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MPH Review: Round 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Public Health

A

Science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health and efficiency through organized community effort- Winslow

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2
Q

What are the two fundamentals of Epidemiology

A

Diseases do not occur by chance

Diseases are not distributed randomly through a population- indicates how/why the disease process occurred

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3
Q

What are the objectives of epidemiology?

A 
Identify etiology and risk factors
Determine extent within a community
Study history and prognosis of disease
Evaluate existing and new preventative/therapeutic measures
Foundation for policy
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4
Q

What were the three most prevalent disease in 1910?

What were the three most prevalent diseases in 2010?

A

Pneumonia/Influenza, TB, GI

Heart Dz, CA, Other

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5
Q

Mortality from all diseases declined by _% between 1900 and 2010?

A

54%

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6
Q

What are today’s risk factors for causing death?

A

Heart Dz
CA
CVA
COPD

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7
Q

What are today’s lifestyle risk factors?

A 
Tobacco/ETOH
Nutrition
Obesity
Inactivity
Exposures
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8
Q

What do immunizations do?

A 
Prevents: DIDOST
Invasion
Destruction
Damage
Over stimulation
Opportunistic infections
Toxin susceptibility
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9
Q

What are the 3 types of immunity?

A

Active- developed Abs/response from exposure or vaccine leading to memory

Passive- Abs transferred as immune globulins and only last a short time w/out memory.

Herd- protection from those around w/ Abs/response cells and prevent diseases from developing

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10
Q

What are the three components of vaccines?

A

Adjuvant- enhances vaccine to reduce amount of active component required and fewer doses due to stronger immune response

Residual- materials used to grow virus or bacteria in a vaccine

Preservatives/Stabilizers: prevent contamination and maintain potency in multi-dose vials

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11
Q

What are the three forms of adjuvant in vaccines?

A

Shingris
Heplisav
FLUAD

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12
Q

What is the primary form of adjuvant used in US vaccines?

A

Alum

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13
Q

What are the three types of residual materials found in vaccines?

A

ABX
Egg protien
Gelatin

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14
Q

What are the four types of preservatives/stabilizers used in vaccines?

A

Thimerosal
Formaldehyde
MSG
Pheyoxyethanol

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15
Q

For PTs ages 2-59mon, what is the standard vaccine schedule for pneumoccocal vaccines?

A

PCV 13- 2, 4, 6, 12-15mon

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16
Q

What is the catch up dose schedule for pneumococcal vaccines in non compromised PTs?

A

1-4 doses depending on age and past doses

1-2 doses for kids 60-71 months with underlying conditions

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17
Q

If PPSV23 has been given previously, how long must be waited prior to giving PCV 13 in a compromised, hemoglobinopathy, asplenia, renal failure/syndrome PT?

A

8 wks

Then 5 years before giving PPSV 23

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18
Q

If PCV 13 series is completes or at least one dose is given at 6yrs or older, what is the next step for vaccinations?

A

None are needed

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19
Q

What form of the pneumococcal vaccine is given to PTs w/ Diabetes, Heart Dz or Lung Dz?

A

PPSV 23

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20
Q

What is the vaccine regiment for immune compromised, HIV, hemoglobinopathy, asplenia, chronic renal failure/syndrome?

A 
PCV 13
Wait 8 wks
PPSV 23
Wait 5 yrs
PPSV 23
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21
Q

What is the pneumococcal vaccine schedule for PTs with CSF leaks or cochlear implants?

A

PCV 13
Wait 8wks
PPSV 23

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22
Q

Define Contraindication to a vaccine

A

Condition that increases the risk of a serious adverse reaction

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23
Q

What are the four true contraindications?

A

Anaphylactic reaction
Encephalopathy
Pregnancy
Immunocompromised

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24
Q

Define Precaution

A

Condition that may increase the risk of an adverse reaction or affect the vaccines ability to produce immunity

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25
Q

What are the four precautions?

A

Prior allergic reaction
Illness
Pregnancy/breast feeding
Hx of Guillain-Barre

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26
Q

Which vaccines are recommended during pregnancy?

Optimally, when are these given?

A

Inactivated influenza
Tdap
During every pregnancy

27-36wks

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27
Q

Define Adverse Reaction

A

Effect caused by vaccine
Confined to local injection site
Body reactions of fever, malaise, irritable, rash
Gelatin, eggs, ABXs reactions

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28
Q

Define Adverse events

A

Any event following a vaccination

May be a true reaction or coincidence

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29
Q

Adverse events after vaccines include ?

A 
Inflammation
Hypersensitivity
Cellulitis
SIRVA
Derm
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30
Q

What are the four types of dermatologic adverse events from vaccines?

A 
Benign Cutaneous Eruption-
Generalized vaccinia
Non-viral pustulosis
Accrurual papuloveicular eruption
Erythema multiforms
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31
Q

What is the name of the adverse reaction from smallpox vaccine involving the heart?

A

Myopericarditis

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32
Q

What are the five forms of nurological adverse events from vaccines?

A

Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis

Transverse myelitis

Gullain-Barre Syndrome

Brachial Plexus Neuritis

Febrile seizure

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33
Q

What year and act lead to the creation of VAERS?

A

National Childhood Vaccines Injury Act of 1986

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34
Q

What are the three things VAERS helps detect?

A

New/rare events- post-Hep B alopecia
Increased rates of known events- post-measles thrombocytopenia
PT risk factors- myopericarditis

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35
Q

Define Latency Period

Define Incubation Period

A

Time from infection to infectiousness, shorter than incubation period

Time from infection and onset of Sxs but transmission can occur

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36
Q

Define fine Communicable Period

A

Time period an agent can be transferred from infected host to susceptible host

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37
Q

Incubation and Communicable period of Measles

A

14 days for rash

From 4 days prior to 4 days after rash

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38
Q

Incubation and Communicable period of Hep A

A

28-30 days

Latter half of incubation to few days after juandice onset

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39
Q

Incubation and Communicable period of Smallpox

A

7-17 days

Onset of fever Sxs to separation of the scabs

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40
Q

What events take place during a “Quarantine”?

A

Individual- ASx healthy but exposed
Duration- incubation period
Location- home
Basis of Action- rarely used, police power

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41
Q

What events take place during an “Isolation”?

A

Individual- sick
Duration- communicable period
Location- hospital
Basis of Action- common, standard

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42
Q

What are the three parts to the epidemiologic triad?

What is the other, fourth part?

A

Susceptible Host
Causative agent
Environment

Vector

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43
Q

Define Primary/Definitive Host

A

Organism that a pathogen reaches maturity and reproduces in

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44
Q

Define Secondary/Intermediate Host

A

Organism that harbors a sexually immature parasite and is required for completion of life cycle

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45
Q

Define Dead End/Accidental Host

A

Organisms that don’t allow transmission to a definitive host (humans/horses for West Nile)

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46
Q

Define Natural Reservoir

A

Organisms/environment that a pathogen naturally lives and reproduces or one that is depended upon for survivial

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47
Q

A reservoir is usually what key thing for a parasite?

A

Living host of a certain species often without causing disease

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48
Q

Define Carrier

A

Organism that has become infected with a pathogen but doesn’t show any S/Sxs

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49
Q

Define Convalescent Carriers

A

Capable of spreading diseases following a period of illness

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50
Q

What are the modes of transmission

A

Direct: contact, droplet

Indirect: airborne, vehicle, vector

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51
Q

What are three microbes transmitted through direct contact?

A

Herpes
Syphilis
Hookworm

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52
Q

What are three microbes transmitted through droplet spread?

How far do they travel?

A

Pertussis
Meningococcal
Mumps

Less than 1 meter

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53
Q

What are three microbes that are transmitted by vehicle borne?

A

Salmonella
HCV
MRSA

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54
Q

What are three microbes that are transmitted by mechanical and biological vector borne?

A

Mechanical: Shigellosis/Bacillary dysentery, Plague
Biological: malaria, dengue

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55
Q

What type of transmission is a fly carrying shigella from latrines to food?

A

Indirect vector borne, mechanical transmission

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56
Q

What type of transmission is staphylococcal poisoning from a single meal?

A

Indirect vehicle borne transmission, single exposure

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57
Q

What type of transmission is a person sneezing on you in the hallway?

A

Direct transmission, droplet spread

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58
Q

What type of transmission is a cook with poor hand washing and contaminates a salad?

A

Indirect vehicle borne transmission

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59
Q

What type of transmission is a person with TB who repeatedly coughs on a plane?

A

Airborne transmission

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60
Q

What type of transmission is a child with impetigo who hugs you?

A

Direct transmission, person-to-person

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61
Q

Define Incidence

A

Number of new cases of a disease that occur in a specific time period on a population

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62
Q

What is the numerator and denominator of incidence

A

Numerator: number of new cases of a disease
Denominator: average population at risk during a time interval

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63
Q

Incidence is a measure of events and thus a measure of ?

A

Risk

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64
Q

Define Incidence Density

A

Number of new events per person-time

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65
Q

Define Prevalence

A

Proportion of people in a population who have a disease at a specific point in time

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66
Q

Define Point Prevalence

A

Prevalence of a disease at a single point in time

A proportion

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67
Q

Define Period Prevalence

A

All cases during a certain period

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68
Q

Incidence is the ?

Prevalence is the ?

A

Risk of getting a Dz

Odds of having it in a population

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69
Q

What is the prevalence equation

A

P= Incidence x Dz Duration

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70
Q

High prevalence can indicate what two things

Low prevalence can indicate what three things

A

High risk/incidence
Prolonged survival w/out cure

Low incidence
Rapidly fatal
Rapid recovery

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71
Q

Define Herd Immunity

A

Appicable to contagious dseases, indirect protection from dzs for those not immune

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72
Q

Define Herd Immunity Threshold

A

Reached when critical proportion of the population becomes immune and Dz may no longer persist

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73
Q

Define Basic Reproduction Number

A

Average number of new cases in a susceptible, well mixed population

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74
Q

What is measles’ Ro and HIT?

What is pertussis’ Ro and HIT?

What is influenza Ro and HIT?

A

12-18 92-95%

12-17 92-94%

1.5-1.8 33-44%

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75
Q

Quarantine is covered by what Executive Order and for which diseases?

A 
EO 13295
TB
Cholera
Diphtheria
Plague 
Smallpox
Yellow fever
HVFs
SARS
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76
Q

What are the four groups of people that fall under the exclusion from work?

A

Health care
Day care
Food handler
Law enforcement

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77
Q

What is the mission of Occupational Health

A

Promote health and safety of the workplace and community by focusing on education and surveillance aiming to restore health and productivity

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78
Q

What is the primary role of occupational health in a military setting?

A

Protect service members and DoD civilians

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79
Q

What are the four reasons for Occupational Health

A

Compliance w/ laws
Healthy workforce
Maintain productivity
Decrease costs

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80
Q

What is the purpose of OSHA

A

1970
Federal laws governing OccHealth
Created NIOSH

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81
Q

What is the purpose of ExecOrder 12196

A

1980

Required compliance w/ OSHA except for military battlefield noise

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82
Q

What is the purpose of CFR 1910 and 1960

A

Labor laws providing standards for working environments

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83
Q

What is the purpose of DODI 6055.5M

A

Medical surveillance, recognize health risks and hearing conservation

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84
Q

What is the purpose of service regulations

A

Documents that provide legal and regulatory base of army Occupational safety and health program

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85
Q

_____ are HEPA filter surgical masks

A

N-95 respirators/TB masks

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86
Q

What are the reproductive workplace hazards?

A

Blood- HIV and hepatitis
Airborne- rubella, zoster
Physical- vibrations between 5-10Hz

87
Q

When is the reference/initial audiogram performed?

A

Within 30 days of initial exposure to hazardous noises after a 14hr period w/out noise and is the first valid hearing test

88
Q

Dead bodies do not pose a communicable disease hazard except for when?

A

Death from cholera

Viral hemorrhagic fevers or Epidemic typhus (louse-borne)

89
Q

What are the four infectious sources of mortality consistently associated with humanitarian emergencies?

A

Diarrhea
ARI
Measles
Vector-bonre (malaria)

90
Q

What is the goal of diarrhea disease case management?

A

Preventing death from dehydration and circulatory collapse

91
Q

When are ABX used in diarrhea diseases?

A

Moderate-Severe Cholera
Dysentery (Bacillary, Amoebic)
Giardiasis

92
Q

What are the WHO recommendations for oral rehydration during diarrhea management?

A

Osmolality between 200-310

Equal glucose/sodium

93
Q

What are the S/Sxs of influenza

A 
Fever
Dry cough
Myalgia
Coryza
Sore throat
Kids- GI Sxs
94
Q

Characteristics of Influenza A

A

Primary reservoir in aquatic birds and humans
Can infect swine, seals, horses
Causes seasonal epidemics
Only one known to cause pandemics

95
Q

Characteristics of Influenza B

A

Infects humans and swine
Seasonal epidemics
Mostly antigenic drift

96
Q

What form of influenza infects cattle?

A

Influenza D

97
Q

What are the H and N parts of Influenza A

A

Hemagglutinin- binds to respiratory cells

Neuraminidase- releases new virions from cells

98
Q

Epidemic and pandemics of Influenza A are due to ?

A

Antigenic Shifts

99
Q

When is flu season in the Northern and Southern hemispheres?

A 
N= Oct-Mar
S= Apr-Sept
100
Q

What two factors effect how well Influenza does/does not transmit?

A

Humidity- high w/ low humidity

Temps- high w/ low temps

101
Q

Define Trivalent and Quadrivalent vaccines

A

Tri= Two influenza A, One B

Quad= Two As, Two Bs

102
Q

What is the leading cause of mortality in children under 5?

What factor makes this microbe dangerous?

A

Measles

Stays airborne for 2hrs

103
Q

What criteria needs to be met for a Measles Outbreak to be declared

A

Three or more confirmed cases linked in time and space

104
Q

What are the top three complications that can arise from measles?

A

Diarrhea
Ottitis media
Pneumonia

105
Q

What effect does measles have on the body that is not seen in MMR vaccinated PTs?

A

Amnestic effect on Abs for +2mon

106
Q

What complication can arise from measles 7yrs after an infection?

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

107
Q

Regardless if uncomplicated, non-severe or complicated case of measles, what is always given during treatment?

A

Vit A

108
Q

What vaccination is assigned the highest priority during a disaster/emergency situation?

A

Measles

109
Q

Who is the target population during the emergency phase for measles vaccines?

A

6mon-14yrs

If vaccinated between 6-9mon, re-vaccine at 9mon

110
Q

Who is the target population if there’s an insufficient vaccine available?

A

Undernourished 6mon-12yrs
All kids 6-23mon
Kids 24-59mon

111
Q

What are NOT considered contraindications for receiving a measles vaccine?

A 
Malnutrition
Fever 
Resp infection
Diarrhea
HIV
TB
112
Q

Criteria for mild traveler’s diarrhea

A

Tolerable, not distressing

Tx w/ Loperamide or Bismuth subsalicylates

113
Q

Criteria for Moderate traveler’s diarrhea

A

Distressing or interfering
Tx w/ Loperamide or
Adjunct to ABX

114
Q

Criteria for Severe Traveler’s Diarrhea

A

Incapacitating or prevents activities
May use Loperamide,
Should use ABX

115
Q

Acute traveler’s diarrhea is treated ?

When is micro testing indicated?

When is multiplex molecular Dx preferred?

A

Empirically

Severe/persistent or empiric failures

Persistent/chronic Sxs

116
Q

What medication is used empirically as first line for SE Asia/India travel to cover fluoroquine resistant Campylobacter/ETEC

A

Azithromycin or,

Cipro

117
Q

What is the preferred regime for dysentery or febrile diarrhea

A

Azithromycin

118
Q

When is Rifaximin NOT used?

A

Suspicion for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, or invasive bacteria

119
Q

Chemoprophylaxis is not routinely recommended for Traveler’s Diarrhea, but if requested by the PT, what is used?

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

2oz or 2 tabs 4x/day

120
Q

ABX are NOT recommended for Traveler’s Diarrhea, but possible use if what criteria are met?

What is the best option if an ABX is necessary

A

Immune suppressed
Crohns
UC
Chronic diarrhea

Rifaximin

121
Q

PO2 at 10,000 ft is __% of that at sea level

A

70%

122
Q

What causes altitude sickness?

A

Mild/moderate hypoxia

123
Q

What are the S/Sxs of less severe acute Mtn Sickness?

A 
HA
Fatigue
Loss of appetite
Nausea
Insomnia
124
Q

What medication is used for prophylaxis and treatment for Altitude Sickness?

A

Acetazolamide 125mg BID

Tx: 250mg BID

125
Q

What travel vaccines are recommended for wide spread risks?

A

Hep A

Typhoid

126
Q

What travel vaccines are recommended for geographic risks?

A

Yellow fever
Meningococcal
Polio
JEV

127
Q

What travel vaccines are recommended for Duation/Activity risks

A

Hep B

Rabies

128
Q

What routine vaccines are recommended for childhood?

A 
MMR
Vericella
DTap
Polio
HiB
Hep A/B
PCV
Rotavirus
Influenza
129
Q

What routine vaccines are recommended for adolescents/Adults?

A 
Tdap
Meningococcal
HPV
Influenza
Pneumococcal
Vericella/Zoster
MMR
130
Q

Define Flaviviradae viruses

A

Single stranded RNA virus found in arthropods (ticks and mosquitoes)

131
Q

What are the two primary hosts of JEV?

A

Pigs and wading birds

132
Q

What type of mosquito carries JEV?

When does it prefer to feed?

A

Culex mosquito

Evening/night

133
Q

What is the leading cause of childhood viral neurological infection and disability in Asia?

A

JEV

134
Q

How old does a PT need to be to get JEV?

A

2mon

135
Q

What are the two sources of medical intelligence?

A

Strategic- NMCI

Tactical- S2/G2

136
Q

What info is provided by NMCI

A 
Assessments
Service assessments
Trends/forecasts
Indications/warnings
Facility database
137
Q

What is the NMCI method for assessing disease risks?

A

Realistic + Endemicity= Potential attack rate

Potential attack + typical severity= Operational impact

138
Q

Focus of NMCI risk assessments are on what three areas?

A

Attack rates
Severity
Operational impact

139
Q

When/where was the largest epidemic of malaria since Vietnam?

A

Somalia due to non-compliance with prophylaxis

140
Q

Which two species of malaria have the potential for relapse?

A

P Vivax

P Ovale

141
Q

Other than Anopheles, how is malaria transmitted?

A

Blood products

Organ transplants

142
Q

Define Hypnozoites

A

Dormant stages of Vivax or Ovale

143
Q

What 3 malaria meds have a long half life and are taken weekly?

A

Mefloquine
Chloroquine
Fafenoquine

144
Q

Which medication’s off label use is primary phophylaxis against malaria?

A

Primaquine

145
Q

Define malaria Suppressive therapy

What 3 meds are used for this?

A

Effective at killing erythrocytic stage and providing a clinical cure

Doxy, Mefloquine, Chloroquine

146
Q

What med must also be taken with all suppressive meds?

A

Primaquine or Tafenoquine for PART against dormant liver stages

147
Q

Define Casual chemoprophylaxis

What 3 drugs are used here?

A

Targets blood and liver stages of malaria

Tafenoquine, Primaquine, Malarone

148
Q

What two drugs are the only approved drugs that act on dormant hypnozoites in liver

A

Primaquine

Tafenoquine

149
Q

What are the ABCDEs of malaria prevention?

A 
Awareness
Bite prevention
Chemoprophylaxis
Dx
Emergency Tx standby
150
Q

What chemical family does permethrin belong to?

A

Pyrethroid

151
Q

How does permethrin kill bugs?

A

Interferes w/ Na channels leading to spasms/death

152
Q

Sequence of sun screen, pain and DEET

A

DEET then paint

Sunscreen then DEET

153
Q

What mosquito carries dengue fever?

When does it feed and in what areas?

A

Aedes, Albopictus

Day time mosquito in urban areas

154
Q

How are Leptospirosis infections acquired?

A

Direct/indirect contact w/ urine

155
Q

What is the most common reservoir for Leptospirosis

A

Brown rat

156
Q

What happens to a Leptospriosis infection if in a human?

What med taken weekly reduces infection?

A

Dead end host

Doxy

157
Q

Characteristics of gonorrhea

A

Second most commonly reported communicable disease

Second most prevalent STI in US

158
Q

How is gonorrhea screening conducted in men and women?

A

Men- NAAT on urine

Women- vaginal swabs

159
Q

What are the last class of treatment drugs recommended for gonorrhea

A

Cephalosporin

160
Q

What is the current treatment combo recommended for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg

Azithromycin 1g

161
Q

Define Expedited Partner Therapy

A

Treatment approach where partners of PTs who tested positive get treatment w/out medical evaluation

162
Q

What two circumstances are expedited partner therapy recommended?

A

Health department unavailable

Concern about prompt eval/Tx

163
Q

What two meds are used during expedited partner therapy?

A

Cefixime

Azithromycin

164
Q

Characteristics of Chlamydia

A

Most frequent bacterial STD in US and 10x more prevalent

165
Q

What is estimated to be the most costly non-viral STI?

A

C Trachomatis

166
Q

What is an intense autoimmune disease which causes multiple inflammatory lesions in brain and spinal cord?

A

Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis

167
Q

What is the screening method for chlamydia in men and women?

A

Men- NAAT on urine

Women- vaginal swabs

168
Q

What is the recommended treatment for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycine 1g PO or,
Doxy 100mg PO 2/day x 7 days

Alternative- Erythromycin 500mg Q4D x 7 days
Ofloxacin 300mg BID x 7 days if pregnant

169
Q

When is follow up testing recommended for chlamydia?

A

If treated w/ Erythromycin or if Sxs recur/persist

170
Q

What are the two most high risk forms of HPV?

A

HPV 16

HPV 18

171
Q

When is HPV vaccination done?

A

11-12yrs
As early as 9
Catch up 13-26
27-45 can be done if a joint agreement

172
Q

When are non-compromised PTs vaccinated for HPV?

A

2 doses if under 15

3 doses if at or over 15

173
Q

What are NOT contraindications for getting HPV vaccine?

A

Abnormal Pap
Genital warts
HPV infection

174
Q

Define Food Infection

A

Organism in food and multiplies until enough are present to cause sickness

175
Q

Examples of indirect transmission?

A

Vector borne

droplet is direct transmission

176
Q

Define food intoxication

A

Toxin is in a food and causes the illness, not the microbe

177
Q

What is an example of a naturally occurring chemical or an introduced chemical?

A

Ciguatera toxin

Poison, Pesticide, leeching

178
Q

Where do a majority of chemical and parasitic food born illnesses come from?

A

Aquatic animals
Chemical- fish
Parasitic- mollusks

179
Q

What are the top 5 pathogens leading to illness but not hospitalization?

A 
Norovirus
Salmonella
Clostridium
Campylobacter
Staph A
180
Q

What are the top 5 pathogens that lead to hospitalization?

A 
Salmonella
Norovirus
Campylobacter
Toxoplasms
E Coli STEC
181
Q

What are the top 5 pathogens that lead to death?

A 
Salmonella
Toxoplasma
Listeria
Norovirus
Campylobacter
182
Q

What microbe is likely to cause non-inflammatory diarrhea?

A

Norovirus

Salmonella non typhi
Yersinia
Shigella dysenteriae
Campylobacter

183
Q

What criteria defines a food outbreak?

What is the exception?

A

Two or more people from different household who eat a common food that is confirmed through lab analysis

Botulism or chemical causes

184
Q

What is the definition for diarrhea and the three sub-types?

A

Loose/water 3x in 24hrs

Acute <14 days
Persistent >14 < 30 days
Chronic >30 days

185
Q

How long for Sxs to show after ingesting preformed toxins?

A

Within 6hrs

186
Q

Facts and Sxs of Clostridium ingestion?

A

One of the most common in US
Occurs in cooked food improperly cooled/stored
Diarrhea and cramps 6-24hrs post-consumption
No fever/vomit

187
Q

Facts and Sxs of Bacilius Cereus ingestion

A

Emetic from improperly cooked food and refrigerated

N/V 1-5hrs post-consumption

188
Q

Facts and Sxs of Scombroid

A

Improperly processed fish high in histidine

Facial flushing, burning/pepper taste, facial rash

189
Q

What kinds of foods do Bacillus Cereus infections come from?

A

Meat/veggie foods cooked and not maintained at temp

190
Q

How is norovirus testing conducted?

A

PCR assay or Quantitative PCR

191
Q

PTs w/ and without Hx of altitude sickness limits for meds?

A

Hx:
Consider- 8-9K
Give- +9K

AHx:
Consider- 9-11.5K
Give- +11.5K

192
Q

What are good and poor prevention/control methods for Norovirus?

A

Soap and water
Alcohol is less effective due to no lipid envelope
Bleach for surfaces

193
Q

What is the leading cause of food born illness, hospitalization and death?

A

Salmonella non-typhoidal

194
Q

What countries have high incidence rates of Campylobacter?

A

Africa

S. America

195
Q

What microbe is only harbored in humans, none in animals?

A

Salmonella

196
Q

How often is typhoid booster needed?

A

VICPS- 2yrs

PO capsule- 5yrs

197
Q

What is the superior method for drying hands?

A

Paper towels

198
Q

What is a prime cause of food borne illnesses?

A

Cross contamination

199
Q

What is the danger growth zone for bacteria?

A

40-140*F

200
Q

How quickly does food need to be refrigerated?

A

Reduce to 40* or lower in 2hrs

If outside temp is higher than 90* refrigerate within 1hrs

201
Q

Define Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary Prevention

A

1- prevent illness onset, imms
2- early dx, screenings
3*- reduction of morbidity/mortality, medical treatment majority

202
Q

What do the USPTF grades mean?

A

A- recommend, substantial
B- recommend, moderate
C- no recommendation, moderate certainty benefit is small
D- no rec, moderate/high certainty no benefit
I- insufficient evidence

203
Q

What part of the post-vaccine issue sequence can lead to a PT receiving a temporary/permanent exemption from that vaccine?

A

Adverse event

204
Q

Define Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis

A

Intense autoimmune disease producing multiple inflammatory lesions in the brain and spinal cord

205
Q

Define Transverse Myelitis

A

Acute inflammation of gray and white matter across both sides of spinal cord

206
Q

Define Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Immune system attacks nerves in legs to arms

207
Q

Define Brachial Plexus Neuritis

A

Inflammation of nerves in shoulder leading to severe arm/shoulder pain and upper arm weakness

208
Q

Measles vaccine if traveling OCONUS

A

asdf

209
Q

What are the Flaviviradae viruses?

A 
Zika
Yellow Fever
Dengue Fever
West Nile
JEV/TBE
210
Q

Define Attack Rate

A

Type of incidence rate applied to a narrowly define population

211
Q

Define Secondary Attack Rate

A

In susceptible people that have been exposed to a primary case

212
Q

What is the vector of scrub typhus?

A

Mite

213
Q

WHat is worse, shifts or drifts

A

Shifts- causes need for new vaccines

ipap (212 decks)

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