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ZUKU NAVLE PREP > Canine Top 20 Diseases - Part 4 > Flashcards

Canine Top 20 Diseases - Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the classic case presentation of a dog with pancreatitis?

A

can be acute, chronic, or subclinical

history of dietary indiscretion/high-fat diet/blunt abdominal trauma

vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal pain, weakness/dehydration

med history of KBr, azathioprine, l-asparaginase, phenobarbital, & thiazide diuretics

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2
Q

what dog breed is over-represented by pancreatitis?

A

mini schnauzers

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3
Q

how is pancreatitis in a dog diagnosed?

A

snap cPL test (very sensitive)

if positive, confirm with spec cPLI test (highly specific for both acute & chronic pancreatitis)

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4
Q

what is seen on abdominal ultrasound of a dog with pancreatitis?

A

enlarged hypoechoic pancreas

hyperechoic peri-pancreatic fat

fluid around the pancreas

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5
Q

T/F: 4-5X elevation of lipase & amylase are only suggestive towards a diagnosis of pancreatitis (only 50% sensitivity/specificity)

A

true

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6
Q

how is pancreatitis treated?

A

aggressive fluid therapy with appropriate additives based on lab work

pain meds - opioids or lidocaine CRI, anti nausea meds, enteral nutrition support

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7
Q

T/F: antibiotics should be avoided if possible when treating a dog for pancreatitis

A

true

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8
Q

what does the prognosis of pancreatitis depend on? what are negative prognostic factors?

A

depends on the severity of disease

multiple organ failure, acidosis, hypocalcemia, peritonitis, & DIC

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9
Q

T/F: corticosteroids are considered to be a cause of pancreatitis

A

false - used to be, but no longer contraindicated

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10
Q

what is the classic case presentation of kennel cough?

A

exposure to or housed with large numbers of other animals

acute onset non-productive cough that may end in a retch

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11
Q

what is the etiology that causes kennel cough?

A

viruses - canine parainfluenza, canine influenza, canine adenovirus-2, & sometimes distemper

b. bronchiseptica

mycoplasma

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12
Q

how is kennel cough diagnosed?

A

history/clinical signs are strongly suggestive

bacterial culture or PCR of bordetella bronchiseptica from nasal or oropharyngeal swabs, TTW, or BAL

thoracic rads - signs of bronchopneumonia if severe

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13
Q

if there is no secondary pneumonia, how long will it take for kennel cough to resolve?

A

7-10 days

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14
Q

what is the recommended treatment for kennel cough?

A

cough suppressants for persistent dry cough - hydrocodone or torb

for bronchopneumonia - antibiotics, nebulization with sterile saline +/- gentamicin, iv fluids, & oxygen therapy

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15
Q

how is kennel cough prevented?

A

vaccination - modified live combo or intranasal can reduce infection rate/severity

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16
Q

T/F: kennel cough is highly contagious, so if an animal needs to be hospitalized for treatment, it needs to be quarantined

A

true

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17
Q

what is the classic case presentation of megaesophagus?

A

regurgitation, coughing/drooling, weight loss, weakness (if due to MG, polyneuropathy, or polymyopathy), & +/- signs of pneumonia

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18
Q

how is megaesophagus diagnosed?

A

thoracic rads - air-filled dilated esophagus +/- secondary aspiration pneumonia best seen on the VD view

test for underlying conditions - MG, ACTH stim for addison’s, free T4 for hypothyroid

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19
Q

how is megaesophagus treated?

A

treat the underlying condition & aspiration pneumonia

upright feeding with gruel or meatballs

cisapride - aid in gastric emptying to reduce esophageal reflux

proton pump inhibitors - help decrease gastric reflux

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20
Q

what breeds are predisposed to congenital megaesophagus?

A

german shepherds, mini schnauzers, & fox terriers

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21
Q

what cardiac abnormality should be ruled out in a puppy with megaesophagus?

A

vascular ring anomaly

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22
Q

what are 2 drugs that can temporarily cause megaesophagus?

A

ketamine & xylazine

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23
Q

T/F: most dogs with megaesophagus usually die secondarily due to aspiration pneumonia

A

true

24
Q

what is the classic case presentation of osteosarcoma?

A

large or giant breed dogs with a bimodal age incidence (1.5-2 years & 7-9 years)

chronic, progressive lameness or acute if there is a pathologic fracture & a cough if pulmonary mets are present

25
Q

what is the classic case presentation of mammary chain tumors in dogs?

A

palpable mammary chain mass or ulceration seen in intact or late spayed females

26
Q

what is the classic case presentation of mast cell tumors in dogs?

A

cutaneous or subcutaneous mass that may shrink/swell intermittently +/- pruritic

if degranulation happens - vomiting, diarrhea, & melena

27
Q

what dog breeds are predisposed to getting mast cell tumors?

A

boxer, boston, goldens, labs, & pugs

28
Q

what is the classic case presentation of canine lymphoma?

A

generalized lymphadenopathy

anorexia, vomiting, weight loss, & dyspnea

29
Q

how are osteosarcomas diagnosed?

A

rads - bony, moth-eaten lysis & periosteal bone formation, thoracic 3 view rads to look for mets

CBC/chem/UA to stage

FNA/biopsy to confirm diagnosis

CT for axial tumors/surgical planning

30
Q

how are canine mammary gland tumors diagnosed?

A

excisional biopsy & histopath

FNA or regional lymph nodes

3-view thoracic rads & abdominal u/s to look for mets

31
Q

how are mast cell tumors diagnosed?

A

FNA cytology - blue or purple staining intracytoplasmic granules

FNA of draining lymph node to evaluate for mets

histopath is required to grade them!!!!

32
Q

how is lymphoma diagnosed?

A

cytology - predominance of lymphoblasts

biopsy required for definitive diagnosis & grading

stage with thoracic rads & abdominal ultrasound

CBC - anemia, thrombocytopenia, & neutropenia with bone marrow involvement

chem - hypercalcemia

phenotype with flow cytometry or IHC to determine if B or T cell

33
Q

how are osteosarcoma tumors treated?

A

mostly palliative - amputation, radiation, & chemo for microscopic disease (doxorubicin or carboplatin)

34
Q

how are mammary chain tumors treated?

A

surgery depends on size/location but best if you can excise with a minimum of 2 cm margins in all planes

inguinal lymph node removal

adjuvant chemo for gross mets or advanced disease

35
Q

how are mast cell tumors treated?

A

surgical excision with 2 cm or greater lateral margins & 1 fascial plane deep

histamine blockers - diphenhydramine, famotidine

chemo/radiation

36
Q

how is lymphoma treated?

A

combination protocol chemo

37
Q

what is the survival time associated with osteosarcoma?

A

4-12 months

38
Q

what percentage of osteosarcomas in dogs are appendicular?

A

75%

39
Q

T/F: 90% of dogs will have clear thoracic rads at initial diagnosis but will develop chest mets even with amputation

A

true

40
Q

T/F: 50% of mammary tumors are benign & 50% are malignant

A

true

41
Q

what are poor prognostic indicators of mammary chain tumors?

A

if > 3 cm, lymph node involvement, or distant metastasis

42
Q

T/F: spaying a dog older than 2 years old will decrease the risk of mammary chain tumors

A

false

43
Q

what locations are mast cell tumors more aggressive?

A

mucocutaneous junctions, prepuce, scrotum, muzzle, digit, pinna

44
Q

T/F: tumor grade of mast cell tumors determine the prognosis

A

true

45
Q

what type of lymphoma has a poorer prognosis, T cell or B cell?

A

T cell has a worse prognosis

46
Q

what dog breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate calculi?

A

mini schnauzers, lhasa apso, yorkies, shih tzus, pomeranians, & mini poodles

47
Q

what dog breeds are predisposed to urate calculi?

A

dalmatians & dogs with portosystemic shunts

48
Q

what dog breeds are predisposed to cysteine calculi?

A

newfoundlands, dachshunds, labs, basset hounds, & yorkies due to a genetic defect causing cystinuria

49
Q

what dog breed is predisposed to silica calculi?

A

german shepherds

50
Q

what are struvite urinary calculi often secondary to?

A

bacterial UTI’s - staph & proteus spp

more common in females

51
Q

what is the classic case presentation of cystitis/cystic calculi?

A

pollakiuria, stranguria, hematuria, & dysuria

inappropriate elimination + malodorous urine

52
Q

how is cystitis/cystic calculi diagnosed?

A

urinalysis - pyuria, hematuria, bacteriuria, & crystalluria

urine culture/sensitivity

rads to look for radiopaque stones

u/s for radiolucent calculi

urolith analysis

53
Q

how are struvite calculi treated?

A

antibiotics for cystitis/struvite calculi

surgical removal or medical dissolution with science diet s/d

prevent recurrence with science diet c/d or w/d

54
Q

how are calcium oxalate/calcium phosphate calculi treated?

A

surgery & treatment of underlying cause of hypercalcemia if present

prevent recurrence with low protein, alkaline urine promoting diet (royal canine urinary SO)

55
Q

how are cysteine uroliths treated?

A

treated with a restricted protein & low methionine diet for 1 month past dissolution & then a low purine diet to prevent recurrent

56
Q

T/F: chronic, low purine diets can cause cardiomyopathy

A

true

ZUKU NAVLE PREP (178 decks)

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