BLOCK 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Antibiotic vitamin deficiency

A

Vitamin K by eliminating of gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Effect of NSAIDS

A

Reduce prostaglandin production which increases gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rate limiting enzyme in lipogenesis

A

Acetyl coA carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type 1 collagen

A

Bone, skin and tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type 2 collagen

A

Hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type 3 Cartilage

A

Reticular fibre- mutation of blood vessels Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type 4 collagen

A

Basal lamina, basement membrane- targeted in goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type 5 collagen

A

Interstitial tissue- mutated in Ehlers-danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which vitamin is important for forming collagen?

A

Vitamin C which hydroxylates proline and lysine in collagen- deficiency in collagen causes poor wound healing and capillary fragility for gum bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the cause of Ehlers Danlos

A

Abnormality in type 1 and 3 collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does centrosome duplication occur?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which part of the cell cycle is the shortest?

A

Mitosis- specifically anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which part of interphase is the fastest?

A

G2 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which part of the cell cycle is the longest?

A

G1 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of glucokinase?

A

Phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6 phosphoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the energy stores in the body?

A

Glucose, protein, glycogen and fat as trialglycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a short term store of energy?

A

Glucose is the shortest and then glycogen that leasts less than a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the longest store of energy?

A

Trialcglycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is protein used as an energy store?

A

During starvation via gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does glycolysis occur?

A

Glucose activation from glucose -> glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate. This then will undergo substrate level phosphorylation to form pyruvate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the rate limitating steps in glucose activation?

A

Hexokinase to form glucose-6 phosphate and phosphofructokinase to form fructose 1,6 bisphophate which are phosphorylation reactions that require ATP. In substrate level phosphorylation, the final stage via pyruvate kinase requires ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a secondary structure?

A

Folding of protein into alpha helices or beta-pleated sheets due to hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a tertiary structure?

A

Shape of protein due to R group interactions of amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the protein quarternary structure?

A

Shape of protein due to poypetide chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cadherins

A

Cell adhesion molecules which form adheren junctions and homophilic interactions using Ca2+ to connect to cytoskeletin via beta catenin and alpha catenin internal segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Integrin

A

CAM with alpha and beta subunit that dissasociates when ligands bind to signal to intracellular domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Selectin CAM

A

CAM with heterophilic interactions with carbohydrates on selectin proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are adheren junctions?

A

Structural junction that creates mechanical attachments via homodimer interactions with cadherens that support and anchor epithelia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Desmomsomes

A

Localised patches of cell adhesion between desmodein and desmocollin adherin proteins which provide a link to cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tight junctions

A

Formed of claudin and occludins that seal cells to regulate movement of substances in paracellular cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gap junctions

A

Formed of connexin proteins that act as intracellular channels for movement of ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Location of citric acid cycle

A

Mitochondrial matrix. Rate limiting step is isocitrate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycogenesis?

A

Glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorlyase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is calcium mainly absorbed?

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which organelle transports organsims and other oganelles in the cell?

A

Microutbules- formed of alpha and beta-tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where are proteins translated?

A

Cytoplasmic ribosomes on RER

39
Q

Role of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Involved in protein folding before modification at golig apparatus. Synthesises steroids, lipids and phospholipids. Does not have ribsoomes so it is smooth. This organelle is in excess in the gonads and skin oil glands

40
Q

Function of peroxisomes

A

Catabolism of long chain fatty acids

41
Q

Location of lipid synthesis

A

SER

42
Q

Microarray

A

Study gene expression of thousands of genes simultaneously

43
Q

Missense mutation

A

Point mutation that causes different amino acid to be produced

44
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

Mutation that codes for stop codon and shortens chain

45
Q

What is the start codon?

A

AUG

46
Q

WHat is the stop codon?

A

UAA

47
Q

DNA of mitochondria

A

Double stranded circular DNA

48
Q

N-linked glycoslylation

A

Attachment of carbodhydrate to nitrogen atom that occurs in RER

49
Q

Ubiquitination

A

Occurs in proteasome

50
Q

RNA splicing

A

removing introns to form mRNA in the nucleus

51
Q

Fat soluble vitamin

A

Vitamin A, D, E, k

52
Q

Why does the golgi add molecules to proteins?

A

For trafficking by lysosomes

53
Q

Breakdown of large molecules

A

Lysosyme and proteasome

54
Q

Quiscent stage

A

Stage zero where cells no longer divide

55
Q

What stage of the cell cycle determines lengTH?

A

G1

56
Q

Which enzyme unwides DNA strands for copying?

A

DNA helicase

57
Q

Site of ribosome production?

A

Nucleolus

58
Q

Importance of B1

A

Co factor for TCA cycle intermediates

59
Q

Effect of competitive enzyme inhibitors on Vmax?

A

No effect

60
Q

What is the most common type of collagen?

A

Type 1 collagen

61
Q

Silent mutation

A

Single base mutation which does notchange amino acid

62
Q

DNA microarray

A

Shows DNA structure by order of size using a fluroescent tag

63
Q

How do ketone bodies form?

A

Occurs during starvation.acetoacetate, b-hydroxybutyrate and acetone. In the fed state, fatty acid oxidation occurs to convert fatty acids into acetyl coA and acyl coA

64
Q

How are long chain fatty acids synthesised?

A

From acetylcoA

65
Q

What is the function of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

Generate ribulose-5-phosphate for producing amino acids and DNA. Generates NADPH (which is reduced NADP) which is important for fatty acid synthesise and steroid hormones and reduce oxidative stress.

66
Q

Autocrine signalling

A

Acts on cell membrane of the same cell it’s released from such as growth factors

67
Q

Intracrine signalling

A

Acts within cell such as steroid hormones

68
Q

Direct signalling

A

Type of juxtacrine signallingMoves between cells through gap junctions. Present in the heart to allow electrical signals to be generated

69
Q

Paracrine singalling

A

Uses diffusion to reach target cells

70
Q

Juxtacrine

A

Acts on cells with physical contact. Includes gap junctions and notch transmebrnae receptor signalling that translocates to the nucleus.

71
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Voltage gated Na+ channels in between myelin

72
Q

Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Antibodies block voltage gated Ca2+ channels opening and prevent release of acetylcholine for muslce contraction

73
Q

What is the DNA storage molecule?

A

Chromatin

74
Q

Which type of conditio will always be inherited or not affect males?

A

X linked- affected males won’t apss it onto son because otherwise son will be a copy of them since they need the Y to be identical

75
Q

What DNA form is used in transcription?

A

Euchormatin which is unpacked

76
Q

DNA synthesis

A

Requires folate. Dihydrofolate -> tetrahydrofolate via DHF reductase. Tetrahydrofolate donates methylgroup to dUMP -> dTMP. dTMP is a thymine/ a nucleotide monomer to form purine for DNA synthesis.

77
Q

What is flurouracil?

A

Flurouracil (5-FU) is a topical cytotoxic drug to treat cancer. It is converted to F-DUMP which inhibits thymidylate synthase. Thymidylate synthase catalyses the conversion of dUMP -> dTMP (thymine) for thymine synthesis which inhibits gene expression. 5-FU can also be converted in-vivo to FUTP which replaces uracil in RNA to prevent RNA processing.

78
Q

What is the short arm of a crhomosome?

A

P arm

79
Q

What is the action of antibiotics?

A

Block tRNA which is used by prokaryotic enzymes for protein synthesis

80
Q

What is the long arm of a chromosome?

A

Q arm

81
Q

What is ATP turnover?

A

Our total body weight

82
Q

What is an infinte energy store?

A

Adipose tissue

83
Q

How can transcription factors rincrease gene expression?

A

Transcription facotrs can bind to enahncer gene region. Acetylation to histone protein, reducing DNA association for RNA polymerase to access DNA.

84
Q

How can transcription factors reduce gene expression?

A

Bind to promoter gene to block RNA polymerase. They can cause deacetylation of histoe to strongly associate with DNA.

85
Q

What is most polymorphic and used for identification?

A

Microsatellites like a dinucleotide being repeated. MHC is the most polymorphic

86
Q

Genetic maps

A

Estimate of probability of recombination using linkage analysis

87
Q

What is a single nucleotide variant?

A

Single nucleotide base difference

88
Q

Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium

A

Predict genetic outcomes in non envolving population with random mating, large pop no migration, no mutation, no natural selection.

89
Q

Majority of fluid in body?

A

IC fluid which is 2/3

90
Q

What is the majroity of EC fluid?

A

Tissue fluid, then plasma fluid

91
Q

Cause of oedema

A

Inflammation, lymphatic damage, low oncotic pressure due to low protein diet or kidney damage, high evenous pressure, due to tissue damage

92
Q

What causes reabsorption?

A

Negative oncotic pressure due to plasma proteins

93
Q

What causes filtration?

A

Hydrostatic pressure which is increased in oedema due to inflammation or high venous pressure in extreme

94
Q

Specificity

A

specifity is the effect of a drug upon one individual pharmacological action.