Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

IPAP > ClinLab Review > Flashcards

ClinLab Review Flashcards

1
Q

What specimens need to be refrigerated if their delivery to the lab is delayed?

A 
RUSS
Respiratory specimens
Urine
Sputum 
Stool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What specimens need to be kept at room temperatures if their delivery to the lab is delayed?

A

Body fluids
Blood culture
CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What specimens need to be transported on special types of transport medias?

A

Viral- virus transport media
Stool- Carry-Blair media
Stool parasite- Formalin and Polyvinyl Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some of the reasons/criteria specimens can be rejected by the lab?

A

Improper label
Wrong container
Leakage
Unsuitable specimen
Duplicate/repeat specimen- exception= blood cultures for suspected endocarditis
Sterile body fluids not delivered STAT to lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Kids and facial infections

A

Impetigo- nose and lips
Herpes- suckling infant w/ mouth sores
Herpatic whitlow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Infectious endocarditis

A

Inflammation of endocardium/endothelial surface of heart
Valves- if previously damaged
Congenital- affects A/P valves
Acquired- A/M valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acute ABE

A

Rapid/aggressive infective endocarditis occurring during septicemic episode on healthy cardiac valves
Skin flora- Staph A (MRSA)
IVDU- MRSA affecting tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Subacute SBE

A

Gradual infective endocarditis occurig in damaged cardiac calves (congenital, atherosclerotic, rheumatic)
Endogenous oral flora- Strep V or intestinal flora- S Bovis (GI CA)
Skin flora- Staph A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Culture negative HACEK Bacteria for Endocarditis

A 
Haemophilus sp
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacerium
Eikenella
Kingella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the significance of positive blood culture results?

A

True += growth of same organism in repeated cultures

Different organism, different bottle= probable contamination w/ bowel spillage

Growth of normal skin flora= contamination (coag neg staph, coryn, bacillus, propion)

V. Strep/Enterococci- possible endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Considerations for choosing antibiotics for PTs

A

Antibiogram- collection of info obtained from C&S performed in an institution within a time frame (annual)
Provides % of samples for a given organism which were sensitive to a certain ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What info is not provided by an antibiogram?

A

Organism sensitivity to an ABX base on site of infection, location in hospital, average MIC, killing at dose/concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do we determine the ABX drug of choice for PTs?

A

Susceptibility
Cost
Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What organism is at the top of the antibiogram data sheet and what drugs is it most/least susceptible to?

A

E Coli-

Nitrofurantoin, Cephalothin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IgM present in immunoglobulin testing indicates?

A

Current infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IgG present in immunoglobulin testing indicates?

A

Current infection- acute and convalescent

Precious exposure- vaccine or old infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IgA present in immunoglobulin testing indicates?

A

Celiac Dz

Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IgE present in immunoglobulin testing indicates?

A

Allergen testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IgD present in immunoglobulin testing indicates?

A

Unknown function/purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define Titer

A

Way of expressing concentration by serial dilution to obtain approximate quantitative information to compare acute vs convalescent sera
Corresponds to highest dilution factor that still yields + reading (4x inc=acute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens if only an acute sample is submitted for a titer?

A

Cut off value is required and can vary by organism/geography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a Primary Titer response?

What is a Secondary/Re-Exposure Titer?

A

Day 5- 1:4
Day 12- 1: 4

1:256 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens during each phase of a Hep A infection?

A

Incubation- 15-45 days, relative titer levels, HAAG
Early acute- 0-14 days, AST/ALT 1-2mon, Sx, anti-HAV IgM and Total anti-HAV rise parallel
Acute- 3-6mon, toal anti-HAV plateuas, anti-HAV IgM falls off
Recovery- years later, no anti-IgM, only Total anti-HAV present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What globulins are present in a susceptible person?

A

HBsAg neg
anti-HBc neg
anti-HBs neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What globulins are present in a person immune due to natural infection?
HBsAg neg anti-HBc pos anti-HBs pos
26
What globulins are present in a person immune due to a Hep B vaccine?
HBsAg neg anti-HBc neg anti-HBs pos
27
What globulins are present in a person that is acutely infected w/ Hep B
``` HBsAg pos anti-HBc pos anti-HBs neg IgM anti-HBc pos ALT elevated ```
28
What globulins are present in a person that is chronically infected w/ Hep B
``` HBsAg pos anti-HBc pos anti-HBs neg IgM anti-HBc neg ALT elevated ```
29
What will CSF results look like in bacterial meningitis?
PMNs Low glucose High Protein
30
What will CSF results look like in viral meningitis?
Normal glucose | Moderate inc protein
31
What will CSF results look like in fungal meningitis?
Lymphocytes Low glucose High protein
32
What will CSF results look like in parasitic meningitis?
Eosinophils Norm/low glucose High protein
33
What bacteria cause the most cases of meningitis in elderly?
``` Strep penumo E Coli K pneumoniae S agalactiae L monocytogenes ```
34
What bacteria cause the most cases of meningitis in Adults?
``` Strep pneumo N meningitidis Staph H influenza G Bacilli Strep L monocytogenes ```
35
What bacteria cause the most cases of meningitis in children?
Strep pneumo N meningitidis H influenzae
36
What bacteria cause the most cases of meningitis in neonates?
S agalactiae E coli L monocytogenes Strep
37
What is the most common cause of UTIs in females and males?
E Coli- most common cause S. Saprophyticus- young, sexually active Enterbacteriaceae
38
What is the most common cause of recurrent UTIs?
``` Proteus Psudomonas Klebsiella Enterbacter Entercoccus Staph ```
39
Define uncomplicated cystitis and how is it diagnosed?
+12y/o female non-pregnant, no fever, N/V or flank pain | Dx w/ dipstick UA
40
Define Complicated Cystitis and how is it diganosed?
``` Female w/ comorbid medical condition or ALL male PTs Indwelling foley catheter Urosepsis Hospitalization Dx w/ UA and culture ```
41
How is pyelonephritis diganosed?
UA Culture CBC Chemistry
42
Which microbes cause urethritis?
Gonococcal- N Gonorrhea | Non-Gonococcal- Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma (Adenovirus, Trichomonas Vaginalis, HSV)
43
What is the "traditional" UTI? | Which one is sexually transmitted?
Cystitis | Urethritis
44
What type of sample is sent for urethritis caused by chlamydia trachomatis?
UA Culture + pyuria, - bacteria= chlamydia
45
What type of samples are sent for urethritis caused by N. Gonorrheae
UA and Culture | Pelvic exam d/c for gram stain, culture and PCR
46
What specimens are sent for urethritis?
Urethral/cervical swab Urethral d/c First void urine- 3 ml or more Possibly- rectal or pharyngeal swab
47
What type of Gram stain is positive for Sx males?
+ Gram Negative Diplococcie and WBCs
48
Define Gardnerella Vaginalis
``` Bacterial vaginosis Malordorous gray/white d/c Possible UTI or ASx pH>4.5 + amine test Clue cells seen on saline wet prep ```
49
Increase in vaginal pH suggests what two things?
Bacterial vaginosis | Trichomoniasis
50
Define Candidiasis
Candida albicans- pseudohyphae Intense itch w/ cottage cheese Dysuria Normal pH
51
Define Trichomoniasis
``` Trichomonas vaginalis Frothy green/yello d/c Requires motile organism Inc pH 5.0-6.0 Strawberry cervix Vaginal soreness/dyspareunia Often ASx ```
52
How is vaginal pH measured?
Narrow range pH paper
53
Amine test is AKA?
Whiff test | KOH, inc pH, fishy smell
54
Function of microscopy when evaluating vulvovaginitis lab tests?
Saline wet prep Jerky Trichomonoas Clue cells- bacterial Budding yeast- fungal
55
Function of KOH prep when evaluating vulvovaginitis lab tests?
KOH destroys cell walls of bacteria but not fungi/yeast
56
What are the two spirochete for memory?
Treponema pallidum- Syphilis | Borrelia burgdoferi- Lyme Dz
57
Syphilis direct testing
Skin, placenta, unbilicus Dark field microscopy Definitive Dx
58
Syphilis non-treponemal tests
Screening of serum RPR, VDRL (CSF)- titer +Sensitive - Specific
59
Syphilis treponemal test
Confirmation of serum FTA-ABS, MHA-TP, TP-PA + result for life
60
Steps of syhpilis screening test
1. RPR looks for non-specific Abs cardiolipin 2. RPR titer 3. F/u + w/ confirmation MHA-TP or FTA-ABS
61
What do the results of a syphilis RPR mean?
Pos RPR 1:16 + Neg confirm- false pos RPR | Pos RPR 1:16 + Pos confirm= active Dz
62
What is the follow-up syphilis testing?
Non-treponemal test | Titer of Ab/activity of Dz
63
What is important part of the follow up process of syphilis?
Serologic monitoring | Suggested at 3 6 and 12mon intervals after Tx and must be done w/ same testing assay (RPR or VDRL) for all f/u exams
64
Syphilis testing review has two paths to choose
``` Conventional nontreponemal (VDRL/RPR) then treponemal (TP-PA/FTA-ABS) Reverse treponemal then nontreponemal ```
65
What did the CDC change about treating gonorrhea?
Cefixime is not first line for treatment
66
Characteristics of Chancroid
``` Haemophilus Ducreyi Painful ulcer w/ tender inguinal nodes Necrotic/purulent base w/ ragged borders School of fish/railroad track morphology Dx w/ culture and neg for HSV testgin ```
67
What is the most common STD in the US?
HPV genital warts
68
Define Condyloma Acuminatum
Type 6, 11 Anogenital warts in wo/men
69
HPV can lead to epithelial carcinoma of the ? and what types?
Cervical cancer Low risk- 6 and 11 High- 16 18 31 33 35
70
What med is FDA approved for use in males and females 9-26 for HPV?
Gardasil for types 6 11 16 18
71
How is HPV Dx
Visual ID- 3-5% acetic acid Cytologic exam of cervical cells Molecular ID- anogenital PAP smear- hybrid capture method for ID
72
PAP smears can ID what types of cancer?
Cervical Uterine Ovarian
73
Define PID
Endometriosis, salpingitis, tuboovarian abscess and pelvic peritonitis Usually complication of cervicitis (Gonorrhea or C trachomatis)
74
What are the consequences of PID?
Infertility Ectopic pregnancy Abscess formation Chronic pelvic pain
75
How isa PID diagnosis confirmed?
NAT
76
What are the essentials of a HIV diagnosis?
RNA detected/quantitated by PCR of bDNA Low CD4 Unexplained opportunistic
77
How long does it take for an HIV infection to take place?
Average detection within 25 days Within 3mon of + status 4th generation assays can detect withing 12 days
78
What are the confirmatory tests for HIV 1 and HIV 2
Western blot- HIV 1 Bio-Rad Multispot- HIV 2 Qualitative RNA PCR
79
What does it mean if a 3rd blood specimen is submitted for HIV confirmation and it comes back negative?
PT is not infected
80
When is a Western Blot assay used?
Detect proteins as confirmatory test for + HIV EIA results | RIBA for HCV or Lyme Diz
81
HIV indeterminant status positive results require Abs against ?
One envelope protein | One core protein or one enzyme protein
82
After PT tests positive for HIV what is the next step?
Determine baseline viral load CD4 levels Screen for TB/Hep viruses
83
PTs at risk for HIV should also be tested for ?
``` Hep ABC STIs Herpes TB CXR ```
84
HIV screening is done with ?
ELISA
85
S/Sx of influenza
PTs always have fever, HA and muscle aches | Dry cough
86
S/Sx of URI
Hacking cough Fever in kids Rare HA Sneezing and sore throat
87
Bacterial vs Viral pharyngitis
Bacterial (GAS)- younger, sudden onset, HA, vomit, fever Viral (Coxsackie)- young adults, slow progression, cough, low fever, conjunctivitis w/ Adenovirus
88
Strep pharyngitis is caused by ?
GAS Abrupt sore throat, high fever, HA Huge, swollen tonsils
89
What are the 3 sequelaes of strep pharyngitis
Scarlet fever Rheumatic fever Glomerulonephritis
90
Centor Criteria
``` Tonsil exudate Cervical adenopathy Fever Absent cough 3 or more Sx= swab ```
91
S/Sx of Strep Pyogenes
Scarlet fever Starts w/ fever and sore throat Strawberry tongue
92
S/Sx of Acute Glomerulnephritis
10-14 days post infection Fluid retention, HTN and edema Sx= hematuria, foamy urine, swollen face/ankles/feet/legs
93
S/Sx of rheumatic fever
Kids 6-15y/o starting 20 days after strep/scarlet fever Polyarthritis, carditis, nodules under skin, rapid jerky movement Skin rash
94
Pharyngitis by Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Young adults w/ HA, pharyngitis and lower respiratory Sx | 75% have cough= distinctive from GAS infection
95
Pharyngitis by Chlamydia pneumoniae
Pharyngitis precedes pulmonary infection by 1-3wks
96
Pharyngitis by Neisseria gonorrhoea
Rare cause of pharyngitis
97
Pharyngits by Corynbacterium diphtheriae
Foul smelling gray membrane that can lead to airway obstruction
98
Pharyngitis by Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Similar to GAS and is identical on culture | Gram stain resembles Corynebacterium
99
What causes most cases of pharyngiits
Viruses | EBV, Adenovirus and Coxsackie A virus
100
What are the S/Sx of viral pharyngitis
Enlarged tonsils White exudates Cervical lymphadenopathy Coxsackie- also has herpetic vesicles in posterior pharynx
101
S/Sx of adenovirus pharyngitis
Conjunctivits and pharyngitis | AKA Pharyngoconjunctival fever
102
S/Sx of Herpes Simplex pharyngitis
Herpangina- vesicular lesions | In older PTs can be indistinguishable from GABHS infection
103
S/Sx of Coxsackie virus pharyngitis
Like herpes w/ white nodular vesicles in oropharynx
104
S/Sx of EBV pharyngitis
Mono, looks like a GAS infection | Exudative pharyngitis, retrocervical or adenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly
105
S/Sx of Cytomegalovirus
Older, sexually active PTs w/ higher fever and more malaise | Pharyngitis is not the prominent complaint
106
S/Sx of HIV-1 pharyngitis
Like mono Edema, erythema, aphthous ulcers Lymphadenopathy, fever, myalgia
107
Characteristics of Laryngotracheobronchitis
Croup from Parainfluenza virus Inspiration stridor, non-productive barking cough w/ Sx worse at night Nasal wash submitted to lab for culture/PCR
108
Characteristics of Epiglottitis
HIB cause the three Ds- dysphagia, drooling, distress Hot potato voice Tripod posture CBC, blood and epiglottal cultures- ALERT lab for special growth media
109
Characteristics of Diphtheria
Toxin producing strain of Corynebacterium Diphth. Hallmarks: thick gray/black fiber-like pseudo-membrane on tonsils, uvula and palate Sudden onset w/ fever, bull neck and low fever Treat w/ antitoxin prior to confirmation + culture and toxin assay Alert the lab, reqs special media for growth
110
How is diphtheria spread?
Resp droplets Fomites Food
111
Where does diphtheria first appear?
Skin
112
The Iditarod Dog race is done in honor of what disease outbreak?
Diphtheria
113
Characteristics of Pertussi
Bordatella pertussis B Parapertussis Sx after 7-10 day incubation, starts w/ paroxysms coughing bouts w/ final whoop noise Adults are main carriers w/ chronic cough Alert lab, reqs special growth media
114
What are the 3 stages of Pertussis
Catarrhal- common cold, most infectious time Paroxysmal- whooping, mucus production Convalescent- parosyxms reduce and secondary complications occur
115
How is a lower respiratory tract specimen collected?
Expectorated/Induced Sputum: PT breathes aerosolized 15% sodium chloride and 10% glycerin x 10m FIRST thing in morning Gasric aspirate- only for acid fast bacilli isolation in PTs unable to make sputum
116
What causes bronchiectasis
Destruction and widening of large airways Begins in childhood after infection or foreign object inhalation Congenital- by CF (Burkholderia, Staph A or P Aeruginosa) Acquired through COPD
117
What type of specimen is needed for a bronchiectasis Dx
Sputum for culture
118
Characteristics of The Common Cold
Coronavirus, Adenovirus- pharyngitis, Rhinovirus | Most frequent human disease from contact w/ infected mucoid secretions
119
Common causes of bacterial pharyngitis
``` M pneumo C pneumo N gonorrhea C diphtheria A haemolyticum ```
120
Common causes of viral pharyngitis
``` Adeno Coxsackie EBV HSV Cytomegalo HIV ```
121
What microbes cause Traveler's Diarrhea
``` Shigella Salmonella Campylobacter V Cholerae EIEC, EHEC, EPEC, ETEC ```

IPAP (212 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions