Block 5 Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
Primary delusion
A
Cannot be caused by any other factor- result of schizophrenia
2
Q
Secondary delusion
A
Related to underlying mood
3
Q
Which area of the hypothalamus is importnat in memory?
A
Mamillary bodies
4
Q
Brief psychotic disorder
A
Display of psychotic behaviour such as hallucinations or delusions which occurs after stressful event. It lasts from one day to one month
5
Q
Flight of ideas
A
Rapid shifting of ideas that makes speech difficult to follow
6
Q
Telencephalon
A
Basal ganglia, cerebral cortex (motor + sensory) and lateral ventricles
7
Q
Diencephalon
A
Hypothalamus, thalamus and posterior pitutiary gland
8
Q
Mesencephalon
A
Cerebral aqueduct, cerebral peduncles and tegmentum
9
Q
Metencephalon
A
Pons, cerebellum and 4th ventricle
10
Q
Myelencephalon
A
Medulla and inferior 4th ventricle
11
Q
Mesenchymal cells
A
Give rise to bone marrow, adipose tissue and muscle cells
12
Q
What is the neural plate formed of?
A
Neural tube and neural groove. These will form the neural tube and neural crest.
12
Q
What does the surface ectoderm form?
A
Skin, olfactoy epithelia, eye lens, hair and nails.
13
Q
Neural crest
A
Migration of cells from the neural crest. Progentior for PNS components like cranial nerves, Schwann cells and all ganglia, even adrenal medulla. Forms pia and arachnoid mater only.
14
Q
Mesoderm
A
progenitor for Microglia, phagocytes of CNS
15
Q
Notochord
A
Progenitor for nucleus pulposus. Also it is derived from mesoderm and causes ectoderm ->neuroectoderm and neural plate.
16
Q
Neural tube
A
Develops from neuroectoderm neural tubes fusing. Forms CNS compoennts like oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, brain, spinal cord and glia. It has an anterior neuropore that forms the brain and a posterior neuropore which is the conus medullaris of the spinal cord
17
Q
What is the sulcus limitans?
A
Seperates the ventral motor systems from the dorsal sensory systems
18
Q
What is tingling and weakenss an indication of?
A
Neurodegenerative disorder
19
Q
What is the precursor to the motor neurones?
A
Basal plate
20
Q
What is the precursor to the sensory neurons?
A
Alar plate
21
Q
What is the role of Hox genes?
A
Positioning neurons along the craniocaudal axis, including motor neurons. Guides shape of skeleton for appositional growth
22
Q
Decreased reflex, reduced tone and muscle fasiculations
A
Lower motor neurone lesion in the peripheral nerve. REDUCES everything if LOWER
23
Q
Hypertonia, plantar reflex and fast reflex
A
Upper motor neuron reflex in the CNS, such as cortex, medulla. INCREASES everything if HIGHER
24
Which sensory pathways are anterior?
Sensory: ventral/anterior Spinothalamic for touch and pressure. Spinoreticular tract for awareness.
Motor: Medial corticospinal tract to control ipsilateral muscles.
24
Central cord lesion
Affects the centre of the spinal cord. This reduces the lateral spinothalamic tract for pain and tempareture sensation and medial corticospinal tract for weakness of the upper body
25
Which pathways are posterior?
Dorsal column for vibration, fine touch, propioception. Laterla corticospinal to control contralteral voluntary muscles.
26
What is spastic paresis/paralysis?
Occurs with UMN lesion with stiffness in legs and spasm of muscles
27
What is flaccid paresis/paralysis?
Occurs with LMN lesions with weakness and relaxation of the muscles
28
What is a hemisection lesion of the spinal cord?
One half of the spinal cord is affected. It causes Brown-Sequard syndrome with contralateral spinothalamic and ipsilateral dorsal column pathway. There will be ipsilateral spastic paresis due to corticospinal decussating in medulla
29
What is a transverse lesion of the spinal cord?
All motor and sensory pathways are damaged so there is ipsilateral and contralateral sensory and motor deficit.
30
Lateral nculeus of hypothalamus
Heat and sympathetic nervous system action
31
Subarachnoid mater
Between Arachnoid mater and dura mater containing CSF
32
What attaches the spinal cord to dura mater?
Denticulate ligament- continuation of pia mater
33
What attaches the spinal cord to dura mater?
Denticulate ligament- continuation of pia mater
34
Layers of the skull
SCALP
Skin, dense connective tissue, epicaranial aponeuorsis, loose connective tissue, periosteum eriosteum, , dura -> arachnoid -> pia mater
35
Ejaculation
L1 level of sympathetic nervous system
36
Absoprtion of CSF fluid
Arachnoid villi
37
Where does spinal cord terminate in neonates?
L3
38
Floor of the mouth sensory innervation
Lingual nerve
39
Effect of parietal lobe injury?
Loss of sensation due to somatosensory cortex being in parietal lobe, poor propioception, speech difficulties
40
Effect of temporal lobe injury
Receptive aphasia, visual memory and LTM, control of appetite, thrist and hunger due to location of hypothalaus
41
What is delirium?
Short onset with rapid change. Can be hyperactive and hallucinate or hypoactive and dazed. Theory is high dopamine, glutamate and noradrenaline is the cause
42
Effect of antipsychotics
Reduces dopamine that leads to increased prolactin and extrapyramdal effects. High rpolactin can cause infertility becaus it reduces FSH and LH and reduces libido. Acts on histamine receptor to cause weight gain
43
Antagonism of antipsychotics
Dopamine, histamine and serotonin
44
Lithium
Treatment for bioplar which causes diabetes insipidus by affecting kidney nephron
45
How does tyrosine form dopamine?
Via DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
46
WHere is adrenaline released?
Adrenal medulla
47
What supplies the anterior cerebral artery?
Frontal and parietal lobe
48
What does middle cerebral artery?
Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
49
Branch of the facial artery
External carotid artery
50
What is the precursor of the posterior cerebral artery?
Basilar artery
51
What supplies Broca's area?
Middle cerebral artery
52
Which arteries supply the cerebelllum?
Branches of basilar artery and vertebral artery
53
Which muscle is uninucleate?
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
54
Which muscle does not have sarcomeres?
Smooth muscle because it is not striated
55
Ependymal cells
Line the ventricles and are responsible for CSF production
56
What forms the blood brain barrier?
Astrocytes
57
Which cells are involved in neurodegenerative conditions?
Microglia
58
Effect of serotonin
Increases intestinal moitlity
59
Effect of acetylcholine
Increase salivation and cause dry mouth
60
What is a characteristic of REM sleep?
Beta waves and abolition of muscle tone and dreaming
61
Non REM stage 1
Theta waves
62
Non REM-stage 3
Bedwetting, sleepwalking and night terrors occur at this stage
63
What hormone increases both calcium and phosphate levels?
Vitamin D
64
What hormone increases calcium and decreases phosphate levels?
Parathyroid hormone- increases renal reabsorption and bowel absorption
65
What are the symtpoms of multiple slcerosis?
Attacks myelin sheath of mainly oligodendrocytes and cases vision problems, issues with thinking, depression and axniety
66
What is the primary site of calcium absorption?
Small intestine
67
Horner's syndrome
Disrutpion of sympathetic nerve supply that causes drooping of upper eyelid, constricted pupil and lack of sweat
68
What is the blood supply to Wernicke's area?
Inferior division of left middle cerebral artery
69
Where does infection most easily spread in the CNS?
Loose areolar tissue
70
Broca's area
Superior left MCA
71
Hemiballismus
Involuntary jerking movements caused by contralteral lesion in the basal ganglia
72
Parkinson's
Resting tremor, bradykinesia and rigidity
73
Lesion ot left motor cortex
Decrease in function of right side of the body
74
Alzhiemer's disease
Phosphorylation of tau proteins causing neurofibrillary tangles
75
How does the sympathetic nervous systemaffect the pupil?
Causes the eye to dilate to take in more light
76
Cerebellar dysfunciton
Balance nad gait issues and co-ordination. Can occur in hypothyroidism
77
Where is the major store of calcium found?
Bone as hydroxyapatite crystals
78
What is the cellular effect of high intracellualr Ca2+?
Apoptosis
79
What is the role of calcium in neurons?
Prevents spontaneous depolarisation by regulating Na+ channels
80
What are the form of extracellular caclium?
Diffused free calcium or non-diffused calcium bound to albumin.
80
Where is calcium stored in the cell?
In the endoplasmic reticulum.
81
What is activate vitamin D?
Calitriol/ 1,25 hydroxycalciferol
82
What is the cause of hypercalcemia?
Excess PTH, high bone resorption, low oesteoblast availability, high vitamin D intake, acidosis which reduces calcium binding to albumin. It causes muscle weakness, constipation, reduced reflexes due to less membrane depolarisation.
83
What is the cause of hypocalcemia?
Hypoparathyroidism, hyperthyrodisim with excess calcitonin release, low bone resoprtion, high osteoblast activity, low vitamin D intake, alkalosis which increases albumin binding. Causes high neuron excitabiltiy that leads to tetanus (irregular muscle contraction), tingling/paraesthesia and muscle cramping.
84
Jugular foramen
Accessory nerve, vagus nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve
85
Sciatic nerve
L4 to S3
86
Foramen ovale
Mandibular nerve for muscles of mastication and sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of tongue via lingual nerve. Also has accessory meningeal artery.
87
Foramen rotundum
Maxillary nerve
88
Foramen spinosum
Contains middle meningeal artery which supplys the dura mater
89
Foramen magnum
Contains the vertebral arteries
90
Hypoglossal canal
Hypoglossal nerve
91
Cranial nerve test for gag reflex
Glossopharyngeal nerve
92
Cranial nerve test for torch
Optic nerve for sensation of light and culomotor nerve to cause pupil constriction and facial nerve for blinking
93
Cranial nerve test for rubbing cotton against cornea
Trigeminal nerve for sensation of rubbing and facial nerve for motor action of blinking
94
Where is the majority of CSF produced?
Choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles which contain ependymal cells but is present in all ventricles. Minroly produced by arachnoid mater
95
Sciatic nerve
L4 to S3. Compression causes shooting pain in lower back to feet. Caused by a slipped disc due to herniation of the nucleus pulposus through the weakened annulus fibrosus that occurs with age.
96
What causes intervertebral disc prolapse?
Lifting heavy objects and sitting position.
97
What is brachail neuralgia?
Compression of brachial plexus that causes pain/loss of function in arm and hand
98
What is lumbar pain?
Nerve root compression of the sciatic nerve.
99
What is the cause of extradural haematoma?
Middle meningeal artery, a branch of the maxillary being ruptured which occurs in the space between the arachnoid mater and dura mater
100
Where does cranial nerve 1 and 2 emerge?
Base of forebrain
101
Which cranial nerves from midbrian?
3 and 4
102
Which cranil nerves are in pons?
5, 6, 7, 8
103
Which cranial nerves in medulla?
9,10,11,12
104
Which region of the spinal cord is affected by a prolapse?
Ventral horn which causes a motor deficit
105
Brown Sequard syndrome
Ipsilateral corticospinal and spinocerebellar for motor and dorsal column, contralateral spinothalamic
106
Developmental dysplasia
Hip socket is too shallow to keep femoral head in place. Affects the proximal femur and can cause severe pain and arthritis. ore ocmmon in babies born in breech. Barlow and Ortolain test is used
107
Primary ossification centre
Diaphysis
108
Secondary ossification centre
Epiphysis
109
What separetes the ossification centre?
Epiphyseal growth plate
110
Where does the synovial joint form from?
Interzone area where cartilage is formed via intramembranous ossification. Fibrous joints also form from here and makes the synovial membrane and articular cartilage
110
Where does the synovial joint form from?
Interzone area where cartilage is formed via intramembranous ossification. Fibrous joints also form from here and makes the synovial membrane and articular cartilage
111
Where does the synovial joint form from?
Interzone area where cartilage is formed via intramembranous ossification. Fibrous joints also form from here and makes the synovial membrane and articular cartilage
112
What is a strain?
injurty to muscles/tendons
113
What is osteoarthritis?
Caused by overuse from repetitve movements that leads to joint breakdown. It is not an autoimmune conditions.
114
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammation that causes the vertebrae to fuse
115
Layers of spinal cord
Skin, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flava, epidural space, subdural space, arachnoid space
116
What type of joint is the wrist?
Condyloid joint
117
hat type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint?
Pivot joint for rotation
118
What type of joint is the thumb joint?
Saddle joint
119
How is the spinous process formed?
By lamina posteriorly
120
Trendeenburg gait
Pelvis dips to paralysed side where gluteal muscles are weak
121
What separates the intervertberal discs from the spinal cord?
Posterior longitudinal ligament
122
What is the role of the superior colliculu?
Eye movement and visual processing
123
What is the role of the inferior colliculi?
Auditory processing
124
What is the role of pons?
Hearing, control of facial miscles and sensation
125
CT scan
X rays in a beam around the body tp show structural abnormalities like tumours or injuries
126
PET scan
Absorbace of radioactive tracer to measure brain disorders such as epilepsy or cancer
127
What is the cervical enlargement?
Brachial plexus at C4-T1
128
What is the lumbar enlargement?
Lumbar/sciatic nerve at L2-S3
129
What is the blood supply to the corpus callosum?
Anterior cerebral artery
130
What is the blood supply to the splenium of corpus callosum?
Posterior cerebral artery
131
fMRI
Magnetic field to measure oxygenated blood delivery to the brain via converting H atoms to images
132
Primary auditory cortex
Superior temporal gyrus
133
What is important for the functioning of parathyroid hormone?
Magnesium
134
How does parathyroid hormone affect bone?
Increases calcium levels by binding to osteoBLASTS to signal increased activity of osteoclasts. It is indirect.
135
What is the components of the skull?
Brain, CSF and blood
136
Effect of parathyroid hormone on ions?
Decreases renal phosphate absorption. Increases GI phosphate absorption by increasing vitamin D.
137
What does the subclavian artery form?
Vertebral artery, internal thoracic artery and thyrocervical trunk for inferior thyroid artery
138
Osteomalacia
Softening of bones due to vitamin D deficiency
139
What regulates calcium homeostatsis?
PTH and calcitonin and minorly by calcitriol
140
What regulates calcium absorption
PTH and calcitonin
141
Rickets
Osteomalacia in children with softened/weakened bones due to vitamin D deficiency, calcium or phosphate which causes delayed growth
142
Where is dopamine synthesised in the brain?
Substantia nigra and ventral tegmental are
143
Which muscarinic receptors are located in the sympathetic nervous system?
Sweat glands and eyes for dilation
144
Effect of calcitriol
Increases renal reabsorption of phosphate and osteolysis
145
Where is vitamin D converted into its active form?
Kidneys
146
What happens in liver?
Formation of 1.hydroxycalciferol
147
Action of glycine?
Influx of Cl- for inhibiton
148
Inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord
Glycine
149
Nucleus accumbens
Produces GABA and dopamine. Dopamine from ventral tegmentum binds to nucleus accumbens. Involved in the dopaminergic pathway for pleasure as part of the mesolimbic system. It is invovled in drug addiction
150
Which cells produce calcitonin?
Parafollicular cells of thyroid- calcitonininhibits osteoclasts
151
Glutamate receptor for fast transmission
AMPA receptor which is Na
+ and K+
152
NMDA receptor
Voltage gated Ca2+ channel- activated after sustained glucose release
153
Positive punishment
Adding effect like slapping to deter behaviour
154
Positive reinforcement
Adding effect to encourage behaviour
155
Negative reinforcement
Removing something to encorage behaviour
156
Negative punishment
Removing something to deter behaviour
157
Kainate receptor
Na+ and K+channel
