fluid (moving around)

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68
Q

ACE inhibitors can cause retention of

A

potassium

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69
Q

broadly speaking, Na is usually associated with

A

neuro

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70
Q

Biggest reasons that a dehydrated patient is at risk for falls

A

Orth hyp

AMS

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71
Q

People at high risk for fluid imbalance

A
Renal pts 
Acute heart failure (aka CHF)
Elderly 
Babies 
Ppl working outside in the heat
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72
Q

Mg is married to

A

Na

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73
Q

Calcium has a relationship with

A

phosphorus

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74
Q

ESRD has elevated ___ (an electrolyte)

A

phosphorus

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75
Q

Because ESRD has elevated phosphorus, they can get

A

osteoporosis (because the phosphorus draws up and binds to calcium)

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76
Q

Na foods

A

canned vegetables and vegetable juices.

Olives, pickles, sauerkraut and other pickled vegetables.

Packaged mixes, such as scalloped or au gratin potatoes, frozen hash browns and Tater Tots.

Commercially prepared pasta and tomato sauces and salsa.

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77
Q

Which electrolyte can cause dig tox

A

LOW k

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78
Q

DFV, pulse

A

increased

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79
Q

DFV, BP

A

decreased

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80
Q

DFV, SaO2

A

decrease

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81
Q

DFV, pulse pressure

A

narrow (decrease)

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82
Q

DFV, first step is to give

A

O2

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83
Q

DFV, BUN

A

increase

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84
Q

DFV, position

A

semi fowler and elevate legs

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85
Q

What do you look for in patient with dig tox

A

Do you see halos?
N/V?
decreased HR?

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86
Q

DFV, what kind of IV

A

NS (which is isotonic)

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87
Q

Ringers lactate is for someone

A

coming out of surgery, someone with burns

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88
Q

D5W

A

rare, but maybe be used for someone with hypernatremia

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89
Q

0.45 NS can be used for

A

DKA

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90
Q

3% NaCl

A

For severe hyponatremia

Very dangerous

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91
Q

Most dangerous IV fluid

A

3% NaCl

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92
Q

Hemoglobin to hematocrit ratio

A

1 globin to 3 crit

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93
Q

osmolality range

A

270 to 290

94
Q

2 major problems of potassium imbalance

A
respiratory depression (muscle weakness)
Dsrythmia
95
Q

2 major problems of sodium imbalance

A

AMS

Seizure

96
Q

Lymph range

A

20% to 30%

97
Q

A serious complication of infusing IV too fast

A

cardiac arrest

98
Q

Best criteria for urine

A

greater than .5 ml/kg/hr in 24 hours

99
Q

Compazine

A

anti-emetic

don’t give to older adults

100
Q

FVE goals (2 of them)

A

lose 1 pound per day

BS clear w/i 1 hour

101
Q

Lasix complication

A

ototoxicity

102
Q

couple precautions for ESRD

A

limit fluids to 1 liter per day

Limited amount of eggs because they have phosphorus

103
Q

Who might have hypo-magnesium

A

alcoholics

nutrition deficiency

104
Q

Co2 range

A

35 to 45

105
Q

HCO3 range

A

22 to 26

106
Q

Base excess range

A

-2 to +2

107
Q

Constricted pupils can indicate

A

opiod OD

Insulin shock

108
Q

Acidosis, neuro

A
drowsy, 
disorientation, 
dizziness, 
headache, 
coma
109
Q

Acidosis, CV

A

dec bp,
VF,
arrhythmias,
warm flushed skin

110
Q

metabolic Acidosis

A

N/v
diarrhea
abd pain

111
Q

Acidosis, breathing pattern

A

Deep, rapid ventilations

112
Q

Respiratory Acidosis complication

A

Seizure

113
Q

Alkalosis, Neuro

A

lethargy,
dizziness,
confusion

114
Q

Alkalosis, CV

A

tachy,
arrhythmia,
low bp

115
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis, GI

A

N/V

epigastiric pain

116
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis, GI complication

A

anorexia

117
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis, muscles

A
Tetany, 
numbness, 
tingling, 
hyper-reflexia, 
seizures
118
Q

metabolic Alkalosis, muscles

A
tremors, 
hypertonic, 
muscle cramps, 
tetany, 
tingling, 
seizures
119
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis, breathing pattern

A

hyperventillation

120
Q

metabolic Alkalosis, breathing pattern

A

hypoventilation (compensatory mech)

121
Q

What do you treat with paper bag breathing

A

alkalosis

122
Q

Major problem in DKA

A

dehydration (fix with NS)

123
Q

Who might have metabolic acidosis with partial compensation

A

leukemia

124
Q

When looking at AB imbalances, what’s the clue that it’s an acute problem

A

no compensation

125
Q

Mild to moderate DVF is

A

2-5% loss of body weight

126
Q

how long should it take to correct mild to moderate fluid deficits

A

8 to 24 hours

127
Q

a patient with DFV should call the doctor if they’re sick for more than

A

24 hours

128
Q

EFV, HR

A

increase

129
Q

EVF, respiratory findings

A

Sob
doe
moist crackles

130
Q

3 main complications of EVF

A

Pulmonary edema
HF
Skin breakdown

131
Q

Fluid volume excess could be r/t __, __, or ___ failure

A

heart, renal, liver failure

132
Q

In EVF, Bun, na, h and h, osmolality approaching normal levels within

A

48 to 72 hours

133
Q

salt substitutes are high in

A

K

134
Q

EVF, if they gain more than __ pounds, call the doctor

A

3

135
Q

EVF, if they have increased ____ call the doctor

A

fatigue

136
Q

EVF, nursing dx could be ___ ___ ___ related to na and water retention

A

Ineffective airway clearance

137
Q

major sodium functions

A

nerve impulse

regulate acid/base

138
Q

Increased ___ causes increase in osmolality leading to thirst and release of ADH

A

Na

139
Q

Low Na+ causes the kidneys to excrete h2o by __ inhibition

A

ADH

140
Q

Hyponatremia, neuro

A

AMS

141
Q

Hyponatremia, Neuromuscular

A

General muscle weakness (if very weak diaphragm may be imacted)

Diminished deep tendon reflexes

142
Q

Hyponatremia, GI

A

Increased motility, nausea, diarrhea

143
Q

the cardiac symptoms of hyponatremia depend on

A

whether or not there’s EFV DFV

144
Q

Hyponatremia can be r/t

A
burns 
loop diuretic 
hypoaldosterone
npo status
SIADH
HF
145
Q

Hyponatremia goal having to do with BM

A

1-2 BM/day within 1 day

146
Q

Hyponatremia goal, no s___

A

seizures

147
Q

Hyponatremia: Never give more than 3 __ ___ ___ without notifying the md

A

tap water enemas

148
Q

Use __ to irrigate gastric tube

A

NS

149
Q

Hypernatremia: Neurological

A

Altered cerebral function

Seizures (both w too much and too little)

Lethargy, stuporous

150
Q

Hypernatremia: Neuromuscular

A

Muscle twitching and irregular contractions

Severe-muscle weakness-paralysis

151
Q

Hypernatremia: cardiac

A

Decreased cardiac contractility (slow movement of Ca+ into the cells)

152
Q

Hypernatremia: BP and HR

A

??

153
Q

Hypernatremia: Normal levels of Na within ___ days

A

Mild-correction in 8-24 hours

Severe-2-3 days

154
Q

Hypernatremia: meds

A

furosemide, bumetanide (both diuretics)

155
Q

Hypokalemia: assessment of meds

A
Diuretics, 
beta agonists, 
antagonists
K supplements
Digoxin
156
Q

Hypokalemia: Resp

A

Changes due to muscle weakness

Assess rate, effort, O2

157
Q

Hypokalemia: GI

A

decreased peristalsis

158
Q

Hypokalemia: Neuro

A

AMS

Lethargy

159
Q

Hypokalemia can be related to

A
diarrhea
Vomiting
Cushings
Steroids 
NPO
TPN
160
Q

Never give K via

A

IVP

161
Q

rate of KCL infusion

A

5-10 meq/hr

162
Q

Hyperkalemia: Neuromusc

A

Muscle twitching,

paresthesia,

flaccid paralysis

163
Q

Hyperkalemia: GI

A

Increased motility

164
Q

High serum K+ decreased the difference between intra and extracellular K (charge)
and ______s excitability

A

INCREASEs. This means that the cells respond to just a little stimuli.
ALL cells in the body.

165
Q

Phosphorus range

A

3 to 4.5

166
Q

Phosphorus is needed for rigidity of ___

A

bones

167
Q

Phosphorus __ ___ balance

A

Acid-base balance

168
Q

Phosphorus role in metabolism of

A

CHO and fats

169
Q

Phosphorus promotes __ and __ activity

A

nerve and muscle

170
Q

Phosphorus releases __ from ___

A

O2 from hemoglobin

171
Q
Calcium range 
Framework bone and teeth
Blood clotting
Transmission of nerve
Strengthens capillary membranes
Skeletal & card muscle contraction
A

9 to 10.5

172
Q

Calcium, 3 of the roles are

A

blood clotting

nerve transmission

muscle contraction

173
Q

Calcium strengthens ___ membranes

A

capillary

174
Q

Hypocalcemia can be caused by ___ intolerance

A

lactose

175
Q

Hypocalcemia: malabsorption of calcium can be caused by

A

celiac

crohn’s

bowel resection

176
Q

Hypocalcemia: neuromusc

A
paresthesias 
muscle twitching 
leg cramps 
tingling 
Chvostek and Trousseau
177
Q

Hypocalcemia: GI

A

Increased peristalsis

178
Q

Hypocalcemia: skeletal

A

osteoporosis

179
Q

Hypocalcemia: keep the room

A

quiet, decreases excitement

180
Q

Hypocalcemia: ___ precautions

A

seizure precautions

181
Q

Hypercalcemia: causes

A
Kidney failure
Use of thiazide diuretics
Hyperparathyroidism
Malignancy
Hyperthyroidism
Immobility
Steroids
dehydration
182
Q

Hypercalcemia: Cardiac

A

Very serious!

Increased HR and BP
Increased risk for blood clots

183
Q

Hypercalcemia: major impact area

A

muscles

184
Q

DVT s/s

A

Swelling in the affected leg.

Pain in your leg. The pain often starts in your calf and can feel like cramping or a soreness.

185
Q

Hypercalcemia: Neuromusc

A

Severe muscle weakness,

decreased DTR,

altered LOC,

psychiatric problems

186
Q

Hypercalcemia: GI

A

Decreased motility

Constipated

187
Q

Hypercalcemia: GU

A

Polyuria

Calculi

188
Q

Hypercalcemia is treated with what IVF

A

NS

189
Q

Hypercalcemia and diuretics?

A

Thiazide no

Furosemide yes

190
Q

Hypercalcemia: can be treated with calcium binders like

A

plicamycin, penicillamine

191
Q

Hypercalcemia: can be prevented with

A

biphosphates

192
Q

Hypercalcemia: 2 procedures that are appropriate for the treatment

A

dialysis

Cardiac monitoring

193
Q

Hypercalcemia: what electrolyte increases calcium secretion

A

NA

194
Q

calcium and phosphorus relationship

A

inverse

195
Q

Magnesium range

A

1.5 to 2.5

196
Q

Magnesium: involved in ___ reactions

A

enzyme

197
Q

Magnesium: Helps the process of ___, contributing to cardiovascular regulation

A

vasodilation

198
Q

Magnesium: found in what what kingdom

A

plants (other stuff to)

199
Q

Magnesium: ___ ___ stabilizer

A

Excitable membrane stabilizer

200
Q

Hypomagnesmia: drugs that cause it

A

diruretics,

aminoglycoside,

cisplatin,

cyclosporine

201
Q

Hypomagnesmia: caused by something related to stool

A

Steatorrhea

202
Q

Hypomagnesmia: ___ ingestion

A

ethanol

203
Q

Hypomagnesmia: neuromusc

A

Hyperactive DTR, numbness and tingling, painful muscle contractions

May occur w low Ca+

Muscle weakness

204
Q

Hypomagnesmia: neuro

A

Psychological depression and confusion

205
Q

Hypomagnesmia: GI

A

reduced motility

206
Q

Hypomagnesemia: when treating with IV Mg, every hour assess for __ and __

A

DTR and BP

207
Q

Hypomagnesemia: when treating with IV Mg, the person’s face may flush. What do you do

A

slow down infusion rate

208
Q

Hypomagnesemia: administer prescribed oral agents such as mg oxide
tabs or ___

A

antacid

209
Q

Hypomagnesemia: check for ___ toxicity

A

digitalis

210
Q

Hypomagnesemia: iv replacement with mgso4 for severe deficits at a rate no faster than
___ mg/min

A

150

211
Q

Hypermagnesemia: can be caused by excess intake of

A

antacids or laxatives

212
Q

Hypermagnesemia: all s/s

A

flushing,

increased perspiration,

muscular weakness,

DTR

n/v,

hypotension,

dysrhythmias,

resp compromise

213
Q

Hypermagnesemia: monitor their LOC for

A

sedation

214
Q

Hypermagnesemia: monitor VS for

A

hypotension

215
Q

ABG: abnormal ph and a change in one blood parameter

A

Uncompensated

216
Q

ABG: change in ph, and abnormal parameter associated with primary
disorder

A

Compensated

217
Q

ABG: ph is normal parameters may still be abnormal

A

Fully compensated

218
Q

ABG: ph is abnormal may have improved toward normal

range, all 3 values are abnormal

A

Partially compensated

219
Q

ABG: all parameters return to normal. Primary disorder is rectified

A

corrected

220
Q

In addition to Troponin and Creatine Kinase increases, the other s/s of MI

A

ST elevation

221
Q

hypokalemia: EKG

A

ST depression, U wave, flat T

222
Q

hypokalemia: pulse

A

Weak thready pulse,

slow to rapid,

irregular

223
Q

hypokalemia: safety risk

A

Orthostatic hypotension

224
Q

Hyperkalemia: HR

A

decreased

225
Q

Hyperkalemia: EKG

A

prolonged pr intervals,

tall T waves,

226
Q

Hyperkalemia: BP

A

decreased

227
Q

Hyperkalemia: cardiac complications

A

VF
ectopic beats,
complete heart block,

228
Q

Hypocalcemia: HR

A

HR fast or slow,

229
Q

Hypocalcemia: pulse quality

A

weak thready pulse,

230
Q

Hypocalcemia: BP

A

decreased

231
Q

Hypocalcemia: EKG

A

prolonged st and qt intervals