Radiology Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sequence from highest to lowest wavelength/strength for ionizing radiation?

A
Gamma: Shorter, higher freq/energy
Xray
UV
Visible
Infrared
Microwave
Radio: longer, lower freq/energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Scintigraphy

A

Radioactive tracer used for imaging organ function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the use for radionuclide Tc-99m?

A

Numerous

Most frequently for bone scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the use for radionuclide Ga-67?

A

Inflammation

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the use for radionuclide In-111?

A

Infection

Tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the use for radionuclide Ti-201?

A

Cardiac Perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 7 variations of nuclear medicine imaging?

A
Bone scan
Myocardial perfusion
HIDA
V/Q
Thyroid scan
PET
SPECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Sclerotic

A

Unhealthy hardeing/thickening of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Lytic

A

Destruction of area of bone by disease/cancerous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Osteomalacia

A

Bone softening due to insufficient mineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the Generalized reasons for Inc/Dec bone density?

A

Inc- Diffuse osteoblastic metastases, osteopetrosis

Dec- Osteoperosis, Hyperparathyroidism, Rickets/osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the Focal reasons for Inc/Dec bone density?

A

Inc- Localized osteoblastic metastases, Avascular necrosis, Paget Disease
Dec- Localized Osteolytic metastases, Multiple Myeloma, Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 3 pitfalls to recognizing Fx?

A

Sesamoids
Accessory ossicles
Unhealed Fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of Comminuted Fx?

A

Butterfly

Segmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 5 types of healing fractures?

A
Periosteal reaction
Delayed union
Nonunion
Malunion
Pseudoarthrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 classifications of arthritis?

A

Hypertrophic
Erosive
Infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the types of Hypertrophic arthritis?

A
Primary
Secondary
Erosive
Charcot
Ca Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How how many Hounsfield units have air, bone, fat, water and soft tissue been assigned?

A
Air: -1000 HU
Bone: 400-600 HU
Fat: -40 -  -100
Water: 0
Soft tissue: 20 - 100
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Radiation causes biological effects at a cellular level in what two ways?

A

Direct damage

Indirectly forming radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 4 examples of testing done by CT that are beneficial for provider and PT?

A
Virtual colon/bronchoscopy
Fx
Coronary angiography
Abdominal pathology
Trauma
Cardiac calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a preferred imaging form for women of childbearing age and during pregnancy?

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the imaging study of choice for imaging female pelvis and pediatric PTs?

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What form of imaging can differentiate cystic verse solid lesions in PTs of all ages?

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

US is the image of choice for what types of PT populations?

A
Female pelvis
Pediatrics
Cystic vs solid lesions
Non-invasive vasculature
Fetal/placental
Real-time fluid aspiration and biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are 4 common evaluation images US is used for?
Cystic vs solid breast masses Thyroid nodules Tendons Newborn spine/brain/hips
26
What type of imaging are MRIs widely used for?
Neurological Soft tissue Masses Female pelvis
27
What are 3 uses of interventional radiology?
Iodine contrast used to view anatomy, pathology or position of implants
28
How are radioisotopes artificially produced?
Neuron enrichment in nuclear reactor or cyclotron
29
What are two examples of naturally occurring radioisotopes?
Uranium | Thorium
30
Define SPECT
Single-photon Emission Computed Tomography | Gamma camera rotates around PT capturing 2D images from numerous angles and formed into 3D images by computer
31
What type of nuclear injection is used during PET scans?
Positron (positive electron) isotope attached to pharmaceutical
32
When is PET scanning most often used?
Diagnosis and treatment f/u of cancer Locate hidden metastases Detect recurrence
33
Define Flat Plate
Plain film of abdomen w/ PT lying supine
34
What is the systematic approach to reading abdominal scans?
1- gas pattern 2- etraluminal air 3- abnormal abdominal calcifications 4- soft tissue masses
35
What is the difference between distended and dilation when reading abdominal CT scans?
Distended- bowel filled w/ normal amounts of air, normal | Dilated- bowel filled with beyond normal amounts of air, abnormal
36
Why would an increase number of air-fluid levels be seen in a PTs colon?
Recent enema Anti-cholinergic meds Anti-peristaltic meds
37
What is being looked for with a supine abdomen view?
Bowel gas patterns Masses Calcifications
38
What is being looked for with a prone abdomen view?
Gas in retrosigmoid colon
39
What is being looked for with a upright abdomen view?
Air/fluid levels in bowel
40
What is being looked for with a upright chest view?
Air/effusions | Pneumonia
41
Supine view is AKA ?
Scout film
42
Define Organomegaly
Evaluation of soft tissue structures in abdomen
43
Define Riedel lobe
Right lobe of liver extending to iliac crest in women
44
Define FAST
Focused Abdominal Sonogram for Trauma | Portable US for unstable PTs to look for free peritoneal fluid
45
What is a FAST exam used in place of?
Peritoneal lavage
46
What are the most commonly injured solid organs from blunt trauma?
Spleen Liver Kidney Bladder
47
What is the most frequently injured organ from blunt and penetrating trauma? What is the preferred imaging technique to locate it?
Right lobe of liver | CT w/ contrast
48
Spleens are usually injured from what mechanism of injury? | What is the imagine method of choice to screen?
Deceleration of unrestrained passengers | CT due to the fact the spleen is the most highly vascular organ
49
What are the most common causes of kidney injuries? | What is the imaging method of choice?
Motor vehicle accidents | CT w/ contrast
50
What causes shock bowel injuries?
Blunt abdominal trauma w/ hypovolemia or hypotension
51
What is the MOA for bladder injuries? | What is the preferred imaging method to detect it?
Pelvic Fx | CT cystogram
52
What is the MOA of urethral injuries? | What is the imaging method of choice?
Pelvic/blunt trauma in males | Retrograde Urethrography RUG
53
What is the difference between luminal and mural?
Luminal- arise from mucosa, polyp/carcinoma | Mural- arise from wall, leiomyomas/lipoma
54
Loops of the GI system have to be in what position for accurate/effective examination?
Fully distended
55
What is the study of choice for diagnosing aspiration?
Esophagography
56
Lumen of the stomach is studied through what form of imaging? Wall thickness and structures outside of the stomach are examined by?
Endoscopy | CT w/ contrast
57
What do the different colors on US mean?
Echogenic- bright/white | Sonolucent- dark/black
58
What is the direction orientation of images produced by US?
Sagital/longitudinal | Transverse
59
What effect is used by US to determine if fluids are heading towards or away from the transducer?
Doppler effect
60
US is the study of first choice for what abnormailities?
Biliary system
61
How can gallstones and biliary sludge be differentiated on an US?
Sludge doesn't produce acoustical shadowing
62
PT undergoing HIDA exams will show what images if cystic duct is obstructed or if the common bile duct is obstructed?
Cystic- tracer won't appear in gallbladder | Common bile- tracer won't appear in small intestine
63
What is the screening study of choice for asymptomatic, pulsatile abdominal masses?
US
64
What is the imaging study of choice for evaluating pelvic masses and pelvic pain in female PTs?
US
65
What is the imaging study of choice for evaluating uterine fibroids?
US- transabdominal or transvaginal
66
When/why are MRIs used to evaluate uterine fibroids?
Complicated surgical case planning
67
What is the imaging study of choice for evaluating ovaries?
US
68
What form of imaging is used to identify the best location to perform a paracentesis to remove ascitic fluid?
US
69
What form of imaging is the best at identifying the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy?
US
70
Define Duplex Sonography
Vascular US with Doppler spectral waveform
71
What is the highest yielding sonographic exam for DVTs examination?
US of symptomatic PT w/ symptoms above the knee
72
MRI imaging is better than CT scans for what two purposes?
Soft tissue abnormalities | Changes in tissue over time
73
What form of imaging is preferred to study bone marrow components?
MRI
74
What is the prototype for generalized increase in bone density?
Carcinoma of prostate
75
Sclerotic lesions that affect the cortex usually cause what abnormality? Sclerotic lesions that affect the medullary cause what abnormality?
Cortex- periosteal new bone formation | Medulla- punctate, amorphous lesions
76
What is the imaging method of choice for studying skeletal metastases?
Radionuclide bone scan
77
What is the imaging method of choice for detecting avascular necrosis?
MRI
78
How is Paget's Disease diagnosed?
Conventional radiograph
79
What are the imaging hallmarks of Paget's Disease?
Thickened cortex Accentuation of trabecular pattern Increased bone size
80
What is the imaging method of choice for bone mass density tests?
Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry DEXA
81
What is the most common primary malignancy of bone in adults?
Multiple myeloma
82
The most common cause of osteomyelitis is what microbe?
Staph Aureus
83
What is the difference between a simple and comminuted fracture?
SImple- two fragments | More than 2= comminuted
84
What is the most common form of arthritis and where does it show?
Primary OA | Hips, knees, hands
85
What is the imaging hallmark of Primary Osteoarthritis?
Marginal osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, narrowing of the joint space
86
What bone abnormality is seen on all forms of arthritis?
Narrowing of joint space
87
Where is erosive osteoarthritis most common?
Proximal and distal interphalangeal joints
88
What is the most common cause of Charcot arthropathy and where is it seen?
Diabetes | Feet and ankles
89
Charcot arthropathy can mimic what other bone disorder?
Osteomyelitis
90
Where is CPPD commonly found in the body?
Wrists cartilage Menisci of knee Hook shaped formations at metacarpal heads
91
What are the 4 types of erosive arthritis?
RA Gout Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis
92
What is the imaging hallmark for RA?
Metacarpal radial deviation | Phalangeal ulnal deviation
93
What type of arthritis has atlantoaxial subluxation
RA | Proximal joints
94
Gout is a formation of what type of crystal?
Calcium urate
95
Define Tophi
Skin manifestation from gout
96
PT presents w/ olecranon bursitis, what is first diagnosis?
Gout
97
What form of arthritis presents with "pencil-cup" deformity
Psoriatic arthritis
98
Where is psoriatic arthritis found?
Distal interphalangeal joints
99
What are the 3 types of infectious arthritis?
Hematogenous- infection located elsewhere Pyogenic Non-pyogenic
100
What is the most common cause of pyogenic arthritis?
Staph Aureus
101
What is the most common cause of non-pyogenic arthritis??
TB in the thoracic spine
102
What are the two types of pyogenic arthritis and what type of damage does it cause?
Indirect- from blood Direct- local infection outside of joint Destroys articular cartilage and adjacent articular cortex
103
Where does non-pyogenic arthritis appear in kids and adults?
Kids- spine | Adults- knee
104
What is the most common skull fracture? | What is the most serious?
Linear | Basilar
105
What is the imaging study of choice for skull fractures?
Unenhanced CT
106
True AP and Lateral shoulder joint x-rays are AKA?
Y-view
107
Where are Bankheart Lesions located? | Where are Hillsack lesions found?
Glenoid | Humoral
108
"Sail Sign" in an elbow is indicative of what?
Hemarthrosis
109
What PT population is a slipped capital femoral epiphyses found in?
Sedentary obese children
110
Define a Mortise view?
Ankle series AP view w/ slight intentional rotation
111
What does the term "conventional radiograph" mean?
Plain film w/out contrast
112
CT numbers can be assigned within what range and means what?
-1000 to 1000 | Measures how much x-ray bean is absorbed by tissues
113
What are two consequences of scattered radiation?
Degrades image quality | Radiates bystanders
114
Radiation can cause damage in what two ways?
Direct molecular damage | Free radical creation
115
Radiation can cause biological damage effects in what ways?
Deterministic- nonrandom when a threshold is met | Stochastic- random w/out meeting a threshold
116
What tissues have a low and high sensitivity for radiation?
Slowly dividing/mature= low | Rapidly dividing/differentiated- high
117
What are 5 uses of x-rays?
``` FAT CD Fx Abdomen air/obstruction Trauma Chest tube Debris ```
118
What are the risks of iodine contrast?
``` Lactic acidosis Asthma Diabetes Renal failure Dehydration ```
119
Define Contrast Induced Nephropathy
Serum Cr increases x 25% from baseline or, inc .5mg/dL 2-7 days post imaging
120
Define Spatial Lattice Relaxation
H+ proton realignment, relaxation process emits energy for image
121
Define Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis
MRI contrast agent side effect on renal system
122
What is the radioisotope used for cancer scans?
Fluorodeoxyglucose
123
What is the study of choice for dysphagia?
Barium esophagram
124
What is the imaging study of choice for examining the stomach lumen?
Endoscopy
125
What is the imaging preference for diagnosing gastric carcinomas?
Double contrast UGI and CT
126
What is the imaging preference for diagnosing duodenal ulcers?
Double contrast UGI
127
What is the imaging choice for examining the aorta?
CT w/ oral contrast
128
What is the imaging method of choice for diagnosing diverticulitis?
CT
129
What is the imaging preference for diagnosing appendicitis?
CT
130
What is the imaging method for diagnosing pancreatitis?
CT
131
What is the first form of imaging used for jaundice PTs?
US
132
Imaging method of choice for female pelvis or renal masses is?
US
133
Define Acoustical Impedance?
How much sound is transmitted vs how much is reflected back
134
What do a large or small acoustic impedance mean?
Large- greater sound reflection (gas/bone) | Small- greater transmission (fluid)
135
Define Echogenic
Hyperechoic | Tissue that reflects many echoes (white)
136
Define Sonoluscent
Hypoechoic/anechoeic | Tissues w/ few/no echoes (dark/black)
137
What is the provider/PT orientation for sonography?
PT head to left | Head up
138
What does US low and high frequency mean?
Low- object is moving away from transducer (Blue) | High- object is moving towards transducer (red)
139
What is the first image choice for biliary system abnormalities?
US
140
What form of imaging has a decreased sensitivity for detecting gallstones?
CT
141
What is the difference in imaging of biliary sludge and gallstones?
Sludge- shadows | Stones- no shadows
142
Define Murphy's Sign
Positive sonogram w/ pain upon compression
143
What is the preferred imaging for acute T1titis?
HIDA
144
What imaging is used for examination of the intra/extrahepatic ducts and pancreatic duct?
US
145
What imaging is used to detect the presence of hydronephrosis?
US
146
How is renal disease progression seen on US?
Parechyma has increased echogenic than liver/kidney
147
When is a full bladder used as an acoustic window?
Transabdominal | Transvaginal= empty bladder
148
Any male PT w/ acute scrotal symptoms receives what imaging?
Color Doppler US
149
What is the image of choice for PTs with asymptomatic pulsatile abdominal masses?
US
150
What image is used for detecting uterine fibroids?
US
151
Transudate will have a ____ US appearance while exudate will have _____
Sonoluscent | Echo
152
What is the earliest sonographic finding in pregnancy?
Gestational sac | Embryo is the first structure seen in a gestational sac
153
What is used for noninvasive assessments of extracranial atherosclerosis?
Carotid US
154
When is US best for detecting DVTs?
Pt s/ pain above the knee
155
Where does osteromyelitis tend to occur in children?
At metaphysis
156
What are 2 examples of incomplete fractures in children?
Greenstick- part of cortex involvement | Torus- compression of cortex
157
There are almost always sesamoid bones in what locations?
Thumb Posterolateral knee- fabella Great toe
158
Where are accessory ossicles almost always found?
Foot
159
Fractures are described using what 4 major parameters?
Number of fragments Direction of fracture Relationship of fragments to each other Open or closed
160
What are the 4 parameters for describing the relationship of fracture fragments?
Displacement Angulation Shortening Rotation
161
What is the sequence of images for diagnosing stress fractures?
Radiograph | Bone scan
162
What is the most common fracture of the elbow in an adult? | What is the most common fracture of the elbow in a child?
Radial head | Distal humerus
163
Hip fractures in older adults are common and frequently related to what other disease?
Osteoporosis
164
What findings would be seen on imaging of primary osteoarthritis?
Marginal osteophytes Subchondral sclerosis/cyst Narrowed joint space
165
Radiologists report says PT is showing signs of juxtaarticular erosion and bony proliferation at tendon insertions, what does the PT have?
Psoriatic arthritis
166
What form of pyogenic arthritis is monoarticular?
Non-pyogenic
167
What is the study of first choice for studying the brain and spine? What is the compromise?
MRI | Brain anatomy is easier w/ CT
168
What fissure separates the temporal from the frontal/parietal lobes?
Sylvian
169
What is the most superior portion of the ventricular system?
Bodies of lateral ventricles
170
What structure separates the cerebral hemispheres and can be seen as calcified in adults?
Falx Cerebri
171
What are some calcified structures that could be seen on CT but are non-pathologic?
Pineal gland Basal ganglia Choroid plexus Falx and tentorium
172
What are some brain structures that can enhance after IV iodine contrast?
Venous sinuses Choroid plexus Pituitary gland and stalk
173
What causes streak artifacts on CT?
Dental fillings Aneurysm clips Bullets
174
What is the study of choice for intracranial and spinal cord abnormalities?
MRi
175
Why is MRI more sensitive than a CT for brain/neurological studies?
Increased contrast and soft tissue resolution
176
What is an MRI less sensitive at detecting when compared to a CT?
Lesion calcification | Cortical bone
177
What is the study of choice for acute head trauma? | What are the first two things to be evaluated?
Unenhanced CT to rule out mass effect and blood
178
Fractures of the cranial vault or most likely to occur at what skull bones?
Temporal | Parietal
179
Why are basilar skull fractures the most serious?
Tears of dura matter and CSF leaks
180
What is the imaging method of choice for facial fractures?
CT
181
What is the most common orbital fracture?
Blow out fracture
182
Define Diffuse Axonal Injury
Prolonged coma after head trauma | Head injury w/ poorest prognosis
183
What is the study of choice for identifying Diffuse Axonal Injuries?
MRI
184
How are most acute stroked initially imaged?
Noncontrast enhance CT
185
How are most acute, nonhemorrhagic strokes found?
CT
186
How are aneurysms detected?
CT angiography | MR angiography
187
What is the imaging method of choice for identifying vestibular schwannomas?
Contrast enhanced MRi
188
What is the image of choice for identifying MS?
MRI
189
Unstable isotopes attempt to reach stability through what processes?
Fission Emit particles- A/B Energy- gamma
190
What is the difference between Gamma Ray and X-ray?
Gamma originate from nucleus | X-ray originates from outside of nucleus
191
What is the most widely used radioisotope?
Tc99m
192
What studies can be performed with a SPECT?
ANY | Especially myocardial perfusion, bone imaging, functional brain imaging
193
What is the downfall of nuclear medicine scanning capabilities?
Can not detect lesions less than 1cm | Resolution= 1cm
194
What is the screening method of choice for detection of osseous metastatic diseases and diagnosing fractures before they're visible?
Bone scans
195
Metastatic bone diseases usually present with a pattern of multiple asymmetric focal areas/hot spots of increased uptake with what important exception?
Multiple myeloma
196
What imaging is done to differentiate between cellulitis and osteomyelitis?
Triple phase bone scan
197
What risk factor is often associated with PEs?
Immobilization after surgery
198
What is the modality of choice for diagnosing PEs?
CT-PA have replaced V/Q scans | VQ performed if PT is allergic to iodine or impaired renal function
199
What is seen on a V/Q scan if a PE is present?
Ventilation is maintained | Perfusion is absent
200
What is the most frequently used nuclear medicine liver study?
HIDA
201
What nuclear med test exposes a PT to ionizing radiation?
PET Scan
202
What are the hallmark imaging signs for avascular necrosis?
Crescent sign- femur | Snow capping- humerus
203
What form of imaging is most sensitive for osteoporosis?
Dexa scan
204
What form of imaging is most specific for pyogenic arthritis?
MRI
205
What form of arthritis shows up as a "Gull Sign" on images?
Erosive osteoarthritis
206
What bone disease has "rat bite" appearance?
Gout
207
What bone disease has a "Rocker Bottom Foot" appearance on imaging?
Charcot
208
What form of bone disease is not found on bone scan?
Multiple myeloma | X-ray
209
What are 3 scenarios that oral contrast is NOT given?
Trauma Rock search study Vascular study
210
What dictates surgical approaches to liver lesions?
Liver vasculature
211
Define Vicarious Excretion of contrast?
Kidneys can't process/keep up with elimination so contrast is eliminated through alternate pathways
212
US computer measures what 3 pieces of info?
Time Frequency Magnitude/amplitude
213
Posterior acoustic shadow means ? | Posterior acoustic enhancement means?
Stone | Cyst
214
Increased frequency has what impact on the penetration?
Decreased
215
______ are echogenic and have an acoustic shadow
Gallstones
216
Where would osteoblastic lesions from osteoblastic metastases be found?
``` Vertebrae Ribs Pelvis Humerus Femur ```
217
What bone is most often involved w/ Paget Disease?
Pelvis
218
What is the difference between postmenopausal osteoporosis and age-related bone loss
Postmenopausal osteoporosis is characterized by increased bone resporption due to osteoclastic activity. Age-related bone loss begins around age 45 to 55 and is characterized by a loss of total bone mass
219
What are some of the findings of hyperparathyroidism on conventional radiographs?
Overall decrease in bone density, subperiosteal bone resorption (especially on the radial side of the middle phalanges of the index and middle finger), erosion of the distal clavicles, well-circumscribed lytic lesions in the long bones called Brown tumors
220
Osteolytic metastatic disease can produce focal destruction of bone. These lesions are most often produced by _______
Focal infiltration of bone by cells other than osteocytes
221
What is the image modality of choice for viewing the medullary canal?
MRI
222
On conventional radiographs, what are the classical findings of osteolytic metastases?
Irregularly shaped, lucent bone lesions (single or multiple. Geographic, mottled, or permeative, in order of decresing size of the most discrete lesion visible). Destruction of pedicles in the spine.
223
Findings of multiple myeloma on conventional radiographs includes:
The most common early manifestation is diffuse and usually severe osteoporosis. Plasmacytomas appear as expansile septated lesions frequently with associated soft-tissue masses. Later in its disseminated form, multiple small sharply circumscribed (described as punched-out) lytic lesions of approximately the same size are present, usually without any accompanying sclerotic reaction around them
224
What imaging modalities are frequently used for earlier diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
Conventional radiographs can take up to 10 days to display the first findings of osteomyelities so that other imaging modalities, such as MRI and nuclear medicine studies are frequently used for earlier diagnosis
225
Which three types of arthritis are usually diagnosed clinically instead of radiologically?
Septic (pyogenic) arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, GoutHemophilia
226
What is the study of first choice in evaluating for the presence of arthritis?
Conventional radiographs. They will demonstrate abnormalities of the articular cortex and the subchondral bone and will provide late, indirect evidence of the integrity of the articular cartilage. MRI is more sensitive in directly visualizing the soft tissues in and around a joint
227
Hypertrophic arthritis is characterized by bone formation, either _______ or _______
Subchondral sclerosis or osteophytes
228
Erosive osteoarthritis is a type of primary OA characterized by more severe _______ and by the development of erosive joint changes. It occurs most often in _______ women
Inflammation. Perimenopausal
229
Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease results from the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in and around joints, mostly in _______. This is especially common in the _______ and the menisci of the knee
Hyaline cartilage and fibrocartilage. Triangular fibrocartilage of the wrist.
230
Chondrocalcinosis can occur in CPPD, hyperparathyroidism, and _______
Hemochromatosis
231
What are the imaging hallmarks of psoriatic arthritis?
Juxtaarticular erosions, especially of the DIP joints of the hands. Bony proliferations at the sites of tendon insertions (enthesophytes). Periosteal reaction along the shafts of the bone. Resorption of the terminal phalanges (or the DIP joints with telescoping of one phalanx into another: pen-in-cup deformity)
232
Desiccation of the disk can lead to release of nitrogen from tissues surrounding the disk resulting in the appearance of air density in the disk space. What is this known as?
Vacuum-disk phenomenon
233
What is an uncovertebral joint (or joints of Luschka)?
Small joint-like strucutres at the lateral edges of C3 to T1
234
Compression fractures of the spine typically occur secondary to _______
Osteoporosis
235
Osteoporotic compression fractures usually involve the anterior and superior aspect of the vertebral body, leading to a _______ deformity (the so-called Dowager's hump)
Wedge-shaped
236
In the spine, metastases may lead to _______. They tend to destroy the _______, including and especially the posterior aspect of the pedicles (differentiate this from osteoporotic compression fractures)
"Compression fractures. Vertebral body. This is different because in osteoporotic compression fractures, the posterior vertebral body and pedicles usually remain in tact"
237
What is the prototype example of a primary malignancy that produces osteoblastic metastases, for men and for women?
Prostate cancer, breast cancer
238
What scan is used for spinal cord metastases?
T99m Bone scan
239
Infection of the disk (diskitis) is almost always associated with _______ of the adjacent vertebrae and it almost alsways spreads hematogenously from infection in another organ . The lumbar region is most commonly involved, and _______ is most often the pathogen
Osteomyelitis. Staph aureus
240
_______ should be considered any time there are abnormalities of the disk space and destruction of the adjacent vertebral body end plates
Diskitis | Osteomyelitis
241
How do internal endosteal healing and external periosteal healing differ?
Internal- indistinctness of the fracture line leading to eventual obliteration of the fracture line. External- external callus formation eventually leading to bridging of the fracture site
242
In what kind of bone do pathological fractures occur?
Bone with a preexisting abnormality
243
What is the gold standard for evaluating the structural intergrity of silicone breast implants?
MRI
244
For a cyst in the breast to meet the definition of benign by ultrasound, it must have what criteria?
Anechoic (echo-free) Enhanced through transmission, Thin back wall