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IPAP > A&P 1: Special Senses > Flashcards

A&P 1: Special Senses Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two classes of sensory modalities?

A

General senses

Special senses

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2
Q

General senses include what two senses?

A

Somatic Senses

Visceral Senses

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3
Q

What is the first step in the process of sensation?

A

Activation of sensory receptors by stimulus

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4
Q

Sensory receptors comprise either _____ or _____

A

Specialized cells

Dendrites of sensory neuron

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5
Q

4 events required for sensation

A

Stimulation
Transduction
Generation
Integration

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6
Q

For stimulation of the sensory receptor to occur, the stimulus must occur within _______?

A

Receptive field of the receptor

Body region where stimulation causes a response

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7
Q

Sensory receptors transduces energy in a stimulus into a _______

A

Graded potential

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8
Q

Sensory receptors can be placed into 3 classifications

A

Microscopic appearance
Origin of stimuli
Type of stimulus

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9
Q

3 classifications by microscopic appearance

A

Free nerve endings
Encapsulated nerve endings
Separated cells

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10
Q

Define Free Nerve Endings

A

Bare dendrites with no structural specialization

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11
Q

Define Encapsulated Nerve Endings

A

Dendrites enclosed in connective tissue capsule

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12
Q

Define Separate Cells

A

Specialized cells that synapse with first order sensory neurons

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13
Q

What do separate cells detect?

A

Hearing/equilibrium hair cells
Photo receptors
Gustatory receptors

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14
Q

Sensory receptors produce what two types of graded potentials?

A

Generator potential

Receptor potential

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15
Q

What produces Generator Potentials?

A

Free Nerve endings
Encapsulated nerve endings
Receptive part of olfactory receptors

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16
Q

A cold-sensitive receptor is an example of what type of sensory receptor?

A

Free Nerve Ending

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17
Q

Lamellated corpuscle is an example of what type of sensory receptor?

A

Encapsulated nerve ending

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18
Q

Of the two types of graded potentials made by sensory receptors, which one is not a first-order neuron?

A

Receptor potential

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19
Q

Define Adaptation

A

Decrease in generator/receptor potential amplitude to a prolonged stimulus

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20
Q

3 examples of rapidly adapting receptors

A

Touch
Pressure
Smell

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21
Q

3 examples of slow adapting receptors?

A

Pain
Proprioception
Chemical

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22
Q

Define somatic sensations

A

Arise from stimulation of sensory receptors in skin/subcutaneous layer in mucus membrane, muscles, tendons, joints and inner ear

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23
Q

Define Cutaneous sensations

A

Somatic sensations that arise from stimulating surface of skin

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24
Q

Free nerve endings of tactile sensations sense what stimuli?

Encapsulated sense what?

A

Itch and tickle

Touch, pressure, vibration

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25
Q

Define Touch Sensation

A

Stimulation of tactile receptors in skin or subcutaneous layer

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26
Q

What are the 2 types of touch?

A

Crude- Something is contacting but can’t determine location, shape, size and texture
Fine- specific information is provided, location, shape, size, texture

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27
Q

Define Pressure

A

Sustained sensation that is felt over larger area than touch due to deformation of deeper tissues

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28
Q

Define Vibration

A

Rapid and repetitive sensory signals from tactile receptors

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29
Q

What are the 2 types of receptors for vibration?

A

Meissner corpuslces- low-frequency vibrations

Pacinian corpuscles- higher frequency vibrations

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30
Q

Define itch

A

Stimulation of free nerve endings by certain chemiclas, possible local inflammatory response

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31
Q

Define tickle

A

Sensations arising from free nerve endings and lamellated corpuscles

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32
Q

Thermoreceptors are unspecialized free nerve endings that respond to changes primarily within the ____ range

A

Innocuous

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33
Q

Where are thermal sensation receptors?

A

Skin
Cornea
Tongue
Bladder

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34
Q

Pain receptors are found in every tissue in the body except?

A

Brain

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35
Q

Tissue irritation/injury release what 3 chemicals that stimulate nociceptors?

A

Kinins
Prostaglandins
K+ ions

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36
Q

Define Kinins

A

Polypeptides that cause vasodilation, increase vessel permeability, and chemotactic agents for phagocytes

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37
Q

Define Prostaglandins

A

Lipids that intensify effects of histamine, kinin and stimulate emigration of phagocytes through capillary walls

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38
Q

Types of pain are differentiated based on?

A

Types of nerve fibers that propagate impulses

Where in the body the type of pain can occur

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39
Q

Fast pain fibers are AKA?

A

Acute
Sharp
Pricking

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40
Q

Pain by location of receptors can be divided into 3 types

A

Superficial
Deep
Visceral

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41
Q

When does referred pain usually occur?

A

Nerve fibers from HIGH sensory input and fibers from LOW input converge on same levels of the spinal cord

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42
Q

What are the 3 types of proprioceptors

A

Muscle spindles
Tendon organs
Joint kinesthetic receptors

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43
Q

Define Muscle spindles

A

Proprioceptors in skeletal muscles that participate in stretch reflexes

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44
Q

Define Tendon Organs

A

Located at junction of tendon and muscle, provide info about changes in muscle force

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45
Q

What is the purpose of Tendon Organs?

A

Protect tendons and muscles from damage from tension

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46
Q

Define Joint Kinesthetic Receptor

A

Provide info about parameters associated with movement of synovial joints

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47
Q

What are the parameters of joint kinesthetic receptors?

A

Pressure
Velocity changes
Tension

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48
Q

Where are joint kinesthetic receptors located?

A

Around articular capsule of synovial joint

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49
Q

Olfaction produces a ____

Gustation produces a _____

A 
O= generator potential
G= receptor potential
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50
Q

Olfactory epithelium consists of what 3 kinds of cells?

A

Olfactory receptors
Supporting cells
Basal stem cells

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51
Q

Olfactory supporting cells are AKA ?

A

Sustentacular cells

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52
Q

Olfactory receptors are what kind of neurons?

A

Bipolar first-order neurons

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53
Q

Each olfactory receptor has what 3 parts?

A

Axon ending in olfactory bulb
Knob shaped dendrite
Cilia projecting from dendrite

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54
Q

What are the olfactory hairs?

A

Cilia projecting from dendrites of olfactory receptors

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55
Q

What is the site of olfactory transduction?

A

Olfactory hairs

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56
Q

How are olfactory responses initiated?

A

Chemical stimulation of odorant molecule that produces a generator potential

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57
Q

What are the olfactory supporting cells?

A

Columnar cells of mucous membrane lining the nose

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58
Q

Supporting cells in the nose provide what 3 things?

A

Physical support
Nourishment
Electrical insulation

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59
Q

What is unique about the basal stem cells?

A

Undergo continuous division producing new olfactory receptors since they only life for a month

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60
Q

What are Olfactory Glands

What are they AKA?

A

Produce mucus

Bowman’s glands

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61
Q

What is the function of the Olfactory Glands?

A

Moisten epithelium

Dissolve ordorants

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62
Q

What CN innervates supporting cells and olfactory glands?

A

CN7

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63
Q

Where do olfactory nerves terminate?

A

Olfactory bulbs- paired gray matter masses

Site of end of first order and synapse with second order neurons

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64
Q

What is formed when olfactory bulb axons extend posteriorly?

A

Olfactory tract

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65
Q

Where is the primary olfactory area?

A

Lateral olfactory area

Site of conscious smell beginning

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66
Q

What is unique about the olfactory pathway?

A

Only sensation that reaches cerebral cortex without synapsing with thalamus first

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67
Q

How do olfactory senses trigger emotion/memory linked responses to odors?

A

Olfactory tract projects to limbic system and hypothalamus

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68
Q

Where do second order olfactory neurons project to?

A

Olfactory bulb to brain to form a sensory map

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69
Q

What kind of deficiency is the cause of many cases of anosmia?

A

Zinc- growth factor for receptors of chemical senses

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70
Q

Taste buds are located in what 4 areas?

A

Tongue
Soft palate
Pharynx
Epiglottis

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71
Q

Taste buds consist of what 3 types of cells?

A

Gustatory receptor cell
Supporting cell
Basal cell

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72
Q

Where is a taste pore?

A

Apex of taste bud

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73
Q

Define gustatory hair

A

Long, single microvillus projecting through taste pore

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74
Q

What is the sequence of cellu progression for gustatory cells?

A

Basal->supporting->gustatory

Gustatory live for 10 days

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75
Q

What is the site of taste transduction?

A

Gustatory hairs

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76
Q

Sweet tastes are associated with what?

Why?

A

Safe food

Requirement for carbs

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77
Q

What is the conventional receptor location for sweets?

A

Tip of tongue

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78
Q

Sour tastes are associated with what?

A

Spoiled foods

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79
Q

What is the conventional receptor location of sours?

A

Back sides of tongue

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80
Q

Bitter tastes are associated with what?

A

Poisonous foods

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81
Q

Where is the conventional receptor location of bitters?

A

Back middle of tongue

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82
Q

Salty tastes are associated with what?

A

Sodium Chloride

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83
Q

Where is the conventional receptor location of salty?

A

Sides of tongue

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84
Q

Umami is the taste of what?

A

Amino acids

Meaty, savory, broth like

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85
Q

Taste buds occur in elevations of the tongue called what?

A

Papillae

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86
Q

What are the 3 types of papillae?

A

Vallate
Fungiform
Foliate- lost during childhood

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87
Q

Define filiform papillae

A

Papillae with tactile receptors to distinguish food textures but can’t taste

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88
Q

What taste has the lowest threshold?

A

Bitter

Sour slightly higher

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89
Q

Define flavor

A

Combination of taste plus odor (retronasal olfaction)

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90
Q

Define retronasal olfaction

A

Volatile food chemicals carried into nasal cavity from behind

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91
Q

Olfactory epithelium can act in what two types of olfaction?

A

Retronasal

Orthonasal

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92
Q

What sense pathway doesn’t have an axon?

What are they called instead?

A

Gustatory

Graded potential produced called receptor potentials

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93
Q

What 3 CNs make up the gustatory pathway?

A

CN 7- anterior 2/3 of tongue
CN 9- posterior 1/3 of tongue
CN 10- throat and epiglottis

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94
Q

Where is the gustatory nucleus?

A

Medulla obonglata

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95
Q

Where do gustatory axons project to from the medulla?

A

Limbic
Hypothalamus
Thalamus

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96
Q

Where is the primary gustatory area?

A

Parietal lobe of cerebral cortex to give conscious perception of taste

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97
Q

3 functions of palpebrae

A

Protect from light
Protect from objects
Spread lubrication

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98
Q

Define palpebral fissue

A

Space between upper and lower eyelids

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99
Q

Define Commissures

A

Angles of the palpebral fissure

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100
Q

Define lacrimal caruncle

A

Medial commissure containing sebaceous and sudoriferous glands

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101
Q

What are the structures of the eyelid from superficial to deep?

A 
Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous tissue
Fibers of orbicularis oculi muscle
Tarsal plate
Tarsal glands
Conjunctiva
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102
Q

Define Tarsal Plate

A

Fold of CT that gives form and support to eyelids

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103
Q

Define Tarsal Glands

A

Secretes fluid to keep eyelids from adhering to each other

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104
Q

Tarsal glands are AKA ?

A

Meibomian glands

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105
Q

Define Palpebral conjunctiva

Define Bulbar conjunctiva

A 
P= lines inner aspect of eyelid
B= on anterior surface of eyeball, covers sclera but not cornea
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106
Q

Define lacrimal apparatus

A

Group of structures that produce and drain tears

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107
Q

What are the 3 parts of lacrimal fluid

A

Salts
Mucus
Lysozyme

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108
Q

How is lacrimal fluid drained into the eye?

A

Excretory lacrimal duct on surface of conjunctiva of upper lid to pass medially over eye ball

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109
Q

What CN innervate the extrinsic eye muscles?

A

CN 3 4 6

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110
Q

Define cardinal directions of gaze?

A

6 of the 8 eye movements that are associated with a single extrinsic muscle

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111
Q

Define Strabismus

A

Imbalance of extrinsic eye muscles so lines of vision are not parallel
Deviant eye input disregarded and becomes functionally blind

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112
Q

What is the layman term for Strabisus?

A

Lazy eye

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113
Q

Define Nystagmus

A

Rapid involuntary movement of eyeballs

Sign, not a disease

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114
Q

What type of nystagmus is more frequent?

A

Horizontal

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115
Q

Define Vestibular Nystagmus

A

Eye movements that occur during/after rotational motion

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116
Q

What is horizontal gaze nystagmus useful?

A

Police use it to test field sobriety

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117
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eye?

A

Fibrous tunic
Vascular tunic
Retina

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118
Q

Define Fibrous Tunic

What are it’s two parts?

A

Superficial coat of eye that is avascular

Cornea and Sclera

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119
Q

Define Cornea

A

Transparent coat that covers iris

Curved so it can focus light

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120
Q

Sclera covers entire eye except for where?

A

Cornea

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121
Q

What is the function of the sclera?

A

Eye shape/rigidity

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122
Q

Define Vascular Tunic

What are the 3 parts?

A

Middle layer of eye

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

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123
Q

What are the functions of the choroid?

A

Vascularized to provide nutrients to posterior surface of sclera

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124
Q

What are the two parts of the Ciliary body?

A

Ciliary process

Ciliary muscle

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125
Q

Define Ciliary processes

A

Contain blood capillaries that secrete aqueous humor

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126
Q

Define Ciliary Muscle

A

Alters shape of lens

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127
Q

When the lens more spherical, what type of vision is allowed?

A

Contracted Ciliary, reduced tension of suspensory ligaments, more spherical shape for closer vision

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128
Q

Where does the iris connect to the eye?

A

Ciliary processes

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129
Q

What does the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic systems alter in the eye?

A

Parasymp- sphincter pupillae (circular muscle) to decrease pupil size
Symp- dilator pupillae (radial muscle) increases puil size

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130
Q

What is the inner coat of the eye?

A

Retina

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131
Q

What does the retina mark the beginning of?

A

Visual pathway

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132
Q

What is the only place in the body where blood vessels can be directly viewed and examined?

A

Retina

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133
Q

What is the optic disc?

A

Site where optic nerve exits eyeball

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134
Q

What two structures are adjacent to the optic disc?

A

Central retinal artery

Central retinal vein

135
Q

What is the function of pigmented layer of the eye?

A

Absorbs stray light to prevent reflection/scattering

136
Q

What is the neural layer of the retina?

A

Outgrowth of brain

137
Q

What are the 3 layers of the neural layer?

A

Photoreceptor
Bipolar
Ganglion

138
Q

What are the 2 zones of the neural layer?

A

Outter/inner synaptic layer

139
Q

What are the two types of photoreceptors found in the neural layer?

A

Rods- low threshold, only see shades of gray

Cone- higher threshold, color vision

140
Q

Define Macula Lutea

A

Exact center of visual axis of eye in posterior retina

141
Q

What is the small depression in the center of the macula lutea and what does it contain?

A

Central fovea, only cones

142
Q

What part of the eye has the highest visual acuity/resolution?

A

Fovea centralis

143
Q

What is the blind spot of the eye?

A

Optic disc, no rods or cones

144
Q

What does age-related macular disease effect in the eye?

A

Degeneration of retina and pigmented layer within macula lutea

145
Q

What kind of vision do age related macular disease PTs have?

A

Retain peripheral

Lose straight ahead sight

146
Q

What are the two types of age-related macular degeneration?

A

Dry- central layer fades due to pigmented layer atrophy/degeneration, no treatment

Wet- new blood vessels form and leak plasma/blood under retina, treated with laser surgery

147
Q

Where is the lens located?

A

Behind pupil and iris

148
Q

What are the proteins of the lens called?

A

Crystallins

149
Q

What is the variably refractive medium of the eye?

A

Lens

150
Q

Define cataract

A

Loss of lens transparency

151
Q

How are cataracts repaired?

A

Removal of lens and implantation of new artificial lens

152
Q

What divides the eye into its two cavities?

A

Lens

153
Q

What are the two chambers of the anterior chamber?

A

Anterior- between cornea and iris

Posterior- behind iris, front of lens

154
Q

What type of liquid is in the chambers of the anterior cavity?

A

Aqueous humor

155
Q

Which fluid makes up the majority of intraocular pressure?

A

Aqueous humor

156
Q

How is aqueous humor made?

A

Filtration of blood by capillaries of ciliary processes

157
Q

Where does aqueous humor flow within the eye?

A

Between iris and lens, through pupil, into anterior chamber, drains to scleral venous sinus at junction of sclera and cornea, returns to blood

158
Q

How often is aqueous humor replaced?

A

90 min

159
Q

What is the Scleral venous sinus AKA?

A

Canal of Schlemm

160
Q

Define Glaucoma

A

High intraocular pressure

161
Q

What type of damage does glaucoma cause on the eye?

A

Optic nerve and retina damage leading to blindness

162
Q

What causes glaucoma?

A

Impaired drainage of aqueous humor

163
Q

Define the ocular angle

A

Canal of Schlemm at vertex of the angle formed by intersection of cornea and iris

164
Q

What are the two types of glaucoma?

A

Closed- posterior chamber pushes iris forward, closing ocular angle, prevents drainage of aqueous humor
Open- abnormality of trabecular meshwork of Schlemm cana impede outflow of aqueous humor

165
Q

How is glaucoma treated?

A

Cholinergic agonists- constrict pupil, contract ciliary muscles, decreases pressure

166
Q

How does glaucoma treatment work in closed or open angle glaucoma?

A

Closed- pupil constriction lowers intraocular pressure by pulling iris away from Schlemm to open angle

Open- ciliary muscle contraction stretches trabecular meshwork to open tubules

167
Q

What is the larger chamber of the eye?

A

Vitreous chamber

168
Q

What part of the eye holds retina against choroid?

A

Vitreous body

169
Q

What part of the eye is phagocytic and provides unobstructed vision?

A

Vitreous body

170
Q

What are the 3 parts of the vitreous body jelly?

A

Water
Hyaluronic acid
Collagen

171
Q

Where does the vitreous body attach to the retina?

What is this junction important?

A

Behind ora serrata at the optic disc

Retinal tears/detachment

172
Q

Define Ora Serrata

What does it mark?

A

Junction between retina and ciliary body

Transition from non-photosensitive area of retina to photosensitive region

173
Q

Where does the vitreous body attach to the Ora Serrata?

A

Anteriorly behind ora serrata

174
Q

Define blepharitis

A

Inflammation of eyelid

175
Q

Diabetic retinopathy is degeneration from what type of diabetes?

A

Diabetes mellitus

176
Q

Define Exotropia

A

Outward turning of eyes

177
Q

Define Keratitis

A

Inflammation/infection of cornea

178
Q

Define miosis

A

Constriction of pupil

179
Q

Define Mydriasis

A

Dilation of pupil

180
Q

Define Ptosis

A

Falling/dropping eye lid

181
Q

Define Scotoma

A

Reduced/lost vision in visual field

182
Q

Define Tonomieter

A

Measures intraocular pressure

183
Q

Define Trachoma

A

Serious form of conunctivitis

Greatest single cause of blindness

184
Q

Define refraction

A

Light passing through transparent substance and passes into second transparent substance with a different density

185
Q

What causes refraction?

A

Light hitting and bending at different times and being refracted

186
Q

What type of lens causes convergence?

What type of lens causes divergence?

A

Convex

Concave

187
Q

How are images received on the retina?

A

Upside down

Left to right reversal

188
Q

Light rays reflect from objects are seen as parallel if they are at least ___ ft from the viewer
Why is this?

A

20ft

Ciliary muscle is relaxed, lens if flat

189
Q

What happen if light rays are received from objects closer than 20ft?

A

Not parallel

Lens must be thicker to focus

190
Q

Define accommodation

A

Ciliary muscle contracts, reduces tension on ligaments, lens becomes more spherical
Increased curvature for near vision

191
Q

Without tension from suspensory ligaments, lens assumes what shape?

A

Convex

192
Q

What happens to make the lens less convex?

A

Ciliary muscles relax

Choroid is spring like pulls lens through ligaments

193
Q

How does the lens become thicker?

A

Ciliary muscle contracts

Choroid stretched, releasing tension on lens

194
Q

Define Near Point of Vision

A

Minimum distance from eye that an object can be clearly focused

195
Q

Define Presbyopia

A

Loss of elasticity of the lens due to age
People need glasses
Glasses need bifocals

196
Q

A normal eye is termed as _____

A

Emmetropic

197
Q

What are 3 refraction abnormalities?

A

Myopia- nearsightedness
Hyperopia- farsightedness
Astigmaism- irregular cornea curvature

198
Q

What causes myopia?

A

Eye is too long relative for focusing power of the cornea/lens

199
Q

What type of image is formed with myopia?

How is this corrected?

A

In front of retina due to eleongated eye/thick lens

Concave lens

200
Q

How does hyperopia occur?

A

Eye is too short relative to focusing power of cornea/lens

201
Q

What type of image is produced with hyperopia?

How is it corrected?

A

Focused behind retina due to shoretened eye/thin lens

Convex lens

202
Q

What causes Astigmatism

A

Irregular curvature of cornea/lens

203
Q

What type of image is produces with astigmatism?

How is this corrected?

A

Blurred/distorted/out of focus

Lens that rotate axis of lens

204
Q

Define binocular vision

What does this provide?

A

Both eyes focus on only one set of objects

Depth and 3D

205
Q

How does binocular vision occur?

A

Light rays from object stike corresponding points of two retinas and each eye sees same image from different angles

206
Q

Define stereoscopic vision

A

Brain fusing binocular vision input into two different images from each eye
“seeing solid”

207
Q

Define Convergence

A

Medial movement of eyes so both are toward object being viewed

208
Q

Where are cones more numerous?

Where are rods more numerous?

A 
Cones= central fovea
Rods= ring around foveal pit
209
Q

What is the cone peak?

A

Central fovea, area with the most cones

210
Q

What part of the rod/cone is the area that light energy is transduced?

A

Outer segment

211
Q

What does the outer segment of the cone look like?

What does the tip of each rod look like?

A

Cone- folds, pleated fabric

Rods= stacked discs

212
Q

When does rod and cone phagocytosis occur?

A

Rod- exposed to light

Cone- darkness

213
Q

What are the 3 structures contained within the inner segment of rods and cones?

A

Nucleus
Golgi app.
Mitochondria

214
Q

What end of the rod or cone expands in the synaptic terminal?

A

Proximal

215
Q

Define photopigments

A

Colored, integral proteins in membrane of outer segment of rods/cones that undergo structural changes when light is absorbed

216
Q

What are the two parts of photopigments?

A

Retinal- derived from Vit A

Opsin- glycoprotein

217
Q

What is the photopigment in rods?

What does it absorb?

A

Rhodopsin

Blue and green

218
Q

What aer the 3 photopigments in cones?

A

Photopsin I- yellow
Photopsin II- green
Photopsin III- blue-violet

219
Q

What portion of photopigment is different in each of the different photopigments?

A

Opsin portion

220
Q

What part of the photopigment is key in transducing light?

A

Retinal

221
Q

What happens to retinal in darkness?

A

Cis-retinal

222
Q

What happens when cis-retinal abosrobs light photons?

A

Trans-retinal

223
Q

Define isomerization

A

Cis to trans conversion

224
Q

Define regeneration

A

Light-induced insomerization of cis-trans causing rhodopsin to decompose
Photopigments need to be re-made
Cis-retinal can rebind to opsin forming functional photopigment

225
Q

What is the normal color of rhodpsin?

A

Red

226
Q

Define Bleaching of Photopigment

A

Presence of light causes cis-retinal converted to trans-retinal
Opsin is without retinal is colorless

227
Q

What enzyme isomerases trans to cis retinal?

A

Retinal isomerase

228
Q

What is causing the painful bright light when someone goes from dark to light?

A

Photopigments being broken down

229
Q

Define nyctalopia

What causes it

A

Inability to see well in low light levels

Low Vit A

230
Q

How many rods synapse with a bipolar cell?

How many rods synapse with a bipolar cell?

A

Rod- 6-600

Cone- 1

231
Q

Convergence of many rods into a single biopolar cells causes _____ light sensitivity and a _____ in image acuity

A

Increase

Decrease

232
Q

Cone vision is ____ sensitive and ____ acuity

A

Less

Higher

233
Q

When does the optic nerve stop and the optic tract begin?

A

Passage through optic chiasm

234
Q

Where does the otpic tract terminate?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus

235
Q

Thalamus forms optic radiation and projects them to where?

A

Primary visual area in occipital lobes of cerebral cortex

236
Q

What is the visual field?

What is the field of binocular vision?

A

VF- everything seen by that eye

FoB- where two visual fields overlap

237
Q

Visual field of each eye is divided into what two regions?

A

Nasal (central half)

Temporal (peripheral half)

238
Q

How is light received from each part of the visual field?

A

Nasal half light fall on temporal half of retina

Light from temporal half fall on nasal half of retina

239
Q

Which optic field does not cross over to the opposite half of the brain?

A

Temporal

240
Q

What part of the eye govern constriction of pupils and coordinate head and eye movements?

A

Axon collaterals of retinal ganglion

241
Q

How is circadian rhythms formed?

A

Collaterals go to suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

242
Q

Define Optic Radiations

A

Projections of axons from thalamus to primary visual area of cortex on the same side

243
Q

Define Amblyopia

A

Loss of visual in a normal eye caused by no/poor transmission of visual stimuli to optic nerve and brain
“Lazy Brain”

244
Q

3 systems within the cerebral cortex process and interpret visual signals based on what 3 input?

A

Shape
Color
Movement/location/spatial

245
Q

What are the 3 regions of the ear?

A

External- collects and funnels sounds
Middle- conveys vibrations to oval window
Internal- receptors for hearing and equilibrium

246
Q

What are the 3 parts of the external ear?

A

Auricle
External auditory canal
Eardrum

247
Q

What is the helix of the ear?

What is the inferior portion called?

A

Outer rim

Lobule

248
Q

Define Tragus?

What structure is opposite to it?

A

Pointed eminence projecting back over meatus

Antitragus

249
Q

What structures are near the region of the outer ear?

A

Mastoid process posterior to lobule

Superficial temporal artery anterior to tragus

250
Q

How/where does the incus articulate?

A

Laterally w/ malleus

Medially w/ stapes

251
Q

Which ossicles produce bulges on the TM and can be viewed?

A

Handle/lateral process of malleus

Long limb of incus

252
Q

What are the 2 skeletal muscles that attach to ossicles?

A

Tensor tympani muscle

Stapedius muscle

253
Q

Where does the Tensor Tympani originate and insert with what CN?

A

Wall of auditory tube
Inserts on handle of malleus
CN5

254
Q

What is the function of the Tensor Tympani muscle

A

Limits movement

Increases tension on eardrum to prevent damage from loud noises

255
Q

Where does the Stapedius muscle origninate, insert and get innervated by?

A

Poasterior wall of ear cavity
Stapes
CN7

256
Q

What is the function of the Stapedius muscle?

A

Dampens large vibrations of stapes due to lout noises

257
Q

What is the smallest skeletal muscle in the huan body?

A

Stapedius muscle

258
Q

What is the visual appearance of a normal TM?

A

Pearly gray and translucent

259
Q

What is the cone of light?

What is it AKA?

A

Reflection of otoscope illuminator

Light reflex- radiates anterioinferiorly in healthy ear

260
Q

The Eustacian Tube is AKA?

A

Auditory Tube

Pharyngotympanic tube

261
Q

What does the Eustacian tube connect?

A

Middle Ear with Nasopharynx

262
Q

What 2 events opens the eustacian tube?

A

Yawn

Swallow

263
Q

Opening the eustacian tube allows pressure to equalize where and prevents what?

A

Middle ear and atmosphere

Pain and vertigo

264
Q

Inner ear is AKA ? with waht 2 divisions

A

Labyrinth

Bony and Membranous

265
Q

What are the 3 areas of the bony labyrinth?

A

Semicircular canas
Vestibule
Cochlea

266
Q

What/where is the membranous labyrinth?

A

Sacs and tubes in the bony labirynth

267
Q

Define Perilymph and its location

A

Similar to CSF surrounding membranous labyrinth

268
Q

Where is Endolyph found?

What does it have a high level of?

A

Membranous lbyrinth

K+

269
Q

Define Vestibule

A

Oval center of bony labirynth and part of membranous in the center

270
Q

What two structures make the vestibule?

A

Utricle

Saccule

271
Q

Where is the oval window?

A

Vestibule

AKA Vestibular window

272
Q

What appearance do the semicircular canals have?

A

Right angles to each other
Anterior/Posterior- vertical orientation
Lateral- horizontal

273
Q

What structure is at the end of each semicircular canal?

A

AMpulla

274
Q

Parts of the membranous labyrinth are in the semicircular canals and are called ? and connect to ?

A

Semicircular ducts

Connect to urticle

275
Q

Define Menieres Disease

A

Increased endolymph
Fluctuating hearing loss
Tinnitus
Whirling vertigo

276
Q

The vestibular branch of CN8 is made of what 3 nerves?

A

Ultricular
Saccular
Ampullary

277
Q

Where are CN8 sensory neuron cell bodies located?

Where are the motor neurons located?

A

Vestibular ganglia

Pons- project to semicircular, saccule and utricle

278
Q

What is the center of the chochlea called?

A

Modiolus

279
Q

Cochles has a Y-shaped partition that forms what 3 channels?

A

S. Media- AKA cohclear duct
S. Vestibuli- ends @ oval window
S. Tympani- ends @ round window

280
Q

S. Vestibuli and S. Tympani are both filled with what fluid?

A

Perilymph

281
Q

S. Vestibuli and S. Tympani are separated except for where?

A

Helicotrema

“hole in the spiral”

282
Q

Scala media is a continuation of ?

A

Membranous Labyrinth

283
Q

What two membranes contain perilymph within the respective scalae?

A

Vestibular Mem- S. Vestibuli

Basilar Mem- S. Tympani

284
Q

Spiral organ/Organ of Corti is on what membrane?

A

Basilar within cochlear duct

285
Q

Where are the hair cells that are the receptors for hearing located?

A

Cochlea

286
Q

Hair cells in the spiral organ are in what 2 groups?

A

Inner- single row

Outer- three rows

287
Q

What do the inner and outer hair cells synpase with?

A

1st order sensory neurons

Motor neurons from Cochlear Branch of CN8

288
Q

Where/what are the only neurons that have a myelin sheath surround the cell body?

A

Afferent fibers from cochlea

289
Q

Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the ____

Cell bodies of motor neurons are located in the _____

A

Spiral ganglion

Pons

290
Q

Which membrane projects over and contact the cochlea hair cells?

A

Tectorial

291
Q

Define sound

A

Alternating High and Low pressure regions of a medium

292
Q 
Frequency = \_\_\_\_\_
Amplitude = \_\_\_\_\_
A

Pitch

Volume= intensity

293
Q

Sound is _____ vibrations

A

sympathetic

294
Q

What is the most acute and audible frequency ranges?

A 
Acute= 500-5000 Herts/cps
Audi= 20-20K Hz
295
Q

Amplitude threshold is defined as ?

A

0 dB at 1000 Hz

When healthy ear can detect sound from silence

296
Q

Normal conversation = _dB
OSHA hearing req @ __dB
Rock concert = _dB

A

60
90
110

297
Q

How are shorter sterocilia connected to taller sterocillia?

A

Tip link protein

298
Q

What kind of ion channel is associated with tip link proteins?

A

Mechanically gated ion channel

299
Q

Steps of hearing

A

Sterocilia bend towards taller hair
Transduction channels open
Cations enter enolymph and depolarize
Opposite bending closes channel

300
Q

Axons of the cochlear branch synapse with which neurons?

A

Cochlear nuclei in medulla oblongata

301
Q

Neurons that dcussate in medulla and ascend to where?

A

Lateral lemniscus on opposite side to terminate in inferior colliculus of the midbrain

302
Q

Axons from the cochlear nuclei that don’t go to the medulla end where?

A

Superior olivary nucleus in pons

303
Q

How can we tell the direction of sounds?

A

Difference in timing of impulses arriving to superior olivary nuclei

304
Q

Where are impulses sent to after the inferior colliculus?

A

Medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
Then
Primary auditory area of cerebral cortex

305
Q

Exceptionally loud noises damages what part of the hearing sequence?

A

Sterocilia

306
Q

What are the two types of deafness?

A

Sensorineural- damage/disease of pathway of CN8

Conduction- impaired mechanisms of external/middle ear

307
Q

Define Otoacoustic Emissions and their usefulness

A

Sounds produced by cochlea and are used to test infants for deafness

308
Q

What are the two types of equilibrium

A

Static- position against gravity

Dynamic- position against sudden movement

309
Q

What are the receptor organs for equilibrium?

A

Vestibular apparatus- includes saccule, utricle and semicircular ducts

310
Q

Where/what is the macula

A

Walls of utricle and saccule
Horizontal to utricle
Vertical to saccule

311
Q

Maculae is made up of what 2 kinds of cells?

A

Hair- sensory receptors

Supporting- form otolithic membrane

312
Q

What are the two types of hairs that are in a bundle?

A

Sterocilia- actually microvilli

Kinocilium- one per bundle, true cilium, longer than longest sterocilia of the bundle

313
Q

What covers the surface of the otolithic membrane?

A

Otoliths- calcium carbonate crystals

314
Q

What causes the otolithic membrane to slide over hair cells?

A

Head tilts or Acceleration that causes inertia

315
Q

Maculate respond only to what two types of changes?

A

Acceleration or Velocity of the head

316
Q

3 parts that make up Dynamic Equilibrium

A

3 semicircular ducts
Saccule
Utricle

317
Q

What is located in the ampullas that are found at the end of each semicircular canal?

A

Crista Ampullaris

318
Q

Each Crista Ampullaris contains what 3 things?

A

Hair cells
Supporting cells
Cupula- gelatinous material

319
Q

Define Vestibular Nystagmus

A

Strange eye movements that occur after rotational movements

320
Q

Equilibrium cell bodies are located where?

A

Vestibular ganglia

321
Q

Equilibrium pathway axons comprise what?

A

Vestibular part of CN8

322
Q

Most axons of vestibular branch synapse where?

A

Vestibular nuclei in medulla oblongata

323
Q

What happens to the equilibrium axons that dont synapse in the medulla?

A

Enter cerebellum through inferior cerebellar peduncles

324
Q

How are the cerebellum and vestibular nuclei connected?

A

Bidirectional pathways

325
Q

Define Cochlear Implant

A

Device that translates sounds into electrical signals for brain interpretation

326
Q

Define Presbycusis

A

Age related loss of hearing

327
Q

Define Otalgia

A

Earache

328
Q

Define Sensorineural deafness

A

Impairment of hair cells in cochlea or damage to cochlear branch of CN8

329
Q

Define Conduction Deafness

A

Deafness caused by impairment of external/middle ear mechanisms ability to transmit to cochlea

330
Q

Define Ottitis Media

A

Middle ear infection

331
Q

Define Tympanotomy

A

Tube placed into eardrum to drain fluid from middle ear

332
Q

Define Barotrauma

A

Damage/pain from pressure changes, usually affecting the middle ear

333
Q

Define Vertigo

A

Sensation of spinning, either world or person

IPAP (212 decks)

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