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IPAP > A&P3: HNTorso > Flashcards

A&P3: HNTorso Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 types of bones?

A 
Long
Short
Flat
Irregular
Sesamoid
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2
Q

Define sutural bones

A

Joint between skull bones

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3
Q

Characteristics of Long Bones

A

Greater length than width
Contains shaft and extremities
Slightly curved for strength

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4
Q

What are examples of Long Bones?

A 
Femur
Tibia
Humerus
Ulna
Radius
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5
Q

Characteristics of Short Bones

A

Equal length and width

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6
Q

What are examples of Short Bones?

A

Carpal bones

EXCEPT pisiform- sesamoid

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7
Q

Characteristics of Flat Bones

A

Thin, provide protection

Extensive area for muscle attachment

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8
Q

What are examples of Flat Bones?

A

Cranial
Sternum
Ribs
Scapulae

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9
Q

Characteristics of Sesamoid Bones

A

Develop in tendons w/ friction, tension and stress
Protect tendons, may change direction of pull
Improves mechanical advantage at joints

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10
Q

Characteristics of Sutural Bones

A

Classified by location

Commonly found in lamboid suture

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11
Q

What are examples of Irregular Bones?

A

Vertebrae
Hip
Calcaneus

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12
Q

What are the functions of depressions and openings on bone surfaces?

A

Participate in joints

Passage of soft tissue

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13
Q

What are processes?

What is their function?

A

Projections/outgrowths

Form joints, attachment points for CT

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14
Q

Define Fossa

A

Shallow depression

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15
Q

Define Sulcus

A

Groove

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16
Q

Define Meatus

A

Tubelike passage/canal

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17
Q

Define Condyle

A

Large, round prominence at end of a bone, part of joint

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18
Q

Define Malleolus

A

Bone prominence on each side of ankles

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19
Q

Define Facet

A

Smooth flat articular surface

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20
Q

Define Crest

A

Prominent ridge or elongated projection

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21
Q

Define Trochanter

A

Very large projection

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22
Q

Define Tuberosity

Where are they usually found?

A

Large, round, rough projection

On shaft, at base of bones

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23
Q

Define Tubercle

Where are they found?

A

Small, round projection

Usually near head of a bone

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24
Q

Define Insertion and Origin

A

Origin: Bone that doesn’t move when muscle shortens

Insertion: Moveable bone

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25
Q

What is the belly of a muscle?

A

Fleshy portion in between attachment sites

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26
Q

What are the 7 characteristics used to name muscles?

A 
Pattern of fascicles
Size
Shape
Action
Number of origins
Location
Sites or Origin/Insertion
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27
Q

How many different Fascicle Arrangements are there?

A 
Parallel
Fusiform
Circular
Triangular
Unipennate- one side of tendon
Bipennate- central tendon
Multipennate- several tendons
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28
Q

Define Prime Mover

A

Agonist

Contracts to cause desired movement

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29
Q

Define Antagonist

A

Stretches and yields to prime mover

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30
Q

Define Synergist

A

Contracts to stabalize

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31
Q

Define Fixators

A

Stabilize the origin of the prime mover

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32
Q

Define Hilton’s Law

A

A nerve that innervates a joint also innervates the muscles that move the joint AND the skin that overlies the attachment of the muscles

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33
Q

How does Hilton’s Law develop/arise?

A

Embryological development

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34
Q

Define Entrapment Neuropathy

A

Neuralgia
Neuritis
Pinched/trapped nerve
Physical compression/irritation of major nerve trunks and their peripheral nerves

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35
Q

S/Sx of Entrapment Neuropathy

A

Sx: Tingling/pain
Reduced sensation
Numbness

S: weakness, atrophy

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36
Q

What are the four branches of the aorta?

A

Ascending
Arch
Thoracic
Abdominal

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37
Q

The close proximity arrangement of veins and arteries provide what two benefits?

A

Countercurrent heat exchange

Arteriovenous pump

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38
Q

What does Venae Comitantes mean?

A

Close proximity of vein running near/parallel to artery in small/confined area

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39
Q

How many bones are in the skull?

A

22

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40
Q

Define paranasal sinuses

A

Mucous membrane line cavities within the skull bones

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41
Q

What are the only moveable bones in the skull?

A

Mandible

Ossicles

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42
Q

What are the two parts of the skull?

A

Neurocranium: cranial vault, brain box

Facial skeleton: viscerocranium, splanchnocranium

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43
Q

What are the components contained within the neurocranium?

A

Brain
Cranial meninges
CNs
Associated structures

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44
Q

What are the components contained within the facial skeleton?

A

Orbits
Nasal cavities
Maxilla
Mandible

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45
Q

What are the parts of the neurocranium?

A 
Frontal
Parietal x 2
Temporal x 2
Occipital
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
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46
Q

Define Calvaria

A

Skullcap

Made by superior portions of frontal, occipital, parietal bones

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47
Q

Define Basicranium

A

Cranial Base

Floor of the cranium

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48
Q

What does the Basicranium comprise of?

A 
Occipital
Sphenoid
Temporal (petrous portion)
Vomer
Palatine
Parts of maxillae
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49
Q

There are _ cranial bones

There are _ facial bones

A

8

14

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50
Q

Function of the Frontal Bone

A

Forehead, roof of orbits, anterior cranial floor

Frontal Sinus

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51
Q

Define metopic suture

A

Frontal suture that is not gone by age 6

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52
Q

Function of Parietal Bone

A

Side and roof of cranial cavity

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53
Q

Function of Temporal Bone

A 
Zygomatic process
External auditory meatus
Mastoid/styloid process
Stylomastoid foramen CN7
Mandibular foss TMJ
Petrous portion CN8
Carotid/jugular foramen
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54
Q

Function of the Occipital Bone

A

Foramen Magnum
Occipital condyles
Occipital protuberance- attachment for ligamentum nuchae
Superior/inferior nuchal lines

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55
Q

Function of Sphenoid Bone

A

Keystone bone- articulates with all cranial bones

Pterygoid process- attachment site for jaw muscles

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56
Q

What do the greater and lesser wings of the Sphenoid bone make?

A

Greater: Anterolateral floor of cranium and lateral skull

Lesser: Posterior orbit of eye and part of cranium floor

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57
Q

Define Superior Orbital Fissure

A

Passageway for CN 3 4 6 and V1

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58
Q

What foramen does CN V2 pass through?

A

Foramen Rotundum

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59
Q

What foramen doe CN V3 pass through?

A

Foramen Ovale

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60
Q

What skull bone does the Foremen Rotundum and Foramen Ovale pass through?

A

Sphenoid

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61
Q

What is the Mnemonic for Trigeminal Nerve Foramina?

A

Standing Room Only
Superior Orbital V1
F. Rotundum V2
Ovale V3

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62
Q

What does the Sella Turcica hold?

What are the parts of this structure?

A

Pituitary Gland
Anterior= tuberculum sellae
Central= hypophyseal fossa
Posterior= dorsum sellae

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63
Q

What does the Ethmoid Bone make?

A

Anterior cranial floor
Medial wall of orbits
Superior nasal septum
Superior walls of nasal cavity

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64
Q

What is a major superior supporting structure of the nasal cavity?

A

Ethmoid bone

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65
Q

What foramina passes through the Ethmoid Bone?

A

Olfactory Foramina for CN1 to pass

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66
Q

The Falx Cerebri connects to what structure in the ethmoid bone?

A

Crista galli

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67
Q

Lateral Masses of the Ethmoid bone contains what?

A

Ethmoid sinuses

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68
Q

What is the Perpendicular Plate?

A

Upper part of nasal septum

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69
Q

What are the Superior and Middle Nasal Conchae?

A

Turbinates
Superior- smell, olfactory receptors
Increases SA to warm air
Filters air by causing inhaled air to swirl and impact mucus

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70
Q

The are 14 facial bones, what are the names and quantity of each?

A 
Nasal- 2
Mandible
Inferior nasal conchae- 2
Maxillae- 2
Lacrimal-2
Vomer
Zygomatic-2
Palatine- 2
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71
Q

The sockets in the Maxilla and Mandible are called what?

A

Alveoli

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72
Q

What does the Maxillary Bones make up?

A

Orbit floor
Nasal cavity floor
Hard palate
Maxillary sinus

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73
Q

What causes a Cleft Palate?

A

Lack of union of maxillary bones

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74
Q

What two bones make up the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

Sphenoid

Zygomatic

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75
Q

What two bones make up the zygomatic arch?

A

Zygomatic bones

Temporal

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76
Q

Where are the lacrimal sacs located?

A

Lacrimal Fossa

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77
Q

Inferior nasal concha is aka?

A

Turbinate

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78
Q

What nerve passes through the mandibular foramen?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

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79
Q

What are the three parts, two processes and two foramens of the mandible?

A

Body Angle Ramie
Condylar and Coronoid
Mandibular and Mental

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80
Q

What makes up the posterior part of the nasal septum?

A

Vomer

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81
Q

What facial bone looks like two Ls back to back?

What do the two Ls make up?

A

Palatine
Back of hard palate
Part of orbit

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82
Q

What bones make up the nasal septum?

A

Vomer
Perpendicular plate
Ethmoid bone
Septal cartilage

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83
Q

Each orbit has five important foramina, what are they

A 
Optic
Superior orbital fissure
Inferior orbital fissure
Supraorbital
Lacrimal fossa
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84
Q

Parts of seven bones make up the orbits, what are the seven bones?

A 
Maxillary- floor, medial
Frontal- roof
Zygomatic- lateral, floor
Ethmoid- medial
Lacrimal- medial
Sphenoid- roof/lateral/medial
Palatine- floor
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85
Q

What are the sutures of importance in the skull?

A

Coronal
Sagital
Lambdoidal
Squamous

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86
Q

Which sutures unite parietal and occipital bones?

Which sutures unit the two parietal bones?

A

Lambdoid- p/o

Sagittal- parietal

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87
Q

What does the coronal suture join?

What does the squamous suture join?

A 
C= frontal and parietal
S= parietal and temporal
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88
Q

What are the major fontanels during infancy?

A

Anterior
Posterior
Anterolaterals
Posterolaterals

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89
Q

What are the two functions of the fontanels?

A

Allows skull to move during birth

Allows rapid brain growth

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90
Q

What are paranasal sinuses and what are their functions?

A

Cavities in skull that communicate with nasal cavitiy
Lighten skull weight
Resonate chamber for speech

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91
Q

Which cranial bones have paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Maxillae

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92
Q

What are the 3 mastication muscles?

What movements do the allow?

A

Masseter- bites
Temporalis- retracts, bites
Pterygoids

Protraction, elevation and retraction

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93
Q

What movements does the pterygoid muscle provide?

A

Lateral- protraction and depresses (opens)
Medial- elevates and protracts
Together= side to side grinding

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94
Q

What are the 4 muscles that insert into the tongue? Which one is paralyzed during anesthesia?

A

Genioglossus- surgery concern
Styloglossus
Palatoglossus
Hyoglossus

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95
Q

Define Bell’s Palsy

A

Facial paralysis
Idiopathic
Cold temperatures

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96
Q

What is the Mnemonic for facial nerve branches?

A 
To
Zanzibar
By 
Motor 
Car
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97
Q

Where do the terminal branches of CN7 arise from?

A

Parotid plexus, emerge from glands, radiate anteriorly

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98
Q

What muscle closes the eye?

A

Orbicularis oculi

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99
Q

What muscle puckers the mouth?

A

Orbicularis oris

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100
Q

What muscle assists with whistling, blowing, sucking and chewing?

A

Buccinator

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101
Q

What muscle of the face is NOT considered a muscle of facial expression

A

Levator palpebrae superioris- opens eye

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102
Q

Dermatome of the face?

A

CN5

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103
Q

Dermatome of CN2

A

Occipital tuberance

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104
Q

Dermatome of CN3

A

Gentlemens collar

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105
Q

What are the layer of the scalp?

Which parts are intimately connected?

A 
Skin
CT
Aponeurosis- epicranial aponeurosis
Loose CT- Danger space
Pericranium
SCA are connected
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106
Q

What is the Danger Area of the scalp and why?

A

Loose CT

Pus, blood and infections can spread easily

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107
Q

What does the pericranium form?

A

Dense irregular CT forms the external periosteum of calvaria

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108
Q

What are the three parts of the hyoid bone?

A

Body

Lesser/Greater horns

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109
Q

Function of the Hyoid Bone?

A

Supports tongue

Attachment for tongue, neck and pharyngeal muscles

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110
Q

Where does the SCM arise and insert?

A

Arise- sternum

Insert- mastoid process of temporal bone

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111
Q

Which CN innervates the trapezius and SCMs?

A

CN11

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112
Q

Putting your chin to your chest contracts what muscle?

A

SCM

Also extends head, chin thrust

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113
Q

Define the Suboccipital Region and what muscles it includes

A

Upper back of neck, inferior to occipital region
Rectus capitis posterior, major/minor
Obliquus capitis inferior/superior

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114
Q

The muscles within the suboccipital region have what primary purpose?

A

Postural muscles

Some flexion/extension/lateral bending and rotation at atlanto-occipital/atlanto-axial joints

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115
Q

Flexion/extension of the atlanto-occipital joint creates what head movements?

A

Nodding yes

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116
Q

What are the two muscle groups of the ANTERIOR neck and what do they form?

A

Suprahyoid
Infrahyoid
Create base for tongue to move on

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117
Q

What are the Suprahyoid muscles?

As a group, what do they do?

A 
Digastric
Stylohyoid
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Elevate hyoid bone, oral cavity floor, elevate tongue during swallowing
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118
Q

What are the infrahyoid muscles?

As a group, what do they do?

A 
Omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid
Depress hyoid bone, move larynx during swallow/speech
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119
Q

What is the function of the scalene muscle group?

A

Attach cervical vertebrae to upper ribs
Flex and rotate head
Forceful inspiration
Innervated by C3-C8

120
Q

What does the thoracic aorta supply blood to?

A 
Pericardium
Esophagus
Bronchi
Diaphragm
Intercostal/chest muscles
Mammary glands
Vertebrae/spine
121
Q

What are the paired arteries that supply blood to the head?

A

Vertebral

Internal carotid

122
Q

Vertebral arteries branch off of what artery?

A

Subclavian
Pass through transverse foramina of cervical vert.
Unite to form unpaired basilar artery on ventral surface of the pons

123
Q

Internal carotids branch off of what artery?

A

Common carotid
Enter skull through carotid canal/foramina
Inferrer anterior surface of the brain

124
Q

What doe the external and internal carotid arteries supply?

A

External- structures external to skull (maxillary and superficial temporal branches)
Internal- contribute to Circle of Willis, supplies eyes and parts of brain

125
Q

What is the function of the Circle of Willis?

A

Connect post/ant blood supplies to the brain by interconnecting basilar artery w/ branches of internal carotid arteries

126
Q

What is the importance of the Circle of Willis?

A

Controlling blood supply when pressure is higher unilaterally
Provides alternate source of blood if occlusion occurs

127
Q

What veins of the head/neck drain blood and where to?

A

Ex/internal jugular veins drain head/neck to superior vena cava
Dural venous sinuses empty to internal jugular vein

128
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain lymph back into circulation?
Where does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph back into circulation?

A

TD: L internal jugular and L subclavian junction

RLD: R internal jugular and R subclavian junction

129
Q

Ventral rami are formed from what vertebraes?

A

C1-C5

130
Q

What does the cervical plexus supply nerves to?

A

Head
Neck
Upper shoulders
C3-C5 phrenic nerve innervates diaphragm

131
Q

What does the Lesser Occipital Nerve do?

A

Skin of the neck and scalp posterosuperior to auricle

132
Q

What does the Great Auricular nerve do?

A

Skin over parotid gland
Mastoid process
Auricle
Mandible angle to mastoid process (posteriorinferior part of face and inferior part of auricle)

133
Q

What is the difference of origin between the greater and lesser occipital nerves?

A

Greater occipital is not a branch of cervical plexus

134
Q

Where does the Greater Occipital nerve arise from and travel to?

A

Between C1 and C2, beneath obliquus capitis inferior muscle, through semispinalis capitis and tapezius muscles
Supplies skin along posterior scalp to vertex

135
Q

What causes Occipital Neuralgias?

A

Greater Occipital nerve gets trapped by obliquus capitis inferior muscle

136
Q

What is TMJ syndrome?

A

Dysfunction of TMJ

137
Q

What are the muscles of the TMJ?

A

Temporal
Masseter
Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid

138
Q

What is the Occipital Triangle?

A

Occipital artery at its apex
Accessory nerve crosses here
Contains cervical plexus nerves

139
Q

What is the Subclavian Triangle?

A

Contains subclavian artery/vein

140
Q

What is the Submandibular Triangle?

A

Digastric triangle, nearly filled by submandibular gland

Facial artery and vein are here

141
Q

What are the components of the Carotid Triangle?

A 
Common carotid artery
Internal/external carotid
Internal jugular vein
Vagus nerve
Thyroid gland
Larynx
142
Q

What is in the Muscular Triangle?

A 
Infrahyoid muscle
Neck viscera
Para/thyroid glands
Trachea
Larynx
143
Q

What are the transient nerves?

A

Vagus

Phrenic

144
Q

What makes up the trunk of the skeleton?

A

Vertebral column (26 bones)
Sternum
Ribs

145
Q

What are the 4 normal curves of the vertebral column?

A

Cervical/lumbar- ant convex

Thoracic/sacral- ant concave

146
Q

What are the Primary and Secondary Curves?

A

Primary- thoracic/sacral during fetal development w/ single anterior concave curve
Secondary- cervical formed when infant raises head at 4mon, lumbar forms when infant sits/walks at 1yo

147
Q

Define Dowagers Hump

A

Wedge formation in older women thoracic area resulting from osteoporosis

148
Q

How is Kyphosis characterized?
How is Lordosis (sway back) characterized?
How is scoliosis characterized?

A

K=Abnormal increase in thoracic curvature
L=Ant. rotation of pelvis due to weakened trunk muscles
S= abnormal lateral curvature, spinal processes turn toward cavity of abnormal curvature causing ribs to protrude when PT bends over

149
Q

What can cause lordosis?

A

Pregnancy

Obesity

150
Q

What are the parts of a typical vertebrae?

A 
Body
Vertebral arch
Vertebral foramen
Precesses x 7
Vertebral notches
151
Q

What are the 7 vertebral processes?

A

2 transverse
1 spinous
4 articular

152
Q

Which spinous processes are often bifid?

A

C2-C6

153
Q

What is the function of the transverse foramina?

A

Transmit the vertebral arteries

154
Q

What are the two craniovertebral joints?

What type of joints are they?

A

Atlanto-occipital- between atlas and occipital bone
Atlanto-axial- between atlas and axis
Synovial

155
Q

Craniovertebral joints involve what 3 things?

A

Occipital condyles
Atlas
Axis

156
Q

What make up the body of the Axis?

A

Dens or Odontoid process of the Atlas

157
Q

Nodding movement moves what joint?

Shaking movements moves what joint?

A

Atlanto-occipital

Atlanto-axial

158
Q

What is the function of the transverse ligaments?

A

Strong band extending from R/L tubercles of C1 which holds the dens of C2 against anterior arch of C1
This forms the posterior wall of of a socket for the dens

159
Q

What is the tectorial membrane?

A

Superior continuation of posterior longitudinal ligament across atlantoaxial joint through foramen magnum to floor of cranial cavity

160
Q

What is a Hangman’s Fracture?

A

Fracture of both pedicles of C2 axis from hyperextension of head

161
Q

Which vertebrae have facets for tubercle of ribs?

A

T1-10

162
Q

Tubercle articulates with ______

Head articulates with _____

A 
T= transverse process
H= vertebral bodies
163
Q

What is the auricular surface of the sacrum?

A

Synovial part of sacroiliac joint

164
Q

What is the neural component of the sacrum?

A

Sacral canal is continuation of vertebral canal of sacrum containing nerve roots of cauda equina

165
Q

Median/medial/lateral sacral crest represents ?

A

Median: Fused rudimentary spinous processes
Medial: fused articular processes (intermediate)
Lateral: tips of transverse processes of fused sacral vertebrae

166
Q

Spinous processes are not present in what parts of the sacrum?

A

S5, sometimes S4

This causes large sacral hiatus due to lack of processes and associated laminae

167
Q

What doe the sacral cornu provide landmarks for?

A

Inferior articular of S5

Location of sacral hiatus

168
Q

What is the coccygeal cornua?

A

Rudimentary articular processes of the coccyx

169
Q

Where is an epidural block performed?

A

Sacral canal at sacral hiatus, numbs from waist to knees

Sacral and coccygeal cornu or landmarks for this injection

170
Q

Flexion of vertebral column pushes the nucleus pulposus in what direction?

A

Posteriorly towards thinnest part of anulus fibrosus

171
Q

If degeneration of posterior longitudinal ligament and wearing of anulus have occurred, what will happen?

A

Nucleus pulposus herniates into vertebral canal and compresses spinal cord or nerve roots of cauda equina

172
Q

When an intervertebral disc protrudes, it may compress the nerve roots numbered in which direction?

A

Inferior to disc

173
Q

What are the most commonly ruptured intervertebral discs?

A

C5/6 and C6/7

Compresses roots of C6 and C7

174
Q

Hyperextension of the neck can stretch/tear which ligament?

How does this commonly happen?

A

Anterior longitudinal

Rear end car crashes

175
Q

What are the Zygapophysial joint?

A

Joints of the vertebral arches

Plane synovial joints to allow gliding between superior/inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae

176
Q

Accessory ligaments of the zygapoplysial joints unite what?

A

Laminae, transverse processes and spinous processes to help stabilize joints

177
Q

What happens when there’s injury/disease at the zygopophysial joints?

A

Pain along dermatomes

Spasm in muscles from associated myotomes

178
Q

What is Foraminal Stenosis and where does it most commonly occur?

A

Narrowing of one of more spinal foramina
C5/6/7
L3/4/5/S1

179
Q

What are symptoms of foraminal stenosis?

A

Sciatica

Brachialgia

180
Q

Where does the anterior longitudinal ligament start and end?
What does it cover?
What does it protect from?

A

Atlas to sacrum
Anterior aspects of vertebral bodies and intervetebral discs
Stability between vertebral bodies and prevent hyperextension of vertebral column

181
Q

What does the posterior ligament cover and protect from?

A

Posterior aspect of vertebral bodies
Prevents hyperflexion of vertebral column
Herniation/posterior protrusion of discs

182
Q

What is the ligamenta flava?

A

Elastic fibrous tissue that joins laminae of adjacent vertebral arches
Prevent separation of vertebral lamina, stop sudden flexion of vertebral column and prevent injury to intervertebral discs

183
Q

Where does the supraspinous ligament run from and to?

A

Spinous processes from C7 to sacrum

184
Q

What is the ligamentum nuchae

A

Thickening of supraspinous ligament in neck that extends from C7 to occipital protuberance

185
Q

Define Segmental Artery

A

Related around and supplies vertebrae

186
Q

Define basivertebral veins

Define intervertebral veins

A 
Basi= large, tortuous in substance of vert. bodies
Inter= accompany spinal nerves through foramina and receive blood from spinal cord and vertebral plexuses
187
Q

Why is the physiology of the vertebral venous plexuses unique?

A

Valveless, allows cancer to metastases to travel

188
Q

What are externally visible features of the thoracic wall?

A

Serratus anterior
Costal margin
Pec major

189
Q

Bony thorax produces what type of marrow?

A

Red

190
Q

What are the two openings in the thorax?

A

Sup. thoracic aperture

Inf. thoracic aperture

191
Q

What are the 3 sections of ribs in the thorax?

A

Vertebrosternal ribs- 1-7, attach to sternum
First rib- sharpest curvature, articulates w/ manubrium
Ribs 3-7- true ribs

192
Q

What ribs are known as true ribs?

A

1-7

193
Q

Ribs 1-7 are called ____ ribs

Ribs 8-10 are called ____ ribs

A

vertebrosternal

vertebrochondral- false ribs

194
Q

Where do the heads of ribs articulate?

A

Head- facet w/ corresponding vertebra or 2 facets with demifacets of bodies of adjacent vertebrae and intervertebral disc

195
Q

What is the rib tubercle?

A

Site of articulation of rib with transverse process of post vertebrae

196
Q

What does the neck of the rib attach to?

A

head of rib to shaft of rib

197
Q

What is the sternal extremity of a rib?

A

Site of costochondral articulation of rib to its cartilage

198
Q

What is the costal groove of a rib?

A

near tubercle on body of rib and provides protection of intercostal nerves/vessels

199
Q

What is the costal angle of a rig?

A

Abrupt change in curvature of the rib shaft

200
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

Manubrium
Body- gladiolus
Xiphoid process

201
Q

What are the notches in the sternum

A

Suprsternal notch

Sternoclavicular notch

202
Q

What is the sternal angle

A

Junction of manubrium and sternum body

Location of cartilaginous articulation of second pair of ribs

203
Q

Each rib articulates posteriorly with the body and ________ of a thoracic vertebrae?

A

Transverse

204
Q

Posterior articulation of each rib is ____ in position to the anterior articulation

A

Superior

205
Q

Define the Xiphisternal joint

A

Articulation between xiphoid process and sternum body

Synchondrosis

206
Q

As person ages, the xiphisternal join fuses becoming a _____

A

Synostosis

207
Q

Interchondral joints are between what ribs and are what types of joints?

A

6-9

synovial plane

208
Q

Define the Costochondral joint?

What type of joint is it?

A

Articulation of lateral costal cartilage w/ sternal end of rib
Cartilaginous joint

209
Q

Define Costochondritis

A

Inflammation of junctions where ribs meet sternum

210
Q

Function of the Extrinsic Back Muscles

A

Superficial muscles controlling limb movements

Intermediate muscles aid respiration

211
Q

Function of Intrinsic Back Muscles

A

True back muscles

Act on vertebral column, produces movements and maintains posture

212
Q

What muscles are comprised in the Superficial Back Muscles?

A

Trapezius
Levator Scapulae
Rhomboidues- minor/major
Latissimus dorsi

213
Q

What muscles are in the Intermediate Back Muscles?

A

Serratus Posterior group comprises superficial respirator muscle
Superior- underneath scapula
Inferior- deep to lats
Both innervated by intercostal nerves

214
Q

Function of the Serratus Posterior Superior muscles

A

Respiratory muscles
Deep to rhomboideus muscles
Elevates ribs
Innervated by spinal intercostal

215
Q

Function of Serratus Posterior Inferior muscles

A

Respiratory Muscles
Leep to lats
Depresses lower 4 ribs- forceful expiration
Innervated by spinal intercostal

216
Q

What are the Intrinsic Muscle Groups?

A

Erector spinae

Transversospinal

217
Q

What are the 3 groupings of Erector Spinae Fibers

A

Spinallis- medial
Longissimus- intermediate
Iliocostalis- lateral

218
Q

What are the muscles that run from transverse processes to dorsal spine of vertebrae and help rotate vertebrae?

A

Transversospinalis group:
Semispinalis
Multifidis
Rotatores

219
Q

What is the origin and function of the Erector Spinae

A

Iliac Crest

Extension of spine, control flexion, lateral bending

220
Q

What is the mnemonic for the Erector Spinae muscles?

A

Rotate- rotatores
My- multifidus
Spine- semispinalis

221
Q

What are the actions of the Transversospinal muscles

A

Stabilize vertebrae
Rotation
Extension
Lateral bending

222
Q

Know highlighted part

A

Slide 205

223
Q

What are the Thoracoappendicular Muscles and their functions

A

Ant thorax/axial muscles

Produce and control limb movements

224
Q

What are the muscles of the thorax that alter the size of the thoracic cavity?

A

Diaphragm
Scalenes
Intercostal
Throcoappendicular

225
Q

What are the Thoracoappendicular muscles

A

Ant: pect major
pect minor
subclavius
serratus anterior

Post: Lat dorsi

226
Q

What are the layers of the innermost layer of intercostal muscles?

A

Transversus thoracis- ant
Subcostal muscle
Inner intercostal muscle

227
Q

How are all intercostal muscles innervated?

A

Segmental Intercostal Nerves

228
Q

How do External Intercostal muscles run and where do the attach?

A

Down from inferior to superior

Elevates rib for inspiration

229
Q

How do internal intercostal muscles run and where do they attach?

A

Originate from superior rib
Insert on inferior rib
Depresses rib cage, expiration

230
Q

Muscles of inhalation

A

Sternocleidmastoid
Scalenes
External intercostal
Diaphragm

231
Q

Muscles of Exhalation

A

Internal intercostal
Int/External oblique
Transverse abdominus
Rectus abdominus

232
Q

Where do transverse thoracic muscles originate, insert and do?

A

Sternum
Cartilage ribs 2-6
Depress ribs

233
Q

Where do subcostal thoracic muscles run and do?

A

Bridge two intercostal spaces

Elevate ribs

234
Q

Where do innermost intercostal muscles and do?

A

Bridge intercostal space

Expiration

235
Q

What happens to spinal nerves upon leaving the intervertebral foramina?

A

Divide into Ant/Post Rami
Ant= T1-T11
Post= joints, muscles and skin in thoracic region

236
Q

What nerves supply cutaneous sensation to dermatomes of anterior thorax?

A

C5, T1-T6

C5 and T1 also supply upper arm

237
Q

What are the dermatome landmarks for the thorax and abdomen?

A 
C5= jugular notch and clavicles
T1= ant arm
T4= nipples
T7= xiphoid process
T10= umbilicus
238
Q

What is the most superior dermatome of the back that does not supply the upper limb?

A

T1

239
Q

Where to posterior intercostal arteries arise from?

A

Arise from aorta

Travel to ant thorax, off lateral cutaneous branch

240
Q

Where does the internal thoracic artery arise from?

A

Subclavian artery

Rises to anterior intercostal artery, anastamoses with post intercostal artery from aorta

241
Q

Internal thoracic artery gives rise to what branch to supply skin in the area?

A

Perforating Cutaneous branch

242
Q

Veins of the thoracic wall lie ____ in costal grooves and each side has ____#

A

Superior
11 posterior
11 anterior
A/P anastamose

243
Q

Anterior intercostal veins are tributaries of what veins?

A

Internal thoracic

244
Q

Most posterior intercostal veins end in _______?

A

Azygos/hemiazygos venous system

245
Q

What is the sternal part of the diaphragm?

A

2 muscle slips attached to xiphoid process

246
Q

What is the costal part of the diaphragm?

A

Muscular slips that attach to internal inferior 6 costal cartilages

247
Q

Define Crura

A

Vertebral attachment for the diaphragm arising from superior 3 vertebrae

248
Q

Central diaphragm tendon converges into an ____

A

Aponeurosis

249
Q

How does the inferior vena cava perforate the diaphragm?

A

Central tendon at caval foramen

250
Q

What happens if half of the diaphragm is paralyzed?

What is this type of movement called?

A

Paralyzed side ascends during inspiration instead of descending
Paradoxical movement

251
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the thorax?

A

Pulmonary cavities

Mediastinum

252
Q

Where does the mediastinum extend from/to?

A

From Superior Thoracic aperture to diaphragm
Ant- sternum and costal cartilages
Post- thoracic vertebrae

253
Q

What are the Superior Mediastinum planes?

A

Glandular- thyroid, thymus, lymph glands
Venous- R/L brachiocephalic vein, Sup vena cava, azygos vein arc
Arterial-nervous- aortic arch, brachiocephalic, L comm carotid, L subclavian art
Nerves- Vagus R/L, phrenic R/L
Visceral-nervous: trachea, esophagus, L recurrent laryngeal nerve
Lymphatic- thoracic duct

254
Q

What is the L recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Branch of vagus

Innervates larynx, muscles of pharynx, sensory for bronchial tree below vocal cords

255
Q

Why is the L recurrent laryngeal nerve termed recurrent?

A

Branches from vagus, progresses inferior, loops superiorly

256
Q

Where does the thoracic duct dump lymph back into circulation?

A

Terminates at junction of L subclavian and jugular veins

257
Q

What is the “blue side” of the mediastinum?

A

Inferior mediastinum, R side

Dominated by arch of Azygos vein, Sup vena cava, R atrium

258
Q

What is the “red side” of the mediastinum?

A

Inferior mediastinum, L side

Arch of aorta, L Comm carotid and subclavian arteries

259
Q

What is located in the anterior mediastinum?

A

CT, fat
Blood vessels
Lymph nodes
Lower end of thymus

260
Q

What makes up the middle mediastinum?

A

Heart

Pericardium

261
Q

What makes up the posterior mediastinum?

A 
Thoracic aorta
Thoracic duct
Lymph nodes
Azygos/hemizygos veins
Esophagus
Esophageal plexus
Thoracic symp trunk
Thoracic splanchnic nerves
262
Q

What are most of the intestines covered by?

A

Greater omentum

Peritoneal fold hanging from stomach

263
Q

What are the 3 flat muscles of the abdominal wall?

What are the 2 vertical muscles?

A

Flat: External Oblique
Internal Oblique
Transverse Abdominal

Vertical:
Rectus abdominis
Pyramidalis

264
Q

What abdominal wall muscle flexes and rotates the trunk?

A

Obliques

265
Q

List the layers of the abdominal wall from Skin to deep

A 
Skin
Fat
Scarpas
Fascia
External Oblique
fascia
Internal Oblique
Fascia
Transverse abdominal
Transversalis fascia
Endoabdominal fat
Parietal peritoneum
266
Q

Function of the rectus abdominus?
Origin and insertion
Functions

A

Principal vertical muscle of anterior abdominal wall separated by linea alba
Originates at pubis, inserts at xiphoid and 5-7 costal cartilage.
Flexes trunk, antagonist for expiration

267
Q

Function of the pyramidalis?
Origin and insertion
Functions

A

Small triangular muscle absent in 20% of peoples
Anterior to inferior part of rectus abdominus
Attaches to anterior surface of pubis and ends in linea alba
Tenses linea alba

268
Q

Function of linea alba

A

Attachments of oblique and transverse abdominal muscles

Contains vessels/nerves for skin

269
Q

What artery provides blood to the rectus abdominus and superior anterolateral abdominal wall?

A

Superior epigastric artery, continuation of internal thoracic

270
Q

What does the inferior epigastric artery supply blood to?

A

Lower rectus abdominis, arises from external iliac

271
Q

Where do the superior and inferior epigastric arteries anastomosis?

A

Umbilical region

272
Q

Anterior cutaneous arterial branches derive from where?

A

Superior/inferior epigastric arteries

273
Q

Inferior epigastric artery is a branch of what artery?

A

External iliac artery

274
Q

Where does the abdominal aorta begin and end?

A

Aortic hiatus of diaphragm

Lumbar vertebra by dividing into R/L iliac artery and visceral/parietal branches

275
Q

Superior suprarenal artery arises from

A

Inferior phrenic artery

276
Q

Inferior suprarenal arteries arise from

A

Renal artery

277
Q

What are the unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

Celiac trunk

Superior/inferior mesenteric artery

278
Q

Celiac trunk divides into what three branches?

What do the branches supply?

A

L gastric, splenic and common hepatic arteries
Left gastric- stomach and esophagus
Splenic- spleen, pancreas, greater omentum, stomach
Common hepatic- liver, gallbladder, stomach, duodenum, pancreas and greater omentum

279
Q

What does the superior mesenteric artery supply?

A 
Pancreas
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
280
Q

What does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

A

Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum

281
Q

How does blood from abdominal viscera, pelvic viscera and abdominal wall return to the heart?

A

Inferior vena cava

282
Q

What does the hepatic portal vein collect blood from?

A 
GI tract
Spleen
Pancreas
Gallbladder
Delivers the blood to the liver
283
Q

What forms a portal system?

A

Venous capillary system coalesces and branches to form another capillary system without the heart in between

284
Q

What are the two portal systems in the body?

A

Hepatic portal

Hypphyseal

285
Q

What veins join to form the Sup/Inf mesenteric veins?

A

Capillaries of intestines

286
Q

What vein systems join to form the hepatic portal vein?

A

Inf/Sup Mesenteric veins w/ splenic vein

287
Q

Hepatic portal vein goes to the liver to form _______ capillaries

A

Sinusoidal

288
Q

Where does the portal venous system connect with the systemic venous system?

A

Esophageal veins that drain to azygos vein, rectal vein, paraumbilical veins

289
Q

Define Caput medusae

A

Umbilical vein becomes recanalised due to portal hypertenstion

290
Q

If someone has a black eye, what is the blood collecting site called?

A

Supraorbital margin

291
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrom

A

Neck entrapment neuropathy

292
Q

Supraclavicular neuritis

A

Shoulder entrapment neuropathy

293
Q

Ulnar/Medial/Radial neuritis

A

Elbow entrapment neuropathy

294
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome and ulnar neuritis are caused by

A

Wrist entrapment neuropathy

295
Q

Piriformis syndrome is caused by

A

Hip entrapment neuropathy

296
Q

Compartment syndrome in the lower legs is caused by

A

Leg entrapment neuropathy

297
Q

Foot entrapment neuropathy can lead to what complications?

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrom
Medial plantar neuritis
Digital neuritis
Deep fibular neuritis (deep peroneal neuritis)

IPAP (212 decks)

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