PANCE Flashcards

1
Q

Primary HTN is defined by ? readings

Ranges for Normal, Elevated, Stage 1 and Stage 2 HTN

What are the ACC/AHA HTN targets
What are the JNC-8 HTN targets

A

SBP ≥130/ ≥DBP 80

N: <120/80 and <80
E: 120-129 and <80
1: 130-39 or 80-89
2: ≥140/≥90

A: <130/80
J: <60y/o/CKDz/DM: <140/90
≥60y/o: <150/90

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2
Q

When does ACC/AHA suggest starting Rx management for HTN

How is OHOTN Tx

What is the earliest stage of an atherosclerotic plaque

A

All Stage 2
Stage 1 w/: DMT2
ASCVDz/≥10% CKDz

Inc Na/Fluids, Fludrocortisone, Midodrine

Inflammation induced foam cell (lipid laden macrophage) w/ fatty streak

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3
Q

Absolute c/is for fibrinolytic therapy for STEMI Tx

A
Suspect dissection
Active bleed/diathesis
Malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke <3mon 
Cerebral vascular lesion
Hemorrhage, cranial
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4
Q

? medication is used for chronic angina and safe for the above c/i but w/ ? s/e

? is the only drug class shown to be antianginal and prolong life in Pts w/ CADz

? medication is used during CHF to reduce morbidity and mortality

A

Ranolazine; QTc prolongation

BBs

ACEI

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5
Q

What are the 3 beta-1 selective used to reduce mortality from HF

Why do ventricles release BNP in response to inc volume

What can cause this to be artificially low

A

Bisprolol
Metoprolol succinate
Carvedilol

Dec RAAS, Inc Na excretion

Obesity, Constrictive pericardial dz

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6
Q

HF w/ EF of ? is a sign of increased mortality and need for ? next step

What are the 4 NYHA HF Classificaitons

? scoring system is used to estimate risk of major bleeding in Pts on anticoag meds

A

<35; defib placement

1: ASx, no limitations
2: Sx w/ mod activity
3: Sx w/ mild activity
4: Sx at rest

HAS-BLED:
HTN Abnormal Kid/Liv function Stroke
Bleeding Labile INR Elder >65y/o Drugs/ETOH
0-1: low 2: mod 3-6: high

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7
Q

AR

MS

PR

TS

AS

PS

HOCM

MVP

MR

TR

VSD

A

Sit, lean fwd; Diaphragm at Erbs

L lat-decubits; Bell at mitral

Sit, lean fwd: Diaphragm at Pulmonic

Supine; Bell at Tricuspid

Sit; Diaphragm at Aortic

Supine; Bell at Tricuspid

Supine; Diaphragm at Mitral

Supine, Diaphragm at Mitral

Supine, Diaphragm at Mitral apex

Supine, Diaphragm at Tricuspid

Supine; Diaphragm at Tricuspid LLSB

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8
Q

MCC of AR

What is a rare seronegative cause

What will be seen on PE in this condition

A

Aging process makes leaflets weak/floppy

Ankylosing

Wide pulse pressure, Water hammer/Corrigan pulse heard at LSB

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9
Q

What 5 other signs are seen when AR is present

What extra murmur can be present w/ AR

What is the indication after load reduction is needed and what class is preferred

A
Hill: leg > arm BP
Musset- head bob
Quinke- nail bed
Duroziez- to-and-fro
Traubes: pistol sound over femoral/radial pulses

Austin-Flint: diastolic murmur from blood hitting anterior mitral leaflet

SBP >140 w/ ARBs

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10
Q

MCC of MS

What is heard w/ this murmur

MC Sx of MS

A

Rheumatic fever

Opening snap after S2

Dyspnea

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11
Q

What will be heard on PE of MR

? maneuver intensifies MR murmur

MC murmur associated w/ Marfans

A

Soft S1, wide split S2 w/ loud P2

Hand grip

MVP

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12
Q

? part of the valve is MC involved in MVP

? unique presentation in females can indicate underlying MVP

How is MVP defined by Echo

A

Middle cusp of posterior leaflet (both= Barlow Syndr.)

POTS

Billowing leaflet 2mm/> above annular plane

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13
Q

When is medical Tx for MVP indicated and ? is used

In the USA, TS is MC d/t ? etiologies

TS is characterized by ? four PE findings

A

Palpitations= BBs

Rheumatic fever-MC
Prior regurge
Carcinoid syndrome

Hepatomegaly
Ascites
Right HF
Dependent edema

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14
Q

Tricuspid stenosis will cause ? type of JVP finding

Since this valvulopathy can mimic ?, it’s differentiated by ?

? is the mainstay of Tx, particularly ? one is considerable bowel ischemia is present

A

Giant a-wave

MS;
Increases w/ inhalation

Loop diuretics;
Tosemide, Bumetanide

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15
Q

How is TS Tx if liver is engorged/ascites is present

? congenital and iatrogenic etiology can cause TR

? JVP wave is altered w/ TR

A

Aldosterone inhibitors

Ebstein Anomaly: septal, posterior leaflets into the RV
Pacemaker lead injury

X-descent fades w/ inc regurg
Large V-wave w/ rapid descent

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16
Q

MCC of TR

PS is usually d/t ? and found in ? population

What type of PE finding is heard w/ PR

A

RVF and dilation d/t P-HTN or LVF

Congenital- Peds

Widely split S2 w/ pulmonic ejection sound
Right sided S4

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17
Q

What secondary murmur is also heard w/ PR

? is a common EKG finding in these Pts

What is the MC c/c of PR

A

Graham Steel- diastolic pulmonary murmur d/t dilated annulus; mis-Dx as AR

RBBB

Dyspnea w/ exertion

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18
Q

Define Ortner’s Syndrome

? leaflet is affected by age and calcification the most

? is the most important lab ordered for Afib work up and ? is the MC site for thrombus to develop

A

Hoarse voice d/t PR

Posterior

TSH (thyroxine)- inc cellular basal metabolic rate; LA

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19
Q

How is the Anticoagulation need for Tx of Afib/flutter determined

When is Warfarin used and w/ ? INR goal

A
CHF/LVEF <40%
HTN
Age >75
DM
Stroke/TIA/Embolis
Vasc Dz
Age 65-74y/o
Female
INR 2.5:
Prosthetic valve
EGFR <30
Rx: phenytoin, antiretroviral
Mitral stenosis
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20
Q

Mnemonic for BBBs

What do these look like on EKG

What are the two types of PSVT

A

WiLLiaM MoRRoW:
V1- W and M in V6= LBBB
V1- M and W in V6- RBBB

LBBB: up bunny ears V4-6
RBBB: up bunny ears V1-3

AVNRT: arrhythmia from above BoHis
WPW: arrhythmia from BoKent

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21
Q

3 EKG characteristics of WPW

What two medications can be used to manage WPW

How are PSVTs definitively Dx

A

D-wave c/ slow ventricular activation
Narrow tachycardia
Short PR interval

Procainamide, Quinidine

Holter monitor

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22
Q

How are PSVTs Tx

What can not be used for Tx in WPW

What are the 3 types of premature beats

A

Carotid massage/valsalva
Adenosine for Sxs
BBs/CCBs if regular
Definitive: ablation

Adenosine or CCBs

PAC: abnormal P-wave
PJC: narrow QRS
PVC: wide QRS

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23
Q

Premature Atrial Contractions are common in ? population

Pts w/ heart Dz and frequent PACs may soon develop ?

? type of premature beats are common in healthy adults

A

COPD

PSVT, Afib/Flutter

PVCs

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24
Q

If PVCs are symptomatic, what is described

What causes PJCs

How are premature beats Dx

A

Palpitations in throat

Irritable site in AV node fires before SA node

EKG, Holter monitor

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25
Q

How are premature beats Tx

How is wide and regular V-tach Tx

A

PAC: reassure
PJC: only if >10/min or multifocal= lidocaine/antiarrhythmic
PVC: only if Sxs, BBs/ablation

Stable: amiodarone, procainamide
Unstable: cardiovert
Pulseless: defib

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26
Q

V-tach rhythm is a frequent complication of ? heart conditions

How is Stable V-Tach Tx

How is unstable Pts w/ monomorphic VTach Tx

A

MI, Dilated myopathy

In sequence:
Amiodarone Lidocaine Procainamide

Synchronized conversion

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27
Q

? valvulopathies can predispose Pts to VFib

SSS may also manifest and present as ?

What are the 4 possible presentations of SSS

A

AS/PS

Chronotropic Incompetence- inappropriate HR response to exercise/stress

Brady: sinus <60bpm
Pause: <3 seconds
Arrest: >3 seconds
Tachy-Brady syndrome

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28
Q

How is IE in native valves w/out IVDA Tx

How is prosthetic valve IE Tx

How is IVDA IE Tx

A

Genta Naficillin Ceftriaxone

Vanc Genta Rifampin

Cefepime and Vanc

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29
Q

Who needs Infective Endocarditis prophylaxis

What is used for IE prophylaxis

Heart valves w/ ? d/o are more likely to become infected w/ endocarditis

A

Prosthetic material
Previous Dx IE
Unrepaired cyanotic heart dz
Transplant w/ regurg

2g Amox/Clinda

Regurgitation

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30
Q

? microbe can cause culture-negative Endocarditis

How can endocarditis be prophylactic Tx while cultures are pending

Rheumatic fever MC affects ? valve and follows ? but is technically not a ?

A

Bartonella quintana

Vanc and Ceftriax

Mitral;
Strep throat infection;
Inflammatory reaction

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31
Q

How is Rheumatic Fever Tx

When is AB prophylaxis indicated for Peds

Acute pericarditis can often progress into developing ? issue

A

CCS ASA/NSAID Pen G Benzathine
PCN allergy: Erythromycin

W/out carditis: for 5yrs or until 21y/o
Carditis, no residual damage: 10yrs
Carditis and residual damage: >10yrs

Pericardial effusion

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32
Q

How does a pericardial effusion present

How is it Dx

How is it Tx

A

Low voltage QRS
Alternans
Distant sounds

EKG: low voltage w/ alternans
Echo: swinging heart

Centesis
Window if recurrent

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33
Q

? triad is seen in Cardiac Effusion w/ Tamponades

? is a classic finding for this condition

? is the gold standard for Dx

A

Becks: HOTN Inc JVD Muffled

Pulsus paradoxus- inhale dec SBP >20mm

Echo w/ RV collapse during diastole

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34
Q

When does USPSTF recommend screenings for AAA

How are Aortic Aneurysms screened for

? is the gold standard for screening

A

65-75y/o w/ +smoking Hx

Initial: US
CT- test of choice for thoracic aneurysms/eval of known AAA

Angiography

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35
Q

What medical therapy is used for AAAs until surgical correction

How do Aortic Dissections present to ED

What is the gold standard for Dx

A

BBs

Tearing chest pain radiating to scapuas and decreased pulses

MRI angiography

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36
Q

How are aortic dissections Tx

What are the 5 Ps of arterial occlusions

What are common causes of the thrombus formation

A

Ascending: surgery
Descending: LEP-olol, morphine/dilaudid

Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia
Paralysis
Poikilothermia

Afib, MS

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37
Q

? is the gold standard for Dx or arterial occlusions

? is done for Tx until surgery is needed

AV malformations are more likely to be located ?, Dx by ? and Tx w/ ?

A

Angiography

IV heparin

Brain Lungs Spine;
Angiography;
Surgical excision

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38
Q

How does Peripheral Artery Dz present

If ulcers are present how do they appear on PE

How are these Dx

A

Intermittent claudication and ABI <0.9

Well circumscribed, lateral/distal

Angiography- gold standard
Doppler US

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39
Q

? is the definitive Tx of peripheral artery dz

? medical management is used

What PE finding suggests thrombo/phlebitis

A

Arterial bypass

Anti-platelet/lipid
Cilostazol
ASA
Clopidogrel

Palpable cord

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40
Q

How are thrombo/phlebitis Dx

How is phlebitis Tx

How is thrombophlebitis Tx

A

Venous duplex US- noncompressable vein indicates clot

NSAID Elevate Compress

Anticoagulation

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41
Q

How does Venous Insufficiency appear on PE

Where do ulcers appear in this condition

How does a Venous Thrombosis present

A

Hyperpigmentation
Atrophic skin
Stasis dermatitis

Superior to medial/lateral malleolus

Unilateral, asymmetrical swelling of lower extremity

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42
Q

? is first line imaging for DVTs

How are these Tx

Define Acute Bronchitis

A

Duplex US
Venography- gold standard

LMWH or, Fondaparinux or, Factor Xa inhibitors

Afebrile cough x 5 days (fever- think pneumonia)

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43
Q

MCC of acute bronchitis

What are other possible etiologies

How is this Tx

A

Viral

HFlu, M catarrhalis*, Strep pneumo

Support, Dextrmethorphan, Guaifenesin

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44
Q

When are ABX indicated for acute bronchitis

Define Sinusitis

Criteria for Acute, Chronic

A

ImmSupp/Elderly w/ CardioPulm Dz and cough x 7-10days

Sxs worsening over 5-7d or don’t improve >10d

A: <4wks, quick onset
C: >12wks

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45
Q

Gold standard method to Dx sinusitis

Indications to use ABX

What is used for adults

A

Sinus CT

Fever >102
Rapid worsening after improvement
Nasal d/c
Sxs >10d

Amox/Augmentin
Doxy/Clinda if allergic

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46
Q

When/Why are second line ABX used for sinusitis

What meds are used now

What meds are used for chronic sinusitis

A

Sxs don’t improve x 7d

2g BID Augmentin
Moxi/Levo-floxacin
3rd gen Cephalo

Augmentin, Clinda

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47
Q

What is used for Peds w/ sinusitis

When is f/u needed

How do Pts w/ bacterial pneumonia present

A

Augmentin

72hrs: no improvement, switch meds

Cough Dyspnea Tachy/Tachy Fever

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48
Q

How does Strep Pneumo pneumonia present

How does Staph A pneumonia present

How does Mycoplasma pneumonia present

A

Rust colored sputum, common in asplenics

Salmom sputum after influenza

Walking pneumo w/ bullous myringitis

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49
Q

How does Histoplasmosis pneumonia present

? is AKA Valley Fever

What are 3 common PE findings for Pts w/ pneumonia

A

Bat dropping contact mimicking sarcoidosis on CXR

Coccidioides- unremitting cough despite Txs

Tactile fremitus Egophony Dull percussion

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50
Q

How is bacterial pneumonia Tx

When are the admitted

What ABX are used

A

Doxy, Marcolides

> 50y/o w/ comorbidities
AMS
Dehydrated

Cefrtiax + Azith/Flqn

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51
Q

How is Coccidioides Pneumonia Dx

What Pts does Aspergillus infect and how is it Tx

How are both Tx

A

EIA for IgM/IgG

TB/COPD Pts w/ healthy immune system

Flu/Itra-conazole

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52
Q

Cryptococcus pneumonia can also cause ?

? form of pneumonia is apical and mimics TB

How are both Tx

A

Meningitis

Histoplasma from bird/bat droppings in Ohio River valley w/ hilar adenopathy

Amphotericin B

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53
Q

How is P Jirovici Dx

What is a common PE finding

How are they Tx and what is used if allergic to primary med

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage

Low O2 despite supplemental O2

TMP-SMX; Pentamidine

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54
Q

MCC of pneumonia in adults

MCC of pneumonia in Peds

How is viral pneumonia Dx

A

Influenza

RSV

Rapid Ag- flu; Nasal swab- RSV

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55
Q

? two meds can be used to Tx influenza A and B

What two can only treat Influenza A

How is RSV pneumonia Tx

A

Zanamivir, Oseltamivir

Amantadine, Rimantadine

Ribavirin

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56
Q

What are the classic findings of TB on PE

Define Drug Resistant TB

Define Multiple Drug Resistant TB

A

Fever Anorexia Weight loss Night sweats

Resistant to one: I/R

Resistant to I and R

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57
Q

How is TB Dx

What is seen on CXR

What is seen on biopsy results

A

Acid fast smears and Mycobacterium cultures

Apical Ghon complexes w/ cavitary lesions

Caseating granulomas

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58
Q

What are the two forms of miliary TB

How is TB Tx

What are the s/e of RIPE therapy

A

Potts Dz: spine
Scrofula: cervical lymph nodes

+ PPD= CXR
Neg CXR: latent, Tx w/ Isoniazid/B6 x 9mon
Active CXR:
Baseline LFTs- RIPE x 8wks; RI x 16wks

R: orange fluids
I: neuropathy
P: hyperuricemia
E: red-green blindness

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59
Q

What is used for prophylaxis for household members

When are Pts considered fully Tx

A

Isoniazid x 12mon

Two negative AFB smears and cultures

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60
Q

Why do Pts need to be tested prior to Tx w/ Etanercept for RA

What part of RIPE needs to be adjusted if CrCl is <30

? RIPE adjustment is needed if Pt is also on HIV meds

A

Activates latent TB

P/E- 3 x/wk

Raltegravir, double dose when w/ Rifampin

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61
Q

What are the 4 indications to test for TB w/ NAAT

? is the traditional test for latent TB

Define Ranke Complex

A

HIV
Endemic resident
MDR contact
Previously Tx for TB

TST via Mantoux method

Calcified hilar lymph node

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62
Q

How are pregnant Pts w/ TB Tx and w/ ? educational piece

How is asthma Dx

What type of improvement result helps w/ Dx

A

R/I/E x 4-8wks, R/I x 7months
Breast feeding not c/i

Peak expiratory flow: FEV1/FVC 75-80%

> 10% inc of FEV1

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63
Q

Define Intermittent Asthma

Define Mild

Define Moderate

Define Severe

A

Sx/SABA ≤2 days/wk
Awake ≤2 x/month
No activity interference

Sxs/SABA ≥3day/wk
Awake 3-4x/mon
Minor limitations

Daily Sxs/SABA w/ ≥1 awakening/wk
Some limitations

Daily Sxs
Nightly awakenings
SABA several x/day
Extreme limitations

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64
Q

Step 1 Asthma Tx

Step 2 Asthma Tx

Step 3 Asthma Tx

Step 4 Asthma Tx

Step 5 Asthma Tx

Step 6 Asthma Tx

A

1- Intermittent; SABA PRN

2- Mild; Low ICS daily

3- Moderate; Low ICS + LABA daily

4- Moderate; Med ICS + LABA daily

5- Persistent; High ICS + LABA daily

6- Persist; High ICS+LABA+PO CCS daily

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65
Q

What is used for acute Tx of asthma exacerbation

MC inhaled precipitant

Define Samter Syndrome and Atopic Triad

A

Nebulized SABA
O2
PO CCS
Ipratropium bromide

Cigarette smoke

Samter: Asthma ASA Polyps
Atopic: Asthma Rhinitis Eczema

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66
Q

What defines Chronic Bronchitis

What defines Emphysema

Most smokers will be Dx w/ ? and termed ?

A

Productive cough x 3mon/year x 2yrs

Structural changes

Chronic bronchitis, blue bloater

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67
Q

What is the single best variable for predicting which Pt will develop COPD

How is Chronic Bronchitis Dx

What is seen on CXR

A

Hx 40 pack/year smoker

Lung biopsy w/ inc Reid index (gland layer >50% of bronchial wall)

Inc interstitial markings and non-flat diaphragm

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68
Q

What will be seen on PFT in chronic bronchitis

What is the most effective therapy for Tx Pts w/ chronic bronchitis

When is supplemental O2 indicated

A

FEV/FVC ratio <0.7

Cessation

SaO2 <89% or,
Rest PaO2 <55mmH

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69
Q

How are COPD exacerbation Tx

If ABX are used, ? ones and w/ ? indication

What will probably develop in these Pts d/t chronic hypoxic vasoconstriction

A

O2 (goal 88-92%)
Nebulized albuteral and Ipratropium
PO Prednisone

Inc dyspnea, sputum/purlence;
Azith/Cefur/Doxy

Cor pulmonale

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70
Q

COPD Gold Categories

A

A: Less Sx, Low risk;
Breathless w/ hustle on flat ground, 0-1 exacerbation, 0 admission; SABA/SAMA

B: more Sx, low risk;
Breathless w/ walking slower than peers, 0-1 exacerbations, 0 admission; LAMA/LABA

C: less Sx, High risk
Breathless w/ hustle on flat ground, ≥2 exacerbations, ≥1 admissions; LAMA and SABA

D: more Sxs, High risk;
Breathless w/ walking slower than peers, ≥2 exacerbation, ≥1 hospitalizations
LAMA+LABA w/ SABA

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71
Q

What causes structural changes seen in emphysema

What type of breathing habit do these Pts develop

What term is used for these Pts

A

Destruction of alveolar septae d/t lost elastin

Purse lip, keeps airway from collapsing

Pink puffer- retained CO2

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72
Q

What is different between Blue Bloaters and Pink Puffers on CBC results

? is the MC of all interstitial lung dzs

How is this MC Dx

A

BB- Inc H/H
PP- normal Hct

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

CXR w/ diffuse, patchy fibrosis and pleural base honeycomb

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73
Q

What type of PFT results are seen in Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

How is this Tx

Define Pneumoconiosis

A

Restrictive pattern- dec volume, normal/inc FEV1/FVC

CCS O2 Transplant

Pulmonay fibrosis w/ known cause;
Exposure to mining/dust causing dec lung volume/FVC (restrictive dz)

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74
Q

Asbestosis CXR findings

Coal Workers CXR findings

Sillicosis CXR findings

A

Linear pattern w/ basilar predominance, opacities and honeycomb

Nodular opacities in upper fields and less prominent hilar adenopathy

Egg shell classifications of hilar nodes

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75
Q

Berylliosis CXR findings

? restrictive lung dz makes Pts at increased risk for TB

? restrictive lung dz needs tobacco cessation more than others

A

Difuse infiltrates w/ hilar adenopathy

Sillicosis- need serial TST/CXRs

Asbestosis

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76
Q

? tissue finding indicates significant exposure to asbestos

? size lung mass is a nodule or a mass

How are incidental CXR findings of pulmonary nodules managed

A

Ferruginous body

<3cm- coin lesion, nodule (<30mm)
>3cm- mass

CT w/out contrast-
Ill defined, lobular, spiculated= biopsy
<1cm, calcified, smooth/defined border= f/u 3mon, 6mon, annual x 2yrs

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77
Q

What are the two categories of lung cancer

What are the 4 subtypes of one of these categories

A

Small cell
Non-Small cell:

Adeno: non-smoker w/ small peripheral lesion; MC bronchogenic Ca

SCC: central, solitary mass in smokers w/ hemoptysis

Large: fast growth that rarely responds to surgery

Carcinoid- lack differentiation

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78
Q

How does Small Cell Lung Ca present

What lab results would be seen

What syndrome can this Ca cause

A

Aggressive and almost always in smokers;
more likely to spread early

ACTH/ADH: HypoNa/HyperCa

Lamber Eaton- limb weakness

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79
Q

How are lung Ca Dx

Pancoast tumors are more likely to be ? types

What makes up the Pancoast Syndrome

A

Bronchoscopy w/ biopsy if central or,
Fine Needle Transthoracic aspiration (most useful)

Adeno/SCC

Shoulder pain Horners Bone destruction

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80
Q

How is Non-Small Cell lung Ca Tx

How is Small Cell Ca Tx

? measurement means PHTN

A

Stage 1-2: surgery
Stage 3: chemo then surgery
Stage 4: palliative

Chemo, no surgery option

> 25mmHg at rest

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81
Q

? is the MCC of PHTN

How is this Dx

How is this Tx depending on the origin

A

MS

Right sided catheterization

LVF: diuretic, digoxin, anticoagulate

Cardiogenic: prostanoids, PD5 inhibitors, endothlin antagonists

Pulm Artery HTN: endothelin antagonists, prostanoids

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82
Q

Lab result showing s/e of prolonged rescue inhaler B-2 agonist use

Preferred fluid used for aortic dissections

? artery supplies LV and if occluded will cause a loss of ejection fraction?

A

HypoK

Crystalloids

LAD

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83
Q

Why do Tet Spells lead to cyanosis

What does squatting help w/ Tet Spells

Tetrology of Fallot is associated w/ ? chromosomal abnormalities

A

22 deletions, DiGeorge Syndrome

Worsened pulmonary outflow obstruction

Increases systemic vascular resistance

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84
Q

What valves are MC affected by Rheumatic Fever in descending order

? is cardiotoxicity d/t BB/CCBs Tx

How is sinus bradycardia Tx if atropine is ineffective

A

M>A>T

Glucagon

Dopamine, Epi

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85
Q

Most PEs arise from where in the body

What are the 4 specific RFs

What triad would be seen if a fat emboli is the cause

A

Iliofemoral DVTs

Cancer
OCPs
Pregnancy
Surgery

Hypoxemia
Neuro abnormals
Petechial rash

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86
Q

How are PEs Tx

How long is medical therapy used for

What are the indications for embolectomy

A

Acute phase: Heparin
Then: ARE-aban and Dabigatran

3mon minimum

Unstable w/ c/i for thrombolytic therapy

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87
Q

What are the 5 RFs for OSA

For a Dx, ? sleep study or lab results are needed

How is mild/mod/sev OSA Tx

A

Obesity Anatomy FamHx
ETOH/Sedative Hypothyroid

≥5 events/hr w/ Sxs
≥15 events/hr
PCO2 > 45mmHg

Mild/Mod: CPAP, PO piece
Sev: CPAP Uvuloplasty
Tracheostomy

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88
Q

What is the hallmark CXR finding for almost all pulmonary sarcoidosis

What other 3 DDx need to be considered though if this hallmark is seen

How is pulmonary sarcoidosis Dx

How is this Tx

A

Mediastinal adenopathy

Young female: sarcoidosis
Kid from Ohio/zookeeper: histo
60y/o ceremics: berylliosis

HyperCa; Inc ACE 4x

CCS ACEI Methotrexate w/ serial PFTs

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89
Q

Define ARDS

What 3 events account for 75% of all ARDS cases

What 3 things can be seen on PE

A

Resp failure d/t fluid in lungs from inc alveolar capillary permeability

Sepsis syndrome- MC
Sev/mulitple trauma
Aspiration/inhalation

Tachypnea Pink sputum Crackle

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90
Q

What would be seen on CXR of ARDS

How is it Dx

How is ARDS Tx

A

Bronchogram, Bilat infiltrates

Bilateral infiltrates
Non-CHF Sxs
PaO2:FiO2 <300
Sxs developing <7d

Intubate w/ lowest level of PEEP to maintain PaO2 >60mm/SaO2 >90

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91
Q

How is the mortality of septic shock predicted

? is an indirect marker of tissue perfusion used in sepsis Tx

? is the MCC of sepsis and ? is the MC manifestation

A

qSOFA

Lactate

Pneumonia; Fever

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92
Q

A Dx of sepsis should be considered if Pt presents w/ two of ? three Sxs

What causes gram positive shock

What causes gram negative shock

A

Worsening mentation
RR ≥22/min
SBP ≤100mmHg

Exotoxins from staph/strep

Endotoxins from EColi Klebsiella Proteus or Pseudomonas

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93
Q

MCC of anaphylaxis

? type of reaction is the usually

What does this reaction cause to happen

A

Ingested foods

MC a Type 1 IgE mediated reaction

Mast cells/basophils cause HOTN, shock, angioedema from fluid shift from intravascular space

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94
Q

What is usually the first sign of anaphylaxis

Acronym for acute asthma exacerbation Tx

A

Cutaneous pruritus/urticaria/angioedema

BIOMES:
Bagonist Ipratropium O2 Mg sulfate Epi/Terbutaline Steroids

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95
Q

Mod/High suspicion for DVT needs ? next steps

A

Duplex US:
Pos= anticoagulate
Neg= repeat US in 5-7d

D-Dimer:
Pos: Duplex US
Pos US- anticoagulate
Neg US- repeat in 5-7d
Neg D-dimer: DVT excluded
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96
Q

Kawasakis mnemonic

GCA is associated w/ ? other Dx

A
Crash and Burn:
Conjunctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Hand/feet swelling
Burning fever >5d

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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97
Q

? is the MC primary cardiac tumor

? genetic condition is this MC associated w/

When do ASx AAAs need to be refereed for elective repair

A

Atrial myxoma in LA

Carney syndrome

≥5.5cm or expands ≥0.6cm/6mon

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98
Q

Janeway lesions are more common w/ ? form of endocarditis

Ebstein’s Anomaly is associated w/ ? arrhythmia

? three defects make up this condition

A

Subacute

WPW

Small ASD/PFO
Dilated RA, small RV
TV insufficiency

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99
Q

? features are associated w/ an innocent murmur

Define Leriche Syndrome

? heart condition has a pericardial knock

A
≤2 intensity
Minimal radiation
Softer w/ sitting
Musical/vibratory
Short systolic duration

Claudication in thigh/butt d/t atherosclerosis in aortoiliac system

Constrictive pericarditis

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100
Q

MOA for Adenosine

This is the first line drug used to Tx ?

Preferred anticoagulant for pregnancy

A

Inhibits AV node conduction

PSVT

LMWH

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101
Q

What two anticoagulants can be used during breast feeding

What labs are ordered for Secondary HTN work up

What is the next step in work up after a suspected Dx of infectious endocarditis is suspected

A

LMWH< Warfarin

CBC/CMP Lipid UA ECH

Blood culture x 3, then empiric ABX

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102
Q

How are hemodynamically unstable Pts w/ WPW Tx

What is the first step in Tx of orthodromic AVRT in stable Pts

What is the definitive Tx for these Pts

A

Conversion

Vagal then adenosine then BB/CCBs

Ablation

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103
Q

What are the Hs and Ts for PEA

A

Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Hypothermia
HyperK

Tension pneumo
Thrombus
Toxicologic
Tamponade

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104
Q

What is the most specific finding on stress test for myocardial ischemia

What drugs need to be avoided in 2* Type 2 and 3 AV blocks

What causes the PDA to close after birth

A

2mm down sloping ST depressions

Adenosine BBs CCBs Digoxin

Pulm vasculature resistance dec= bradykinin release

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105
Q

PDA defects are associated w/ ? two conditions

When would Pts benefit from Palivizumab administration

What type of murmur exists w/ AS

A

Downs, Maternal rubella

Cyanotic heart defect
Mod/Sev P-HTN
Congenital HF w/ meds

Paradoxically split S2 w/ narrow pulse pressures

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106
Q

What are the 5 cyanotic congenital heart Dzs

Why do Pts w/ Brugadas have inc risk for sudden death

Define Brugadas and how is this acquired and Tx

A
Truncus arteriosus
Transposition of great vessels
Tricuspid atresia
Tetrology
Total anomalous pulm vascu

Inc risk for Vfib

Pseudo-RBBB w/ ST elevation in V1-2; Autosomal dominant; ICD

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107
Q

How are stable Pts w/ monomorphic V-tach Tx

What are the s/e of the first line med

MCC of V-tach

A

Procainamide or Amiodarone then Sotalol

Pro: HOTN, prolonged QTc

Structural heart Dz

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108
Q

How are unstable Pts in V-tach Tx

Mnemonic for s/e of loop diuretics

What are the loop diuretics

A

Synch’d conversion

Ototoxicity
HypoK/Mg
Dehydrate
Allergy to sulfa
Alkalosis, metabolic
Nephritis
Gout

Furosem/Torem/Bumetan-ide

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109
Q

What adverse outcome of MI appears 2-7d after w/ mid-systolic murmur and rapid onset of pulm edema

How does a Klebsiella induced lung abscess appear on CXR

Although Klebsiella and alcohol is common, ? microbe is more common cause of pneumonia

A

Acute MR w/ sinus tachy

R sided infiltrate in upper love w/ bulging fissure

Strep pneumonia

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110
Q

CXR w/ decreased vascularity d/t suspected PE is called ?

What causes Croup

What is heard on PE and what is seen on CXR

A

Westermark’s sign

Parainfluenza virus

Inspiratory stridor, Steeple sign

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111
Q

Two MCC of Ventilator Associated Pneumonia

What causes Pertussis

What are the three stages of this condition

A

Staph A, Pseudomonas

Bordatella

Catarrhal: lacrimation
Paroxysmal: whoop
Convalescent: resolution

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112
Q

How is Whooping Cough Tx

Pancreatitis induced pleural effusion would have ? inc lab result

What does surfactant expression begin during development

A

Pertussis: Azithromycin or TMP/SMX

Amylase

20wks; gradual increase until 36wks

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113
Q

What is the MC presenting S/Sx and finding of a PE

Define Esophageal Ring

What syndrome can this develop

A

S: tachypnea
Sx: dyspnea at rest/exertion
F: normal CXR

Schatzki- distal stricture at B-ring junction; almost always w/ hiatal hernias

Steakhouse: progressive dysphagia to solids

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114
Q

Define Esophageal Web

? syndrome can develop w/ esophageal webs

Pts that develop the above syndrome are at increased risk for developing ?

A

Membrane across mid/upper esophagus MC d/t GERD

Plummer Vinson:
iron deficient anemia Dysphagia Cervical-web Glossitis Cheilosis

SCC

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115
Q

How are esophageal strictures Dx

How are these Tx

When do umbilical hernias need surgical referral

A

Initial: barium swallow, upper endoscopy

H2 antagonist, Omeprazole, Endoscopy w/ dilation; PPI dec recurrence

Persists >2yrs of life

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116
Q

Define Strangulated hernia

Define Obstructed Hernia

Define Incarcerated

A

Blood supply has been impaired

Irreducible hernia w/ intact blood supply

Occluded and irreducible, can progress to strangulated

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117
Q

? is the main RF for esophagitis

Endoscopy for esophagitis work up shows multiple, shallow ulcers meaning ? etiology

Two MC meds that cause medication induced esophagitis

A

ImmComp

HSV

NSAIDs, Bisophosphonates

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118
Q

When is Eosinophilic Esophagitis a considered Dx

What would be seen on barium swallow and how is it definitively dx

Radiation exposure exceeding ? much puts these Pts at risk for ?

A

Asthma and GERD non-responsive to antacids

Ribbed esophagus w/ multiple corrugated rings; Biopsy

5000 cGy; Stricture

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119
Q

What is the hallmark sign of infectious esophagitis

Since esophagitis primarily occurs in ImmComp Pts, what are the MC microbes

What would be seen on exam if etiology was fungal

A

Odynophagia- pain w/ swallow

C albicans HSV CMV

Linear yellow/white plaques w/ odynophagia

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120
Q

What would be seen on PE if etiology of esophagitis was viral and how they’re Tx

How is esophagitis Dx

How is esophagitis Tx depending on cause

A

HSV- shallow punched out lesions; Acyclovir
CMV- large, solitary ulcer; Ganciclovir

Biopsy Culture Endoscopy
Double contract esophogram

Candida: Fluconazole
HSV: acyclovir
CMV: ganciclovir
Corrosive: steroid

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121
Q

Chronic GERD puts Pts at risk for ? Dz

What are Pts at risk for if the above issue develops

What is the gold standard and test of choice for Dx

A

Barretts; f/u screening q3-5yrs

Adenocarcinoma

Gold: 24hr pH monior w/ manometry confirmation
TxoC: endoscopy w/ cytologic washing

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122
Q

? meds lower LES pressure and worsen GERD Sxs

Pts w/ GERD Sxs and ? RFs are considered high risk and need endoscopy

A
Progesterone
Anticholinergic/histamines
Nitrates
TCAs
CCBs
Hematemesis
Age >50
Weight loss
Anemia/melena
Recurrent vomiting
Dysphagia
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123
Q

How is GERD Tx

H2 antagonist class ending

PPI class ending

A

H2 antagonist, Qd then BID
Sxs persist- switch to PPI
Continue x 8wk after Sx control

  • tidine
  • prazole
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124
Q

Define Achalasia

What will be seen on swallow studies

What is the best study for Dx

How is achalasia Tx

A

Motility d/o in distal esophagus d/t loss of auerbach plexus- no peristalsis and weight loss

Bird beak/Rat tail

Manometry

EGD dilation or mytomy
CCBs, Nitro, PPIs prevent stricture return

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125
Q

Define Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

What would be seen on a barium swallow

What is the best method to confirm a Dx of esophageal spasm after a barium swallow and how is this Tx

A

Non-peristaltic, painful contractions after ingesting hot/cold food

Corkscrew appearance

Manometry; w/ Nitrates/CCB/Botox

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126
Q

How does esophageal cancer present

What is the MC type of esophageal Ca

What part of the esophagus is MC affected and by ? RFs

A

Dysphagia to solids progressing to liquids w/ adenopathy

World: SCC
USA: Adeno d/t GERD/Barretts

Distal; men who smoke

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127
Q

How is esophageal Ca Dx

How is this Tx

How often are Pt w/ Barretts f/u and screened

A

Endoscopy w/ biopsy- test of choice; CT for staging

Resection, Radiation, Chemo w/ 5-FU

q3-5hrs

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128
Q

Rosh Pulm- #19

Rosh Cards- #70

A

GI- Gastritis

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129
Q

What happens if achalasia is left untreated

? infectious Dz can cause Achalsia Sxs

Candidiasis esophagitis not responding to itraconazole needs ? Tx adjustment

A

Sigmoid esophagus

Chagas

Itraconazole suspension of Voriconazole

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130
Q

Refractory candidiasis esophagitis infections are Tx w/ ?

How is CMV esophagitis Tx but is limited d/t ? s/e

Pts intolerant or unresponsive to the above Tx are then Tx w/ ?

A

IV Caspofungin

Ganciclovir; neutropenia

IV Foscarnet

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131
Q

How is herpetic esophagitis Tx

Pts that are intolerant/unresponsive to the above Tx are then Tx w/ ?

Normal LES pressure ranges

A

A/F/V-cyclovir

IV Foscarnet

10-35mmHg

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132
Q

Most GERD reflux is induced by ?

What two autoimmune Dzs can have worse GERD Sxs

? Dx study needs to be avoided during a GERD work up

A

Gastric distension by vasovagal reflex

Sjogrens, Scleroderma

Barium study

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133
Q

When Tx GERD w/ H2 antagonists (-tidine), Pt education for pill use

? medication is the preferred initial med for Tx of GERD

What two Sxs are common indicators of gastritis

A

Take prior to eating

PPIs: -prazole

Inflammation of stomach lining- Dyspepsia, Abdominal pain

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134
Q

Acute Gastritis usually develops in ? part of stomach

What are the two types of Chronic Gastritis

A

Antrum

Type A- in fundus d/t anti-parietal Abs, associated w/ Pernicious Anemia; risk for AdenoCa

Type B- in antrum d/t NSAIDs, Pylori and often ASx; risk to develop PUD

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135
Q

How is Gastritis Dx

What are 3 methods to detect H Pylori if a suspected DDx

How is this Tx

A

Endoscopy w/ 4 biopsies

Fecal Ag, Serology, Urea breath test

Mild: Famot/Cime-tidine
Sev: Omeprazole taper, d/c when ASx x 8wks

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136
Q

What is the next step for gastritis if Sxs return ≤3mon of d/c acid suppression meds

What are the s/e of PPI use

What RF increases incidence of gastric ulcers and dec healing time

A

Upper endoscopy

HypoCl/B12/Mg
Dec Ca absorption
Pneumonia
C D-ff

Cigarette smoke

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137
Q

What type of PUD ulcer are MC

The MC is MCC by ?

How do Pts present

A

Duodenal > Gastric

H pylori

Dec pain w/ food

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138
Q

Duodenal ulcers are MC located ?

If located elsewhere, ? is the increased risk

PUD can rarely be caused by ? syndrome

A

Anterior duodenum

Posterior= bleeding from gastroduodenal artery/acute pancreatitis

Zollinger Ellison- gastrinoma of pancrease releasing excess gastrin; >200=Dx

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139
Q

Gastric ulcers are MC found located ?

? is the MCC of non-hemorrhagic GI bleed

This MC typically presents as ?

A

Lesser curvature of antrum

PUD

Melena

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140
Q

What is the most accurate Dx test for PUD

All Pts undergoing this test need ? additional test

What would be seen on labs/rads if an ulcer ruptured

A

Upper endoscopy

H pylori biopsy

Inc serum amylase, Pneumo-diaphragm

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141
Q

How is PUD Tx

When is Pylori eradication testing performed

How are Pts w/ NSAID induced PUD Tx

A

All Pts- PPI
H Pylori: Metro/Clarithromycin Amox PPI

≥4 weeks after completing therapy

PPI for minimum of 8wks

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142
Q

Define Functional Dyspepsia

Functional dyspepsia is the MCC of ?

How can this be managed

A

Dyspepsia w/out etiology on scope/studies

Chronic dyspepsia

Desipramine, Nortriptyline
Buspirone- dec bloat/fullness

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143
Q

What are the 4 RFs for gastric Ca

How does this form present

How is this Dx

A

FamHx
Anemia, pernicious
Gastric ulcers
H pylori**- most important

Vague fullness/early w/ meal
Anorexia
N/V w/ weight loss

EGD w/ biopsy; Pos guiac

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144
Q

What lab results may be seen in Pts w/ gastric Ca

How is this Tx

What mnemonic is used for gastric Ca suspicion

A

Microcytic/Hypochromic

Gastrectomy w/ rad/chemo

WEAPON:
Weight loss Emesis Anorexia Pain Obstruction Nausea

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145
Q

What is the MC early Sx of gastric Ca

Overall, what is the MC Sx

What lymph nodes will be involved

A

Epigastric discomfort/indigestion

Weight loss

L-side virchows node (r-side= HL)
Sister Mary, Joseph- umbilical

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146
Q

What is the MC type of gastric cancer worldwide

What EGD finding suggests gastric Ca presence

Define Celiac Dz

A

Adeno

Linitis Plastica- diffuse thickening of stomach wall

Immune response to gluten causing injury to proximal end mucosa

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147
Q

What blood test is used to Dx Celiac Dz

How is the Dx confirmed after ? positive test

Celiac Pts may need correction of ? deficiencies

A

IgA endomysial and transglutaminase Ab

+ endymysial Ab: mucosal biopsy from duodenal bulb

B12 Ca D, Vit Fe Folate

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148
Q

What lab test has a higher spec but lower sense for Celiac testing

What causes lactose intolerance

Pts may need ? supplementation

A

EMA-IgA

No lactase= dec conversion of lactose in glucose/galactose

Ca

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149
Q

How is a presumptive Dx of lactose intolerance made

How is the Dx confirmed

Fecal pH test can also be performed w/ ? being normal

A

Mild Sxs w/ lactose ingestion that resolve 5-67d after eliminating from diet

Lactose breath H test
+= 20ppm over baseline

Normally alkaline;
Abnormal- intolerance, Rotavirus/EColi infection

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150
Q

How is lactose intolerance Tx

Crohns involvement

Appearance on colonoscopy

A

Lactase supplements;
Lactose avoidance

Global GI tract, spares rectum

Skip lesions, cobble stone

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151
Q

? type of diarrhea does Crohns have

Risk for fistula development

Appearance on x-ray

A

Non-bloody w/ frequent abdominal pain

Yes

Terminal ileum string sign

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152
Q

Crohns histological findings

Effect of smoking on condition

What serology marker is used for this

A

Transmural, non-caseating granuloma

Worsens Dz

ASCA and Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic Ab

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153
Q

UC area of involvement

Appearance on colonoscopy

? type of diarrhea do Pts have

A

Colon, usually w/ rectum

Continuous lesions

Non-painful, bloody

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154
Q

UC risk for fistula development

Appearance on x-rays

Histological findings

A

No

Erythematous, friable ulcers w/ lead pipe appearance d/t loss of haustral folds

Mucosa only crypts abscess

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155
Q

Effect of smoking w/ UC

? serology marker is used

How is this Dx

A

Protective

p-ANCA

Barium enema- lead pipe
Flex sigmoid- dec risk for perf

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156
Q

? complications can arise from UC

Pts need ? nutritional screening q1-2yrs

How are UC and Crohns Tx

A

Toxic megacolon, Ca

Vit D, B12

Sulfasalazine/Mesalamine- block prostaglandin release; UC > Crohns

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157
Q

What is the next step in Tx if Pts w/ UC/Crohns don’t respond to 5-ASA Tx

What med is used during exacerbation

What meds can be used in conjunction w/ the above if no response is achieved

A

Metronidazole

Systemic CCS

Azathioprine, 6-Mercaptopurine

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158
Q

What bile acid sequestrants are used during UC/Crohns Tx

Which one can be Tx w/ surgery

What do asthma exacerbations get upon d/c

A

Cholestyramine, Colestipol

UC w/ total colectomy

Beta agonist, CCS

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159
Q

? antihypertensive med can cause prolonged HOTN when used w/ Sildenafil

? P2Y12 inhibitor is c/i in Pts w/ MEdHx of TIA <12mon

What criteria is used for Dx IBS

A

A-blockers

Prasugrelor

Rome:
Pain x 3d/mon x 3 mon w/ ≥2 of:
Improved w/ BM
Changed freq/consistency

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160
Q

Pts w/ IBS report w/ ? c/c and ? relieving fact

What red flags make the Rome Criteria for Dx invalid

What is the next step if red flags are present

A

N/V, bloat relieved w/ defecation

Hematochezia Weight loss
Fever

Imaging or colonoscopy; no labs- normal during IBS

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161
Q

How is IBS Tx

Toxic megacolon is a complication of ?

How do Pts present

A

Hyoscyamine before meals for antispasmotic effect

IBS: UC > Crohns

Shock
Abdominal distension
Fever 
Enlarge colon >6cm
Peritonitis
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162
Q

Criteria used w/ radiology to Dx Toxic Megacolon

How is this Tx

A

Three of:
Fever Leukocytosis >10.5K Anemia Tachy >120bpm

One of:
HOTN E+ imbalance AMS Dehydration

Ceftriax+Metro, Decompression, Resection

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163
Q

? is the MC vessel blocked during intestinal ischemia

What would be seen on x-rays

How is it Dx by gold standards and how is it Tx

A

Superior Mesenteric artery

Thumb printing

Angiography; Revascularization

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164
Q

How does chronic mesenteric ischemia present

What MedHx do Pts usually have

? two meds can help prevent formation of new polyps

A

Post-prandial pain w/in 60min of eating, resolves <3hrs

PVDz Smoker DM

ASA, Cox-2 inhibitors

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165
Q

Polyp growths are the MCC of ? in Peds

These tend to be more malignant w/ ? association

Define Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A

Painless rectal bleeding

More superior in intestine they are

Thousands of polyps by 15y/o, Ca by 40y/o

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166
Q

When do first degree relatives need screening w/ FamHx for Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

? types of polyps are common in the distal colon/rectum

What types of plyps have a higher risk for Ca transformation

A

Genetic screening after 10y/o

Adenomatous: MC tubular type, least risk

Villous adenomas

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167
Q

When do Pts start routine screening colonoscopies

How can this form of Ca be screened for

How often are scopes performed

A

45y/o, ending at 75y/o

Guiac q12mon
Fecal q12mon
FIT DNA q 1-3yrs

Flex Sigmoid: q5yrs or,
q10yrs w/ FIT every year
Colonoscopy: q10yrs
CT colonography q5yrs

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168
Q

What is seen on barium study if colon cancer is present

How is this Tx

? is the MCC of lower GI bleeds and how does this MC present

A

Apple core lesion

Resection w/ 5-FU chemo

Diverticulosis- painless rectal bleeding in Pt w/ LLQ pain

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169
Q

Where are diverticuli MC found

How does diverticulitis w/ macroperforation present

? triad is considered a pos Dx

A

Descending colon;
Western society- sigmoid

Constipation LLQ pain
Inc WBC/CRP Fever

No vomit, CRP >5mg, LLQ tenderness

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170
Q

How is diverticulosis Dx

What ABX are used for Tx

When is admission indicated

A

Noncontrast CT: fat stranding w/ thick wall
X-ray r/o free air
Avoid colonoscopy

Cipro or Augmentin w/ Metronidazol

Complicated
Uncomplicated w/ fever >102.5, Septic, ImmSupp, NPO

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171
Q

What are the bulk-forming laxative

What are the osmotic laxatives

What are the suppositories used for constipation Tx

A

Psyllium Ca polycarbophil Methylcellulose Dextrin

Lactulose Mg Polyethylene glycol Sorbitol

Glycerin Bisacodyl Senna

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172
Q

? Pt presentation w/ constipation needs to have colon Ca r/o

Constipation lasting more than ? and refractory to Tx needs further work up

What causes Traveler’s Diarrhea

A

> 50y/o w/ new onset constipation

> 2wks

E Coli

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173
Q

Diarrhea after picnic/egg salad

Diarrhea after shellfish

Diarrhea after pork/poultry

A

Staph A

Vibrio cholerae

Salmonella

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174
Q

Diarrhea after poorly preserved canned foods

? lab result indicates inflammatory diarrhea

How can the frequency of diarrhea be decreased

A

C perfringens

WBCs in stool

Loperamide Diphenoxylate Codeine Paregoric

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175
Q

Hep A virus type and mode of transmission

Where are epidemics seen

What vectors can also carry this virus

A

RNA virus transmitted via ATM

Daycare/Barracks

Water, Milk, Shellfish

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176
Q

What labs are seen during Hep A during early/late phase

How is this Tx

When are vaccinations given

A

Acute: anti-HAV IgM
Later: anti-HAV IgG

Immune globulin IgG <2wks since exposure

12-23mon

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177
Q

Hep B virus type and mode of transmission

What lab result is seen first and is the first sign of infection

What lab result is seen w/ viral replication and indicates infectiousness

Where is the Ag core going to be found

A

DNA virus w/ Dane particle from sex/blood products

HBsAg

HBeAg

HBcAg- intracellular, liver- Pt now ‘has’ Hep B

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178
Q

What is the first response seen to Hep B infections

How is acute Hep B Dx

What is the second response seen in response to Hep B

What is the last response seen to Hep B infections

A

HBcAb IgM; x3mon- IgG

HBcAb

HBeAb IgM; x3mon- IgG

HBsAb IgM; x3mon- IgG

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179
Q

What lab result suggests Pt is immune to Hep B

How do you differ active from passive Hep B immunity

How do you Dx Chronic Hep B

A

anti-HBs IgM/IgG

ABcAg; anti-HBc Ab

HBsAg is always Pos

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180
Q

Hep C virus type and mode of transmission

What is different between Hep C and B

How is Hep C Dx

A

Single RNA strand in transfusion recipients and IVDA

Hep C more likely to be chronic

Anti-HCV Abs

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181
Q

How is Chronic Hep C managed

Hep D virus type and mode of transmission

Hep D will cause >50% of all ? cases

A

Interferon

RNA virus transmitted w/ HBsAG

Fulminate hepatitis

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182
Q

Hep E infection resembles ? and is transmitted by ?

MC infectious cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

What are the 3 phases of acute heptatitis

A

Hep A; via ATM

Enterovirus: Coxsackie B

Prodromal: dec smoking, spiking fever- Hep A
Icteric: jaundice after fever
Fulminant: encephalopathy, coagulopathy

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183
Q

What lab results are seen w/ acute hepatitis

Only ? etiologies of hepatitis can become chronic

Define Fulminant Hepatitis

A

Inc ALT/AST:
Acute >500, Chronic <500

B, C, D

Acute liver failure in Pts w/ hepatitis

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184
Q

What are 3 etiologies for Fulminant hepatitis

How does this form of hepatitis appear on PE

A

Tylenol OD- MC in USA
Viral infection
Reye syndrome- kids w/ ASA use after viral infection

Encephalopathy w/ astrix
Coagulopathy- INR ≥1.5
Reye syndrome- uncontrollable N/V w/ hand/foot rash

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185
Q

How is Fulminant Hepatitis managed

What is definitive Tx

What lab result suggest alcoholic liver dz

A

IV fluid/E+
Mannitol- inc ICP
PPI- stress ulcer prophylaxis

Liver transplant

AST>ALT x 2
AST- normally in mitochondria, ETOH induces injury/release

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186
Q

What are the etiologies for non-alcoholic fatty liver dz

What are the two types

A

HyperLipid Obese GCCS DM

NAFL: benign, no fibrosis or malignant potential

NA Steatohepatitis- inflammation and fibrosis w/ premalignant potential

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187
Q

How is NAFL Dz Dx

Define Cirrhosis

What is the MCC

A

Biopsy- fatty deposits w/out alcoholic Hx

Irreversible fibrosis w/ nodular regeneration 2/2 chronic liver dz

Chronic Hep C > alcohol

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188
Q

What may be seen on PE of cirrhosis

How is this Dx and managed definitively

What type of f/u surveillance do these Pts need

A

Telangiectasis Ascites Gynecomastia Confusion Lethargy Asterixis Medusa Spider angioma

Liver biopsy; Transplant

RUQ US q6mon

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189
Q

How is cirrhosis encephalopathy managed

How is cirrhosis ascites managed

How is cirrhosis pruritus managed

A

1st: Lactulose/Rifampin
2nd: Neomycin

Na restriction
Spironolactone Furosemide

Cholestyramine

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190
Q

How is cirrhosis staging done

? autoimmune d/o can cause cirrhosis

? lab/rads are ordered at Dx

A
Child-Pugh:
Serum albumin
Encephalopathy
Ascites
Total bili
PT INR
A: 5-6pts B: 7-9pts C: 10-15pts

Wilson’s Dz- inc copper, dec ceruloplasmin w/ +FamHx

A-fetoprotein- high= MRI
EGD

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191
Q

Pt w/ cirrhosis presenting w/ ? two Sxs suggest spontaneous peritonitis

What marker is used to see if Pts convert to cancer

? vascular issue can develop and present in a triad

A

Fever, Abd pain

A-fetoprotein

Budd Chiari- hepatic vein thrombosis: Pain Ascites Megaly- lver

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192
Q

? is the MCC of portal HTN in peds

What are the two types

How is this Dx

A

Budd Chiari

1: hepatic vein thrombisis (MC)
2
: hepatic/IVC occlusion

RUQ Us- screening
Venography- test of choice

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193
Q

Define ‘Nutmeg Liver’

How is Budd Chiari Tx

How is autoimmune hepatitis Tx

A

Congestive hepatopathy, DDx for Budd Chiari Dx

Shunt decompression
Diuretics for ascites

CCS

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194
Q

How is Wilson’s Dz induced cirrhosis Tx

What is used for prophylaxis against variceal hemorrhage/esophageal bleeds

Define Hepatocellular Carcinoma

A

Penicillamine- chelation therapy

Nadolol, Propranolol

Tumor developing d/t chronic liver dz and cirrhosis

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195
Q

Hepatocellular Carcinomas work up once lesion <1cm is found

What sizes have a good prognosis w/ transplant Tx

Define Cholelithiasis

A

Contrast MRI;
Neg- f/u US q3mon
No rad findings- biopsy

Single tumor <5cm
≤3 tumors all ≤3cm

Gallstones (cholesterol > pigment) w/out inflammation

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196
Q

What are the RFs for cholelithiasis

? is the cardinal Sx of cholelithiasis

How is this Dx

A

5 Fs: Fat Fertile Female Flatulent Forty

Biliary colic

RUQ US after 8hrs of fasting

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197
Q

What lab result is elevated when there is obstructed bile flow in cholelithiasis

What lab result is decreased

What clotting factors are made in the liver and how are they assessed

A

ALK-P, confirmed w/ GGT

Albumin

1 2 5 7 9 10 12 13 w/ PT

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198
Q

How is cholelithiasis Tx

Black gallstones mean ?

Brown gallstones mean ?

A

Ursodeoxycholic- dissolves stones over 6-9mon;
Cholecystectomy

Hemolysis, ETOH related cirrhosis

Asian, parasite/bacterial infection

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199
Q

Define cholecystitis

What PE finding aids w/ Dx

What ABX are used for cholecystitis prior to ? surgical procedures

A

Cystic duct obstruction leading to EColi infection/inflammation

Murphy- pain w/ inspiration Boas- pain to R shoulder;
US then HIDA- most specific

Ceftriax and Metronidazole;
Cholecystostomy- percutaneous drainage

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200
Q

? pre-malignant condition can develop from chronic cholecystitis

Define Choledocholithiasis and what this can lead to

What PE finding is more suggestive of choledocholithiasis
and what is the Dx test of choice

A

Porcelain GB

Gallstone in common bile duct; cholestasis- inc ALP w/ GGT

Jaundice; ERCP

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201
Q

Define Cholangitis

What triad presents w/ ascending cholangitis and what additional Sxs makes this into a pentad

How is this Dx

A

Biliary tract infection 2/2 obstructed common bile duct and EColi/Klebsiella

Charcot: F/C, RUQ pain and jaundice;
HOTN/shock and AMS

US then cholangiography via E/MRCP

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202
Q

How is pulmonary wedge pressure measured

HyperK EKG changes

S1/S2 sounds

A

Swan Ganz cath

Peaked T, Dropped P, Wide QRS, Sine wave

S1: MT S2: AP

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203
Q

What is the classic presentation for pancreatic cancer

What is the imaging study of choice for this

What PE sign may be seen

A

Painless jaundice and pruritus w/ mass compressing bile duct w/ jaundice

Abdominal CT:
Neg: endoscopic US w/ biopsy
Pos: resection w/ biopsy

Courvoisier sign- palpable gallbladder

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204
Q

What is the worst type of pancreatic cancer w/ the lowest prognosis

What is the MC s/e after PUD surgery

What is the MCC of pediatric intestinal obstruction

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma

Weight loss d/t early satiety

Intussusception- colicky pain, vomit and bloody stool

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205
Q

How is intussusception Dx

MCC of small bowel obstruction

MCC of large bowel obstructions

A

US or pneumatic enema- Dx and therapeutic

Adhesions

Neoplasms

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206
Q

? is the MC location for primary anal fissures to develop and what would be seen on PE of chronic fissures

How are these Tx in order

What part of the cardiac system has the slowed electrical conduction

A

Posterior to midline; skin tags

WASH, Topical nifedipine/Nitro, Botox, Lateral internal sphincterotomy

AV node

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207
Q

What causes Primary Anal fissures posterior to midline

What causes Secondary anal fissures lateral to midline

What type of cells make surfactant

A

Trauma Constipation Vaginal delivery

Crohns Malignancy Communicable/Granulomatous Dzs

Type 2 pneumocytes

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208
Q

What criteria allows for Tetrology Pts to play in sports after surgical correction

What mnemonic is used for DDxs for pancreatitis

A

R ventricular pressure <50mmHg

GET SMASHED
Gallstone Ethanol Trauma Steroid Mumps Autoimmune Scorpions HyperCa Hyperlipid ERCP Drug

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209
Q

How is chronic pancreatitis’ presentation different from acute

What is the classic triad for chronic pancreatitis

What anatomical variant may be seen w/ chronic cases

A

Steatorrhea, Fat malabsorbed

Pancreatic calcification Steatorrhea DM

Pancreatic pseudocyst

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210
Q

? lab result is more specific for pancreatitis

What is the Dx test of choice

How is this x if biliary sepsis is present

A

Serum lipase 3x higher

Initial: CT or MRCP
Dx: CT** or
Xray: sentinel loop w/ dec bowel sounds; colon cut off sign

ERCP

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211
Q

What lab result is highly suspicious for gallstone induced pancreatitis

What lab result will be seen on BMP

Once admitted, how are Pts managed

A

ALT 3x higher than normal

HypoCa- necrotic fat binds to Ca via soponification

LR w/ Meperidine and Imipenem

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212
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test for pancreatic function w/ chronic pancreatitis

What tumor marker is used to track PTs after pancreatic cancer Tx

Name of surgical procedure

A

Fecal elastase

CA 19-9

Pancreaticoduodenectomy- whipple

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213
Q

How is pancreatic cancer managed if Pt is inoperable

MC Sx of anorectal Ca

What is the MC type

A

ERCP w/ stent

Hemaochezia w/ tenesmus

Adenocarcinoma

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214
Q

What studies are ordered for hemorrhoids

How are hemorrhoids classified

A

Anoscopy- benign PE
Colon/Sigmoidoscopy- >40y/o w/ RFs for cancer

Degree of prolapse:

1: none below dentate line
2: spot reduction
3: manual reduction
4: irreducible, may strangulate

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215
Q

How are internal hemorrhoids Tx

Hemorrhoidectomy is used for Tx of ? stages

What is the MC microbe and location for anal fistula/abscess

A

Docusate/Psylliumw/ sitz baths
Lidocaine/witch hazel
Rubber band ligation
+bleeding= sclerotherapy

Stage 4 and medical failures

Staph A; posterior wall

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216
Q

How are anorectal abscess and fistulas Tx

Define anal fissure

A

InD then WASH:
Warm water cleanse Analgesic Sitz bath High fiber

Painful linear tear/crack along distal canal

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217
Q

How are anal fissures Tx

Define Vit C deficiency

What condition develops d/t the deficiency

A

First: Sitz bath, inc water/fiber
2nd; Nitro, Nifedipine
3rd: botox to internal sphincter
4th: internal sphincterotomy

Ascorbic acid

Scurvy: tooth loss w/ 3 Hs-
Hyperkeratosis: hyper hair follicles w/ curled hair
Hemorrhage: gun/skin/joint bleeding and dec healing
Heme: anemia w/ glossitis

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218
Q

How is Vit C deficiency Dx

How does Vit D deficiency appear on PE

What would be seen on x-rays

A

Leukocyte ascorbic levels > serum levels

Bone pain
Prox muscle weakness
Bowing of long bones

Looser lines- pseudo Fxs

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219
Q

How is Vit D deficiency Tx

What is the other name for Vit D and it’s role in the body

Viatmin A deficiency/toxicity

A

Ergocalciferol

1,25 Dihydroxycalciferol- needed to absorb Ca from intestine

Inc: idiopathic intracranial HTN
Dec: night blindness

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220
Q

What is seen on PE if Vit A deficiency is present

B2 deficiency syndrome name

B1 Deficeincy

A

Bitot’s spots: white spot in conjunctiva

Riboflavin-
Oral: magenta colored tongue
Ocular: photophobia
Genital: scrotal dermatitis

Thiamine: d/t alcoholism

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221
Q

What are the two forms of B1 Thiamine Deficiency

What form of encephalopathy can form

Why is this such a concern

A

Dry Beriberi: symmetric peripheral neuropathy
Wet Beriberi: high output HF w/ dilated myopathy

Wernicke: ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia

Neuro emergency commonly seen in alcoholics

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222
Q

? form of dementia can form w/ B1 Thiamine deficiency

What are the etiologies of B3 Deficiency

What condition does this present as

A

Korsakoff: short term loss w/ confabulation d/t Wernickes

Untreated corn lacking tryptophan
Carcinoid syndrome: inc tryptophan metabolism w/ serotonin production
Hartnup dz: dec tryptophan absorption

Pellagra: Dermatitis (sun exposed) Diarrhea Dementia

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223
Q

How does B6 deficiency present

How is B12 absorbed into the gut

What is the MCC of this deficiency

A

Peripheral neuropahty and anemia

W/ intrinsic factor in distal ileum

Pernicious anemia- dec IF d/t parietal cell Abs

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224
Q

How does B12 deficiency appear on PE

How is this Dx

Since this presents similarly to folate deficiency, what lab results are used to differ the two

A

Initial Sx: symmetric paresthesia in legs
Lat/Post spinal cord demyelination: loss of vibratory/proprioception, dec DTRs

CBC w/ peripheral smear: macrocytic w/ hypersegmented neutrophils and macro ovalocytes

Inc LDH, homocysteine, methylmalonic acid

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225
Q

Define RA

How does this present on exam

What two syndromes can be seen w/ this Dz

A

Chronic autoimmune inflammatory dz w/ persistent symmetric polyarthritis

AM stiffness improving through day, affects DIP and PIP

Felty: RA + splenomegaly + dec WBC
Caplan: coal worker lung and RA

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226
Q

What are the two hand deformities seen w/ rheumatoid arthritis

How is RA Dx

How is RA Tx w/ DMARDs

A

Boutonniere: PIP flexion, hyperextend DIP
Swan neck: DIP flexion, hyperextend PIP

Rheum factor: sens, not spec
Anti citrullinated peptide Abs: most spec

NSAIDs w/ CCS
Hydroxychloroquine Methotrexate* Sulfasalazine

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227
Q

How is RA Tx w/ Biologics

Lab results seen w/ OA

What DDx can occur w/ OA in the knee

A

IL-1 antagonist: Anakinra
Anti-TNF: Etanercept Infliximab Adalimumab

Normal ESR/CRP

Bakers Cyst

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228
Q

What are four meds that can induce lupus

Define SLE

What lab result is usually pos in these Pts

A

Procainamide Isoniazid Quinidine Hydralazine

Autoimmune dz w/ rash (maculopapular butterfly), joint pain, fever

ANA and anti-histone Abs, normal complement

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229
Q

What are the three types of SLE

How is this Dx

What lab result means Pt is at increased risk for thrombosis

A

Fixed erythematous: rash on cheeks/nose bridge
Discoid: annular, erythematous patches
Systemic: Renal Alopecia CNS Eye CV

Initial: ANA
Anti-double DNA/AntiSmith- 100% spec

Antiphospholipid Ab syndrome

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230
Q

What lab result can indicated females w/ SLE will have frequent miscarriage/livedo reticularis

What complement levels are dec during flares

? lab results suggest increased risk for neonatal lupus erythematosus during pregnancy

A

B-2 glycoprotein 1 Ab

C3,4 CH50

Anti Ro/La

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231
Q

? lab result has high sensitivity for an etiology for drug induced lupus

How is SLE managed

Define Scleroderma

A

Antihistone Ab

Hydroxychloroquine
NSAID/Acetaminophen
Sun protection

CT d/o w/ thickened skin (sclerodactyly)

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232
Q

Limited Cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis is AKA ? syndrome

How is the vascular phenomenon Tx

How is Scleroderma Dx

A

CREST: Carlcinosis Raynauds gErd, Sclerodactyly Telangiectasis

Raynauds- CCB and prostcyclin

Anti-centromere Ab- limited crest, better
Anti-SCL 70 Ab- diffuse Dz w/ multiple organ involvement

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233
Q

How is Scleroderma Tx to prevent progression/if pulm system is involved

What meds are used if P-HTN develops

What is the drug of choice for renal crisis

A

Methotrexate
Mycophenolate
Cyclophosphamide

Ambrisentan and Tadalafil

Captopril

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234
Q

Define Ankylosing Spondylitis

This Dx is also associated w/ ? other four Dx

How is this condition Dx

A

Seronegative arthropathy affecting sacroiliac joints

Psoriasis IBDz Anterior uveitis AR

CRP/ESR, HLA-B27
X-ray: gold standard

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235
Q

How is Ankylosing Spondylitis managed

What meds can be used for relieving joint Sxs

What lab result will be Pos in >80% of Reitters Pts

A

PT w/ NSAIDs
Refractory: a-TNF Etanercept/Infliximab

Sulfasalazine, Methotrexate

HLA-B27

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236
Q

Define Reitters Syndrome

What GI infections can cause this

Other than + HLA-B27, what other lab result aids w/ Dx

A

Autoimmune response to infection, MC G > C

Salmonella/Shigella
Campylobacter
Yersinia

Aseptic synovial fluid

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237
Q

How is Reitters Tx

Define Gout

How is this Dx if the attack is in great toe

A

NSAIDs/ABX
No response: methotrexate, a-TNF, CCS

Uric acid accumulation in joints/tissue

Podagra

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238
Q

How does acute gouty arthritis present

How does chronic gout present

Define Pseudogout

A

Podagra, monoarthropathy

Tophi deposition

Ca pyrophosphate crystal in tissues, MC knee, wrist

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239
Q

What will be seen on x-rays of pseudogout

How is gout Dx

How is pseudogout Dx

A

Chondrocalcinosis- linear radiodensities

Neg birefringent needles
Rat bite/punched out erosion on x-ray
Inc serum uric acid/ESR/WBCs

Pos birefringent, rhomboid crystals

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240
Q

How is acute gout Tx/managed

What is avoided

When/How is chronic gout considered for managed

A

1st: Indomethacin, Naprosyn
2nd: colchicine, steroid

ASA- inc serum uric acid

Tophi or ≥2 attacks/year:
Allopurinol: red uric acid production
Probenecid: inc uric acid secretion
NSAID or Colchicine

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241
Q

How is Pseudogout Tx

What is used for prophylaxis

Define Polymyositis

A

CCS then NSAID

Colchine

Chronic, idiopathic inflammation causing symmetric, proximal weakness/pain

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242
Q

What would be seen on PE in Pts w/ Polymyositis

What parts of the body are MC affected

How is Polymyositis different from Dermatomyositis and Polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

Early fatigue
Inability to rise from seated

Shoulders, Hips

Derm: skin changes
PR: lack of joint pain
Polymyositis:` inc muscle enzymes/CrK

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243
Q

Define Dermatomyositis

What differentiators may be seen on exam

A

Autoimmune myopathy w/ symmetric proximal weakness AND cutaneous findings

Gottrons: raised purple, scaling plaques on bone prominences

Shawl/V-sign: pink rash on neck/trunk

Heliotrope rash: purple/red rash around eyes/on lids

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244
Q

What would be seen on muscle biopsy results in Dermatomyositis Pts

What serology result is specific for Dermatomyositis

What marker is specific for interstitial lung fibrosis

A

Endomysial inflammation

Anti-Mi-2 Ab

Anti-Jo 1 Ab

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245
Q

How is Polymyositis/Dermatomyositis Tx

What two presenting factors are unique for fibromyalgia

How is this Dx

A

Suppress w/ CCS
Long term management- Methotrexate

Sleep disturbances, Sxs worse w/ stress

Pain w/ 4kgs of force in 11 of 18 sites

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246
Q

How is fibromyalgia managed

What is the only FDA approved med for Tx

What is the preferred method of PT

A

TCAS

Pregabalin

Swimming

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247
Q

What part of the body is attacked during Sjogrens

How is it Dx

What test can be done in office for Dx

How is Sjogrens Tx

A

Exocrine glands: Xerostomia, Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

ANA, Anti-SS A/B (anti-RO/La)

Schirmers: pos if <5mm lacrimation in 5min

Pilocarpine- cholinergic for xerostomia Cevimeline

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248
Q

What is the Rule of 50 for GCA

What causes this to occur

What branches of the carotid artery are affected by GCA

A

Steroids ESR Age >50

Viral infection causing monocyte activation and cytokine production

Post-Ciliary Occipital Ophthalmic Temporal

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249
Q

GCA prevalence is closely linked w/ ? other Dx

What type of vision loss can occur

A

Polymylagia Rheumatica- inflammatory condition causing synovitis, bursitis and tenosynovitis

Amaurosis fugax- temporal monocular d/t ischemic optic neuritis

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250
Q

What do Pts present w/ as c/c w/ polymyalgia rheumatica

How are Pts w/ this condition managed

Define Polyarteritis Nodosa and w/ co-Dx may exist w/ this

A

AM stiffness/joint swelling w/ normal strength

CCS, Methotrexate

Vasculitis of med/small arteries; Hep B/C

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251
Q

Two abnormal c/c making Polyarteritis Nodosa a possible dx

What PE finding supports this

How is a Dx confirmed

A

New foot/wrist drop
Rapidly inc HTN

Tender lumps on thigh/lower legs

Biopsy- necrotizing arteries
Ateriography- arterial aneurysms

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252
Q

What rheum factor is usually negative in Pts w/ Polyarteritis Nodosa

How is this Tx

? is the MCC of hyperthyroidism

A

ANCA neg

Steroids w/ cyclophosphamide
Hep B: plasmapheresis

Graves dz

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253
Q

What will lab results show in hyperthyroidism

How is this Dx

How is this Tx

A

Low TSH, high T3 and FT4 (graves- only T3 is elevated)

Anti-thyrotropin Abs via TSI/TBII

Methimazole- mild cases
PTU- pregnancy
Cards Sx: Atenolol

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254
Q

? is the MCC of hypothyroidism

What will be seen on lab results

How is this form of thyroid d/o Dx

A

Autoimmune Hashimoto

High TSH, low FT4

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) Abs

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255
Q

Lab results for Primary Hypothyroidism

Lab results for Secondary Hypothyroidism

How is this Tx

A

Inc TSH, low T4 w/ high cholesterol

Low TSH and low T4 w/ low cholesterol

Thyroxine/Synthroid- synthetic free T4

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256
Q

What presentation shift DDx from Hashimotos thyroiditis to subacute thyroiditis

? is the MCC of thyroid pain

What path does this follow and w/ ? lab result

A

Neck tenderness/goiter w/ recent viral illness

Subacute thyroiditis (Quervains)

Hyper to hypo-thyroid;
Inc ESR

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257
Q

Two meds that cause thyroiditis

Infectious thyroiditis are usually d/t ? microbes

How is Subacute/Postpartum thyroiditis Tx

A

Lithium Amiodarone

Staph/Strep

BBs, ASA

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258
Q

? is the MC RF for thyroid Ca

? is the MC type

? is the MC benign thyroid nodule

A

Radiation

Papillary in females 40-60y/o

Thyroid adenoma

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259
Q

Thyroid nodules must be bigger than ? size to be palpable

What are the RFs for thyroid Ca

How are thyroid Ca Dx

A

> 1cm diameter

FamHx
Age >65/<20
Radiation

US
>1cm- biopsy

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260
Q

How to tell if thyroid nodules are malignant or not

How is thryoid Ca Tx

What Tx step is different for ? type of Ca

A

Thyroid uptake:
Ca- cold, no uptake; next step= FNA
Benign- hot (uptake)

Thyroidectomy w/ chemo

External beam radiation- anaplastic Ca

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261
Q

First line Tx for tinea corporis

How does this appear on PE

What other DDx appears similarly

A

Topical clotrimazole

Red, itching scaly patch w/ scaly edges and central clearing

Granuloma annulare- benign inflammatory condition w/out scaling

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262
Q

? is the MC overlooked DDx when assessing isolated pleural effusions

What is the MCC of isolated effusions

Define Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

PE

HF

STD from Chlamydia trachomatis in MSM- painless genital ulcers resolving <3days

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263
Q

What PE finding may be seen w/ Lymphogranuloma venereum

How is this Tx

How are scabies Tx in adults/infants or in nursing home populations

A

Groove sign- adneopathy above and below inguinal ligament

Doxy

Permethrin 5%; PO Ivermectin

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264
Q

Common s/e to IV delivered chemo Txs

What two atypicals have the least amount of weight gain associated w/ use

Define DI and what lab results are seen

A

`Irritative voiding Sxs

Aripiprazole, Ziprasidone

Dec ADH secretion= Inc serum Na/Osm, dec urine Osm

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265
Q

Medical management for chronic barotrauma/pain w/ flying

How does Primary Immune Thrombocytopenia present

How are Pts managed

A

Pseudophedrine (decongestants)

Petechiae, gingival bleeding after viral illness

Platelets <10K: IVIG, steroids transfuse
Platelets >20K: observe

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266
Q

How is life threatening HypoMg Tx

Histology results of psoriasis biopsy

S/e of lidocaine toxicity

A

IV CaCl or Ca gluconate w/ dialysis

hyerpkeratosis, parakeratosis, acanthosis

Bradycardia, heart blocks

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267
Q

Max doses of lidocaine w/ or w/out epi

Pts w/ open skull Fxs need ? ABX prophylaxis

When do hyperCa Sxs begin in pts w/ hyperparathyroidism

A

3-5mg/kg w/out; 5-7mg/kg w/

Vanc w/ Ceftriax

> 12

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268
Q

What causes Primary and Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

What saying goes w/ the presentation of hyperparathyroidism

How is this Tx

A

P: parathyroid adenoma
S: CKDz induce hypoCa/D

Bone pain
Stone, kidney
Groan, ab cramps
Psychic depression, irritability, psychosis

Parathyroidectomy

269
Q

How is hyperparathyroidism induced hypreCa Tx

How is osteoprorosis induced by hyperparathyroidism Tx

How does hypoparathyroidism present

A

Furosemide/Calcitonin

Bisphosphonates

Dec PTH= dec Ca levels

270
Q

What are the two MCC of hypoparathyroidism

What two PE findings suggest this Dx

How is hypoparathyroidism Tx immediately

A

Damaged parathyroid
Autoimmune destruction

Trousseaus: carpal
Inc DTRs
Chvosteks: facial

Vit D, Ca
Tetany: IV Ca gluconate

271
Q

How is hypoparathyroidism managed long term

What triad is Dx for hypoparathyroidism

? bone Ca is most associated w/ Paget’s Dz

A

Recombinant PTH replacement

Dec Ca/PTH, Inc phosphate

Osterosarcoma (Paget’s Sarcoma)

272
Q

Define Paget’s Dz

? infection can cause this dz

What parts of the body are MC involved w/ Paget’s Dz

A

Bone remodeling d/o leading to less compact/weaker bones

Measles

Femur Lumbar Pelvis Skull

273
Q

What PE finding can be seen in Paget’s Dz Pts

How is Paget’s Dz Dx

How is this condition Tx

A

Excessive skin warmth, Deafness

Inc ALP
CXR- lytic lesion, thick cortex

Bisphosphonates, Calcitonin

274
Q

What are the two MC types of dyslipidemias

What are normal fasting triglyceride levels

A

Combined, 2b: elevated total, LDL and Tgl
HyperTrigly- 4; normal total/LDL, inc Trigly

Norm: <150
Mod: 150-499
Mod/Sev: 500-999
Sev: ≥1000

275
Q

What risks present w/ mod/sev hypertriglyceridemia >500

What risks present when levels exceed >2000mg

What can be seen on PE in Pts w/ Type 3 hyperlipidemia

A

Pancreatitis, Eruptive xanthomas, Lipidemia retinalis

Chylomicronemia syndrome: recurrent abd pain, N/V, pancreatitis

Palmar xanthomas- yellow palmar creases

276
Q

What are fasting lipid panel screening started

If results are found to be over ? what is the next step

What meds are used to reduce levels and prevent pancreatitis

A

20y/o, repeat q5yrs; +RFs= q12mon

> 150mg, 12-16hrs later after fasting
1000- B-quant

Niacin/Fish oil
Fenofibrate*/gemfibrozil
Lipitor

277
Q

How often is Pt f/u needed when Tx hypertriglyceridemia

Define Dawn Phenomenon

Define Somogyi effect

A

Sev: q3d
Mod/Mod-Sev: q6-8wks

Down Insulin:
Early AM increase d/t insulin sensitivity/nightly surge of regulatory hormones; Inc bedtime NPH dose/dec snak

So much insulin:
Hyperglycemia rebound d/t GH surge; dec bedtime dose/inc snack

278
Q

? type of fluid should be used in the Tx of DKA

What lab results Dx DMT1

All DMT1 are Tx w/ ? and ? f/u sequence

A

NS

Fasting ≥126
A1c ≥6.5%
Random ≥200 w/ Sxs

Insulin w/ Basal/pre-meal
A1c rechecks q3mon

279
Q

What test is used to differ Type 1 or 2 DM

When does ASA become part of DMT1 Tx

What 2 diuretics and ? CCB are used in Tx

A

C-peptide test:- T1: low, T2: inc

Men >50y/o or Women >60y/o w/ CVD, HTN, HyperLipid/Albumin

Thzd: Chlorthiazide, Indapamide; Amlodipine

280
Q

All DM of ? age need additional meds added

What is the MCC of gynecomastia in infants/boys

What is the MCC of gynecomastia in men

A

40-75= statin

Physiologic gynecomastia

Drug: spironolactone, anabolics, antiandrogens
Idiopathic
Pubertal gynecomastia

281
Q

Onset, Peak and Duration of insulin

A

Novolog/Apidra/Humalog:
10-15m 60-90m 4-5hrs

Regular:
30-60m 2-4hr 5-8hrs

NPH
1-3h 5-8hrs 12-18hrs

Levemir
90min no peak 12-24hrs

Lantus
90min no peak 24hrs

282
Q

How is Osteoporosis Dx

What are the T-scores

This is Tx w/ but w/ ? s/e

A

DEXA at ≥65y/o or Confirmed fragility Fx

Penia: -1 - 2.4
Porosis: ≤2.5
Sev: ≤-2.5 w/ Fx

Bisphos (Alen/Rise-dronate), jaw osteonecrosis
Sev/continue Fxs: Teriparatide

283
Q

When do DEXA screenings begin younger than 65y/o

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary adrenal d/o

Define Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

A

FamHx osteroporosis
Weight <127lbs
Tobacco
CCS

P: adrenal gland destruction, low cortisol, aldosterone)
S: pituitary fails to secrete ACTH, low ACTH/cortisol
T: hypothalamus fails to release CRH

Dec aldosterone/cortisol, inc ACTH

284
Q

Define Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency

What can cause this form

How is Primary/Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency Dx

A

Dec ACTH/cortisol, normal aldosterone

MCC: d/c steroid w/out taper, Pituitary adenoma

1: Inc ACTH, Low cortisol
2
: low ACTH and Cortisol

285
Q

What will lab results look like in Primary Insufficiency

How is Primary/Secondary adrenal insufficiency Tx

How are these Pts managed during surgery

A

HyperK, HpoNa, HypoGlyc, non-gap metabolic acidosis d/t dec aldosterone

1: Hydro/Fludro-cortisone (only ad Fludro in Primary)
2*: resection

Normal response= 3x inc cortisol: IV GCSS and Isotonic fluids

286
Q

How are Addisonian Crisis Tx

Define Pheos

What other Dxs are these associated w/?

A

NS/D5 w/ Hydrocortisone- Dx Addisons or,
NS/D5 w/ Dexameth- unknown Dx
Fludro: reverses E+ d/o

Catecholamine secreting adrenal tumor releasing Epi/NorEpi/Dopa (MC adrenal adult tumor)

NF-1, MEN 2A/2b, Von Hippel Dz

287
Q

What are the 5 Ps of Pheo Sxs

How are Pheos Dx

How are these Tx

A

Pressure, HTN Pain, HA
Perspiration Palpitations Pallor

24hr catecholamine UA for metanephrine/vanillylmandelic acid

Adrenalectomy w/ phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine then BB/CCB

288
Q

Define Cushings Syndrome

What two Cas can produce Cushings Syndrome

Why do Cushing’s Dz Pts gain weight

A

Inc cortisol/BP w/ dec K d/t excess aldosteronism

Carcinoid tumor, Small cell Ca

Cortisol stims fat/carb metabolism= Insulin release=
Increased appetite

289
Q

How is Cushings Syndrome Dx

How do ACTH levels indicated etiology of Cushings w/ high dose DexaMeth suppression test

A

24hr urine cortisol: most spec
11pm salivary cortisol
Low_dexa suppression test- inc cortisol/no suppression= Cushings syndrome

Inc ACTH, Dec cortisol- pituitary tumor (CDz only etiology suppressed w/ DexaMeth)

Inc ACTH, no supp: ectopic
Dec ACTH, no supp: adrenal

290
Q

How is Cushings Dz Tx

How is Cushings Synd Tx

What is the difference between gigantism and acromegaly

A

Transsphenoid surgery;
Radiation or Pasireotide, Mifepristone

Tumor resection or,
Ketoconazole, Metyrapone

Ketoconazole,

Giant: inc GH in childhood, epiphyses open
Acro: inc GF secretion in adulthood

291
Q

How is Acromegaly Dx

If surgery is not a Tx option, how are Pts Tx

Define Diabetes Insipidus and the two types

A

Serum IG-F1 d/t dec fluctuation compared to GH

Oct/Lan-reotide

Deficient/resistant to vasopressin:
Central: MC; no production
Nephrogenic: insensitivity

292
Q

What drugs can cause Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

What electrolyte abnormalities can cause DI

How is Diabetes Insipidus Dx w/ lab results

A

Lithium, Amphoterrible

HyperCa, HypoK

High serum osmolality
Low urine osmolality

293
Q

How is DI Dx

How is a Dx differentiated from Central and Nephrogenic

How is Central Diabetes Insipidus Tx

How is Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus Tx

A

Water deprivation test: DI continues to produce diluted urine

Desmopressin stim test:
Central: dec (no production)
Nephro: continued ( resistant)

Desmopressin/DDAVP

Hydrochlorothiazide, Amiloride

294
Q

What are the four types of stones seen in Nephrolithiasis

Which ones are radiolucent and radiopaque

A

Ca Oxalate- MC; grapefruit inc production

Struvite: MC infected d/e chronic UTIs w/ Klebsiella, Proteus

Uric acid- acidic urine

Cystine- genetic difficiency;

Paque: oxalate, struvite
Lucent: cystine, uric acid

295
Q

How is Nephro/Urolithiasis Dx

What are the indications to admit

How are these Tx based on size

A

CT w/out contrast

Uncontrolled pain
Anuria
Renal Colic and UTI/Fever

<5mm: spont passage
>5-10mm: elective lithotripsy
>10mm: nephrostomy/stent

296
Q

Extracorporeal lithotripsy is good for Tx stones ? size

Percutaneous nephrolitotomy is indicated for stones ? size

MC microbe causing pyelonephritis

A

> 5mm - <2cm

> 2cm diameter

E Coli

297
Q

What UA result is pathognomonic for pyelonephritis

What other Dx is this pathognemonic for

How is this Tx

A

WBC casts

Interstitial nephritis

Cipro/Levo/Cephalexin
Preg= admit w/ Ceftriax

298
Q

What is the most important RF for ED

Priapism is associated w/ ? 3 etiologies

How is ED Tx

A

Artherosclerosis of cavernous arteries d/ smoking/DM

Trazodone Coaine Sickle cell

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor- Inc cGMP to increase NO release

299
Q

What ED Txs need to be taken w/ or w/out food

Which one has the longest effect of 24-36hrs

How are med induced priapisms Tx

A

Sildenafil- w/
Vardenafil- w/out

Tadalafil

Stair climber, Sudafed

300
Q

What are the 5 types of incontinence

A

Mixed- MC; stress and urge

Urge- detrusor over activity; MC elderly/nursing homes
Dx: urodynamic study

Functional- physical/mental disabled

Overflow- dec contraction- high post-void volume; common in DM/neuro d/os

Stress- weak pelvic floor; post-pregnancy

301
Q

How is urinary incontinence Dx

? is the only mandatory lab needed for Peds w/ enuresis

A

Post-void residual;
Overflow: high
Stress/Urge: norm/low

Urodynamic study:
Stress: normal
Urge: inc during filling

UA

302
Q

How is incontinence Tx depending on etiology

A

Mixed- lifestyle mod and floor exercises

Urge- training, Oxybutynin, Imipramine- TCA

Functional- schedule

Overflow- self-cath, Bethanechol, -zosin)

Stress- kegels, vaginal estrogen, pessary, mid-urethral sling surgery

303
Q

Epididymitis is characterized by ? triad

How is the microbe etiology differed by age

What PE finding is classic for this Dx

A

Dysuria
Unilateral pain, posterior testis
Swelling

<35: G/C
>35: EColi

Prehns- relief w/ elevation

304
Q

How is Epididymitis Tx

How is this Tx in Pts that practice insertive anal sex

Define Orchitis

A

<35y/o: Ceftriax and Doxy
≥35y/o: Levoflox or TMP-SMX

Ceftriaxone and Levoflox

Ascending bacterial infection from urinary tract to testes

305
Q

How is Orchitis Dx

How is this Tx

What is the MC form of prostatitis

A

UA w/ culture: Py/Bacter-uria

<35y/o:
Ceftriax + Doxy or
Azithromycin + Doxy
≥35 Levofloxacin (x21 days if w/ prostatitis)

Chronic: enlarged, nontender on DRE

306
Q

How does acute bacterial prostatitis present on DRE

What needs to be avoided on exam

How are acute/chronic prostatitis Dx

A

Boggy, warm and tender w/ F/C/malaise and urine Sxs

Prostate massage

Acute:
UA w/ WBC, +cultures
Chronic- negative cultures

307
Q

How is prostatitis Tx

Pts w/ BPH need to avoid ? three classes of drugs

How does BPH present on DRE

A

<35y/o: Ceftriax and Doxy
>35y/o: Flqnln or Bactrim

Anticholinergic Sympathomimetic
Opioid

Uniformly large, firm/rubbery

308
Q

How is BPH Tx

How is this Tx if Pt is refractory to meds

How does prostate Ca present on DRE

A

Tamsulosin
5-a reductase- dec size: Finasteride/Dutasteride

TURP; transurethral resection of prostate

Hard, nodular and asymmetric

309
Q

What PSA levels indicate suspected prostate Ca

What are the two RFs for prostate Ca

When is screening done

A

PSA >4: US w/ needle biopsy
PSA >10: bone scan

Age, FamHx

> 50y/o
40y/o w/ 1* FamHx/AfAm

310
Q

Prostate Ca Tx is accomplished w/ ? and w/ ? s/e

How is this Tx if mets is present

How is this Tx if no mets are present

A

Prostatectomy- ED

Ieuprolide- androgen deprivation therapy

Castration

311
Q

? is the MC type of bladder Ca

What is the ‘classic’ presentation

How is this definitively Dx

A

Transitional cell Ca

Painless hematuria in smoker

Cystoscopy w/ biopsy

312
Q

How is bladder Ca Tx

What is the classic triad for renal cell carcinoma

What are the MC type of renal cell carcinoma and w/ ? RF

A

Endoscopic resection w/ cystoscopy q3mon

Flank pain w/ mass
Hematuria

Clear cell; smoking > transitional

313
Q

What are the first tests for Dx renal cell carcinoma

How is this Tx

How does testicular cancer present

A

Abdominal CT/US

Radical Nephrectomy

Firm, painless mass in 15-40y/o

314
Q

? is the MC type of testicular Ca

What are the two types of this MC

What is the RF for this type of Ca

A

Germ cell tumor

Seminoma- classic/spermatocytic
Non-seminomatous

Cryptorchidism

315
Q

How is testicular Ca Dx

What are the 3 most likely locations for mets

What tumor markers are used

A

US

Lung Abdomen Brain

AFP- NSGCT only
HCH- both

316
Q

What lab result indicates a higher tumor burden during testicular Ca

How is testicular Ca Tx

? is the most convenient marker for assessing acute RF

A

LDH

Orchiectomy
Seminoma- radiosensitive
NSGCT- radioresistant

Creatinine

317
Q

What do UA results look like in pre-renal acute RF

What do UA results look like in renal acute RF

A

Spec Grav: >1.030
BUN/Cr >20
Osmolality >500
FENA <1

Spec Grav <1.010
BUN/CR <10
Osmolality <300
FENA >1

318
Q

During renal failure work ups, what doe the following mean

RBC casts

WBC casts

Muddy casts

Hyaline casts

Waxy casts

Inc osmolality FENA >2%

A

RBC: glomerulonephritis

WBC: pyelonephritis

Muddy: tubular necrosis

Hyaline: normal

Waxy: chronic renal dz

O-FENA: tubular necrosis

319
Q

What are the 3 MC causes of acute renal failure in order

What causes acute tubular necrosis

What is the MCC

A

Tubular necrosis
Interstitial nephriti
Glomerulonephritis

Kidney ischemia
Toxins

Pre-renal fialure

320
Q

What causes Interstitial Nephritis

What will be seen on UA results

How is it Tx

A

Immune mediated response

WBC casts,
Hematuria
Eosinophils

D/c offender
CCS
Dialysis

321
Q

What are the 3 etiologies of Glomerulonephritis

What will be seen on UA results

What criteria is needed for Dx of CKDz

A

IGA nephropathy (bergers dz)
Post-infectious
Membranoproliferative

Hematuria
RBC casts

eGFR <60mL x 3mon or,
Albuminuria >30mg/day
Proteinuria/Cr >0.2
Hematuria
Structural abnormals
322
Q

? is the MCC of CKDz

How is CKDz staged

What stag is considered “symptomatic stage”

A

DM

1: normal GFR w/ persistent albuminuria/structural dz
2: GFR 60-89
3: GFR 30-59
4: GFR 15-29
5: GFR <15

Stage 4: HyperK/Ph, HypoCa

323
Q

Criteria needed to Dx CKDz

Pts w/ CKDz need to avoid ? compound

? UA result is a specific finding to CKDz

A
eGFR <60mL x 3mon or:
Albuminuria >30mg/day
Proteinuria/Cr ratio >0.2
hematuira
Structural abnormalities

Mg

Broad waxy casts

324
Q

? is CKDz Dx

What marker is used to find damage w/ ? appearing first

Other than E+ abnormalities, ? other lab result will be low

A

GFR

Proteinuria, microalbuminuria

Epo

325
Q

How is CKDz Tx

What is the JNC-8 BP and A1c goal range

What vaccine do Pts need

A

ACEI/ARB

<140/90, 11-12g

Pneumococcal

326
Q

Define Glomerulonephritis

There are two types and are based on ?

A

Inflamed glomeruli causing protein/RBC leakage into urine d/t immune response

24hr protein:
Nephritis <3.5g/day
Nephrotic >3.5g/day

327
Q

What is the classic presentation of Nephritic Syndrome

? infection can cause this syndrome

How is this post-infectious etiology Dx

A

HTN
Edema
RBC casts
Proteinuria <3.5g/day

Group A strep

+ASO titer w/ low complement

328
Q

? is the MCC of anute glomerulonephritis worldwide

How do Pts present

How is this Dx

A

IgA Nephropathy- Berger Dz

Gross hematuria and flank pain after URI/GI infection

IgA deposits in mesangium

329
Q

Define Alports Syndrome

What non-renal exam needs to be done

How is this Dx

A

Ped w/ isolated, persistent hematuria and hearing loss

Ophth exam: anterior lenticonus

C3/4 levels

330
Q

What causes Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis

How is this form Dx

What lab result is Dx of Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis

A

SLE, Hep C

Low C4, C4

Crescent formation of biopsy d/t fibrin/plasma proteins

331
Q

Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis is AKA ?

? type of Abs are found

How is it Tx

A

Goodpastures

Anti-GBM

Steroids Plasmapheresis
Cyclophosphamide

332
Q

What type of Abs are seen in Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis induced vasculitis

Glomerulonephritis as a group usually has ? decreased lab result and needs / for Dx

How is Glomerulonephritis Tx

A

ANCA Abs:
Micro polyangitis: P-ANCA
Granulomatosis w/ polyangitis: C-ANCA (Wegners)

Dec C3,
Renal biopsy- gold standard

Enalapril/Losartan
Post-Strep: Nifedipine
Nephropathy- GCCS

333
Q

How does Nephrotic Syndrome present on PE

What would be seen on lab results

What are the two classifications of nephrotic syndrome by etiology

A

Edema Ascites Effusion HTN
Proteinuria >3.5g

HypoAlbumin, Hyperlipid

Primary: kidney biopsy
Secondary: SLE DM Pre-E

334
Q

What UA results suggest a Dx of nephrotic syndrome w/ protein >3.5g/day

What are the 3 MCC primary causes of this syndrome

A

Fatty cast w/ maltese cross
Oval fat body

Membrane nephropathy- MC in non-DM w/ Ca and Hep B

Minimal Change: MCC in kids; Tx w/ CCS

Focal Segment: obese heroin users w/ HIV/Sickle

335
Q

How is Minimal Change Dz and Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis Tx

How is Membranous Nephropathy Tx based of risk

how is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis Tx if resistant to primary Tx

A

Pred w/ ACEI

Low: ACEI
Mod/Sev: GCCS w/ Cyclophosphamide

Cyclosporine

336
Q

What makes the cysts in PCKDz

? MC stat does this Dx own

What cardiac abnormalities can these Pts have

A

Epithelial cells from renal tubules

MC autosomal dom d/o

MCP, LVH

337
Q

How is PCKDz Dx

What genetic studies are needed

How are these Pts managed until transplant is possible

A

US

PKD-1 and 2

ACE/ARB

338
Q

? is the MC E+ d/o

? level is Dx

What is the MCC

A

HypoNa

<135

Hypotonic fluids

339
Q

What are the 4 types of HypoNa

A

HypoVol HypoNa: volume contraction

HyperVol HypoNa: volume expanded

SIADH: volume expansion w/out edema

HypoNa w/ Euvol: GCSS, hypothyroid

340
Q

How is HypoNa Tx

How fast is Tx limited to

If severely hypoNa, don’t Tx faster than ?

A

0.9% NS w/ Loop diuretics

<0.5mEq/L/hr

3% NS; <10mEq q24hrs to avoid demyelination syndrome

341
Q

What lab result suggest HyperNa

How is this Tx

What happens if Tx is too fast

A

BUN/CR >20:1 w/ Na >145

D5W

Cerebral edema
Pontine herniation

342
Q

HyperK level

What can cause this

What does this look like on EKG

A

> 5 mEq

KF stage 5
ACEI/Spironolactone

Peaked T
Prolonged QRS
Muscle fatigue

343
Q

How is HyperK Tx

When is HypoK seen

What does HypoK look like on EKG

A

Na bicarb Insulin Glucose

Diuretics, Cushing Syndrome

Flat/Invert T wave
U-waves

344
Q

What is avoided while replacing K

MCC of hypo/hyperCa

How are these Tx

A

Destrose- stimulates insulin and will cause K shift into cells

Hypo: Hypoparathyroidism
Hyper: hyperparathyroidism

Hypo: Ca gluconate/chloride
Hyper: NS w/ Furosemide

345
Q

How does HypoMg present

How is this Tx

How is HyperMg Tx

A

Weak, Hyper-reflex, Widened EKG

Acute: IV Mg
Chronic: PO Mg

Isotonic saline
Loop diuretics

346
Q

What are the two rules to calculate maintenance of fluids

A
100/50/20:
100mL/kd first 10kg
50mL for next 10kg
20mL for every 1kg over 20
Divide by 24 for hourly rate

4/2/1 Rule:
4mL first 10kg
2mL for next 10kg
1ml/kg for every kg over 20

347
Q

What is the average value rule for Acid-Base d/os

What is the 3 step approach to assessing acid/base d/ox

Metabolic Acidosis w/ low anion gap suggests ?

A

24/7 40/40
Bicarb: 24 pH 7.40 Co2- 40

pH PCO2 Bicarb

Diarrhea
Pancreatic/biliary drainage
Renal tubular acidosis

348
Q

DDx for metabolic acidosis

A
Anion gap:
Na - (Cl+BiCarb)= 10-16
>16: MUDPILES
Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Paraldehyde
Infection
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Salicylates
349
Q

What is the first sign of Fe Deficient Anemia

What are later findings

This owns ? MC stat

A

Low ferritin

Indices change: micro/hypo

MCC of anemia

350
Q

Anemia d/t lead poisoning presents w/ ? lab result

How is this Tx

How is Fe Deficient Anemia Tx

A

Basophilic stippling

EDTA

Ferrous sulfate w/ juice:
6wks corrects anemia
6mon repletes stores
F/u q3mon x 12mon

351
Q

What are the two MCC of Anemia of Chronic Dz

How are the two differed

How is this form Tx

A

Chronic RF, CT d/os

Dec epo w/ RF

EPO and Fe supplements

352
Q

How does B12 deficiency anemia present

This is laboratory similar to ? other deficiency

How are the two differed

A

Macrocytic w/ hypersegmented neutrophils
Loss of proprioception
Dec vibratory sense

Folate, only other macrocytic anemias

Folate- no neuro Sxs

353
Q

What lab results suggest Hemolytic anemia

What test is positive if hemolytic anemia is d/t autoimmune etiology

How is this form of anemia Tx based on etiology

A

Inc LDH, Dec Haptoglobin

+ Direct Coombs

Autoimm: steroids, splenectomy
Hereditary Spherocytosis: splenectomy

354
Q

What does Aplastic Anemia look like

What is unique about this types lab results

How is this Dx

A

Loss of blood cell precursors= anemia w/out reticulocytosis

All 3 cell lines dec’d RBC WBC Platelet

Marrow biopsy: hypocellular w/ fatty infiltrates

355
Q

? medication may be used in Aplastic Anemia to reduce incidence of infections

Sickle Cell Dz and Trait lab results

How is Sickle Dx

A

G-CSF: Filgrastim

HbSS: Dz
HbSA: Trait

HgbS on electrophoresis

356
Q

? buzz work is used w/ Sickle Cell lab findings

These Pts are at risk for ? microbe of osteomyelitis

How is Thalassemia anemia differed from Fe Deficient Anemia

A

Howell Jolly Bodies: non-phagocytosed nuclear remnants

Salmonella

Fe: low RBCs
Thal: normal/high RBCs

357
Q

How does peripheral vertigo present

How does central vertigo present

Vertigo w/ syncope= ? DDx

A

Sudden onset N/V w/ tinniuts and HL w/ horizontal nystagmus w/ rotation

Sudden onset w/ vertical nystagmus and w/out auditory changes

Vertebrobasilar insufficency

358
Q

BPPV Sx, Tx and Dx

Vestibular neuritis Sx and Tx

Labrynthitis Sxs, Dx and Tx

A

Sx; positional vertigo w/out auditory manifestations
Dx: Dix-Hallspike
Tx: Epley and Meclizine

Sx: Vertigo despite position, no auditory, MedHx URI
Tx: Meclizine

Vertigo w/ HL, tinnitus and URI
MRI, Meclizine w/ steroids

359
Q

Meniere’s Dz Sx, and Tx

Acoustic neuroma Sx, Dx and Tx

Define Delerium

A

Episodic vertigo w/ HL and NO recent URI
Diuretics, Na restriction, CN8 ablation

Vertigo, Unilateral HL, tinnitus and ataxia
MRI, surgery

Acute, short and reversible alteration in mental status

360
Q

How are Cluster HAs Tx

What meds can be used for propylaxis

What are the two types of migraines

A

100% O2 at 12-15mL/min x 15-20min via NRB w/ Sumatriptann

Verapamil then Lithium

Common: no aura > Classic: aura

361
Q

What criteria provide a 93% probability of migraine dx

MC type of aura

How miraines Tx

A

Last 3mon has Pt had 2/3:
Photophobia Impairment Nausea

Visual

Mild/Mod: NSAIDs, Excedrin
2nd line: Sumatriptan Ergomar Metoclopramide w/ Benadryl

362
Q

When is prophylaxis indicated for migraines

What is used for first, second and third line meds

Define TIA

A

≥4 HA/mon or ≥HA days/mon

Divalproex Topiramate PMT-olol
Amitriptyline Venlafaxine AN-olol
Botox, CGRP Abs

Transient neuro dysfunction d/t ischemia w/ infarct

363
Q

What presentation can indicate Pt has TIA

What are the two types

What scoring system is used to estimate a stroke after a TIA

A

Wrinkling of forehead

Large artery low flow d/t stenosis
Embolic d/t Afib

ABCD2: Age BP Clinical Duration DM

364
Q

How are TIAs Tx

Lab result seen in amyloidosis induced restrictive myopathy

What other two conditions can present w/ myocarditis

A

ASA w/ Clopidogrel x 21days

Apple green birefringence w/ Congo-red stain

Megacolon, Pericarditis

365
Q

How Pts w/ myocarditis managed for Tx

How is a sinus rhythm determined on EKG

How is atrial enlargement determined

A

Support w/ Loops ACEI BBs

Pos P-wave in lead 1, 2 aVF
Neg P-wave in aVR

L: m-shaped p-wave in lead 2; biphasic P-wave in V1 w/ larger terminal component
R: P-wave in lead 3 ≥3mm; biphasic P-wave in V1 w/ larger initial component

366
Q

EKG criteria for right ventricular hypertrophy

What are the two methods for EKG criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy

EKG vector movement in relation to hypertrophy or ischemia

A

V1 R > S or R>7mm

Soklow lyone: V1 S + V5/6 R= >35mm (men) or >30mm (fem)
Cornell: aVL R + V3 S >28mm (men) or >20mm (fem)

Towards hypertrophy, away from ischemia

367
Q

What is the quadrant method for determining axis deviation on EKGs

Inferior or Lateral MIs causes ? deviation

A

LAD based on Lead 1 and aVF, check Lead 2, neg QRS= deviation

Inf: left, Lat: right

368
Q

Brady cardia Tx algorithm

What is the exception to this rule

How is SSS Tx if unstable

A

Unstable w/ Sxs, HOTN, AMS, refractory chest pain or acute HF:
Atropine then: Epi or Dopamine the transcutaneous pace

Atropine then Dopamine, Epi and TransCu pacing

369
Q

Tachycardia Tx algorithm

A

Unstable: sync’d conversion
Unstable w/ regular narrow QRS: Adenosine

Not unstable: QRS ≥12sec wide:
Yes, wide QRS complex: Amiodarone Lidocaine Procainamide
Yes, monomorphic: Adenosine

No wide QRS:
Vagal Adenosine BB CCB

370
Q

How are the 3 different stable, narrow complex tachycardias Tx

How is sinus tachycardia Tx during acute MIs

What is the most important/helpful aspect of determining if AV blocks are present

A

Afib/flutter: BB or CCBs
WPW: procainamide or Amiodarone, avoid ABCDs
SVT: vagal, Adenosine

Metoprolol

PR intervals

371
Q

Mobitz Type 2-2 is commonly located where

Stable Aflutter Tx

Unstable Aflutter Tx

A

BoHis

Vagal
Rate: MAE-olol or Diltia/Verapa
Definitive: ablation

Synch’d conversion

372
Q

What phenomenon may be seen on EKG during Afib

How are stable Pts managed

How are unstable Pts managed

A

Ashmans: aberrant conduction w/ wide QRS after short R-R cylcles

Rate: MAE-olol or Diltia/Verapa (Digoxin if BB/CCB c/i)

Synch’d conversion

373
Q

Saying to help ID SVT rhythms

how are stable w/ regular, narrow complexes Tx

What is the definitive Tx

A

Cant tell if bump is T or P, must be SVT

Vagal then Adenosine then BB/CCB/Digoxin

Ablation

374
Q

How is WAP vs MAT differed

MAT is associated w/ ? Dz and managed w/ ? meds

Define Orthodromic and Antidrome PSVTs

A

WAP: <100bpm w/ 3 different P-wave morphologies
MAT: >100bpm w/ 3 different P-wave morphologies

COPD: Verapamil or BBs

Ortho: regular, narrow complex w/out P-waves
Anti: regular, wide tachy mimicking Vtach

375
Q

How do PVCs appear on EKG

Torsades can be caused by ? med if all E+ are normal

? anti-arrhythmic can enhance the above meds toxicity

A

Wide, bizarre QRS w/ T wave in opposite direction of QRS w/ compensatory pause beat

Digoxin

Quinidine

376
Q

Class 1 Anti-arrythmic drugs

A

Na channel blockers: dec Na conduction and AV node automaticity leading to membrane stabilization

1A: Procainamide Quinidine Disopyramide;
Prolong repolarization and action potential

1b: Lidocaine, Tocainide;
Dec conduction velocity and shortens repolarization;
C/i: narrow SVT

1c: Flecainide Propafenone Ecainide;
Inc QRS prolongation and dec conduction velocity w/ affecting action potential

377
Q

Class 2 Anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

Cardio sel: AME-olol
Non-Sel B1, B2: PS-olol
Non-sel A, B1,2: LC-olol

Dec SA/AV node conduction

Non-sels can cause bronchospasms in asthma/COPD

Toxicity Tx w/ glucagon

378
Q

Class 3 anti-arrhythmics

A

Sotalol Amiodarone Ibutilide Dofetilide

Prolongs action potential

Amiodarone: characteristics of Class 1-4 meds w/ s/e of pulm fibrosis and thyroid d/o

379
Q

Class 4 anti-arrhythmics

Class 5 anti-arrhythmics

A

Verapamil, Diltiazem
Slows SA/AV conduction to inc PR interval and refractory period

Digoxin- cardiac glycoside, dec ATP-ase

380
Q

Class 1 and 3 antiarrhythmics are used for while Class 2 and 4 are used for

Intracranial hemorrhage can cause Pts to present w/ ?

How are the categorized by size

A

1/3: rhythm
2/4: rate

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Small: <15mm Large: 15-25mm Giant: 25-50mm Super: >50mm

381
Q

? is the MC type of brain aneurym and is the MCC of ?

Cerebral aneurysms are associated w/ Coarctation and ?

What are the key features of these on presentation

A

Saccular/Berry- MCC of atraumatic SAH

PCKDz

Sudden, unilateral HA w/ N/V/AMS

382
Q

How are brain aneurysms screened for

What would be seen on LP results

How are these Tx

A

Non-contrast CT

Inc opening pressure w/ gross blood
Xanthorchromia- blood in CSF >2hrs

Surgical clipping, Endovascular coiling

383
Q

What defines a seizure as general or partial

What are the two types of partial seizures

Partial seizures originate from ? and are the MC ?

A

Gen: LoC
Part: partial preservation of consciousness

Simple: consciousness maintained
Complex: impaired consciousness

Temporal lobe; MC seizure of elderly PTs

384
Q

Define Todd’s Paralysis

Define Generalized Seizure

What would be seen on EEGs during absence seizures and how are these managed

A

Hemiparalysis last <24hrs after simple partial seizure

Seizure start midbrain and spread to both cortices

Symmetric 3Hz spikes; Ethosuximide

385
Q

What would be seen on EEG during Tonic Clonic seizures

how are these managed

What characterizes tonic clonic seizures

A

High amplitude, rapid spiking

Phenytoin

Facial/truncal spasms
Flex/Extension of extremities
Impaired consciousness

386
Q

Febrile seizure lasting longer than ? need to be Tx w/ ?

Define Status Epilepticus

What are the two types

A

> 5min w/ Diazepam/Lorazepam

Single seizure >5min or ≥2 seizures w/ 5min w/out returning to baseline

Non/Convulsive

387
Q

Withdrawal from anticonvulsant meds can lead to ? type of seizures

Brain damage can occur if these last longer than ?

How are these Tx

A

Generalized convulsive status epilepticus

> 60min

Lorazepam then Phenytoin

388
Q

Define Essential Tremor

How can these be acquired

What can help reduce the tremor

A

Bilateral tremor during purposeful/voluntary movements w/out a resting component

Autosomal dominant

Alcohol

389
Q

Resting tremors indicates ? and not ?

Intention tremor suggest ? issues

Postural tremor suggests ? issue

A

Parkinsons, essential tremor

Cerebral d/o or MS/Wilson’s Dz

Toxic/Metabolic d/o

390
Q

How are essential Tremors Tx

What is done for drug resistant cases

What are the 3 cardinal features of Parkinsons

A

Propranolol, Primidone

Deep brain stimulation

Resting tremor, Cogwheel, Bradykinesia

391
Q

What is the most specific clinical sign for Parkinsons

What causes this Dz

What are the TRAP Sxs commonly associated with this

A

Pill rolling tremor that disappears w/ voluntary movement

Degeneration of basal ganglia in substantia nigra

Tremor: asymmetric resting tremor, disappears w/ movement
Rigidity: cogwheel/lead pipe
Akinesia: slow/less movement
Postural instability: late feature

392
Q

Define Myerson sign

What reflex is this called

What Dx is this sign/reflex associated w/

A

Reflexive eye blinking d/t repetitive tapping above nasal bridge

Glabellar

Parkinsons

393
Q

What is the gold standard to Dx Parkinsons

How is this Tx in younger Pts

What is used for Pts >65y/o

A

Neuropathologic exam

Dopamine agonist: Pramipexole Bromocriptine Ropinirole

Sinemet: levodopa/carbidopa

394
Q

What are the classic signs of Huntingtons

What is the Dx test for Huntingtons

What would be seen on MRI results

A

Chorea Rigidity Dementia w/ seizures

CAG repeats

Atrophy of caudate nucleus

395
Q

How is Huntingtons Tx

How are peripheral neuropathies Tx

Define Myasthenia Gravis

A

Chorea: Tertrabenazine Risperidone Haloperidol

Gaba Amytriptyline SNRI Topiramate

Autoimmune attack of Acth receptors at neuromuscular junctions causing hallmark Sx: fatigability

396
Q

What Pt presentation indicates Myasthenia Gravis

How to Sxs spread

What is the MC and gold standard Dx method

A

Weakness w/ everyday activities

Prox to Dist:
Ptosis Weak chewing Limb fatigue

MC: Tensilon test; prevents Acth breakdown, +MG when Pt becomes stronger w/ injection
GS: single fiber electromyography

397
Q

How is Myasthenia Gravis Tx

Define Myasthenic Crisis

How are these PTs Tx

A

Pyridostigmine/Neostigmine- prevents Acth breakdown
Pred- dec production of autoAbs
Thymectomy <60y/o: curative

Neuromuscular resp failure from dysphagia/aspiration

IVIG, plasma exchange

398
Q

Define Polycythemia Vera

What is a classic Sx of this condition

What causes Secondary Polycythemia Vera

A

Marrow malignancy leading to over production of cells

Pruritus after hot baths, Gout

Artificial increased cell production d/t inc Epo (high altitude living)

399
Q

What are the 4 ‘H’s’ of Polycythemia Vera

What cell mutation do these Pts have

How is this Dx

A

Hypervoemia, Hyperhistonemia, Hyperviscosity, Hyperuricemia

Jak 2 tyrosine kinase mutation

Marrow biopsy

400
Q

How is Polycythemia Vera Tx

Pts >60y/o and Pts w/ prior thrombosis can be Tx w/ ? meyelosuppressive agent

What med is used to decrease platelet count specifically

A

Phlebotomy to keep Hct ≤42%

Hydoxyurea w/ ASA

Anagrelide

401
Q

Define Primary Thrombocytosis

What Sx/presentation can this have

What would be seen on smear results

A

Platelets <600K

Erythromelalgia- burning/erythema d/t micro occlusions

Hypogranular, abnormally shaped platelets

402
Q

How is Essential Thrombocytosis managed

Define TRALI

Define TACO

A

Anagrelide, Hydroxyurea

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury- donor Abs attack PTs WBCs leading to resp distress/pulm edema <6hrs

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload- fluid overload in Pts w/ CHF/CKD; differed by TRALI by inc pulm wedge pressure

403
Q

How is TRALI Tx

How is TACO Tx

Define Von Willebrand Dz and the two types

A

Mechanical ventilation

Diuretics

Missing protein for platelet function;
A: dec Factor 8; B: dec Factor 9

404
Q

? is the MC genetic bleeding d/o

How does this MC present

How is it Tx

A

VWB Dz- Autosonal dominant

No hemarthrosis, Petechiae, Bleed w/ minor injury

DDAVp

405
Q

Define Hemophilia

What are the two types

How does this present

A

X-linked recessive (almost always affects males)

A: Factor 8; B: Factor 9 (Xmas Dz)

Hemarthrosis, Bruises, Bleeds

406
Q

How is Hemophilia A/B Dx

What is the most specific method to Dx

How are these d/os Tx

A

Inc PTT w/ normal platelets and correct w/ mixing (uncorrected= lupus, factor inhibition)

Functional factor assay

Factor replacement

407
Q

How does ALL present

? MC stat does ALL own

How are most cases Tx

A

Child w/ adenopathy, bone pain, bleeding and fever

MC childhood malignancy

Chemo; stem cell transplant if relapse

408
Q

How does CLL present

What MC stat does this own

How is this Dx

How is this MC Tx

A

Middle age Pt w/ fatigue, adenopathy and splenomegaly

MC leukemia in adults

Smudge cells, mature lymphocytes

Lymphocytes >100K or Sxs= chemo

409
Q

How is ALL Dx

How is CLL Dx

How does AMl present

A

Bone marrow w/ >20% blast cells

Peripheral smear w/ fragile B cells that smudge during prep

Blast cells w/ Auer rods in adult w/ dec blood levels

410
Q

How is AML Tx

How does CML present

Most CML Pts will be ASx until ?

A

Chemo w/ marrow transplant

WBC >100K w/ hyperuricemia and elevated blood levels

Blastic crisis- acute leukemia

411
Q

How is CML Dx

How is this form Tx and turned into a chronic condition

What is an adverse s/e of AML Tx

A

Philadelphia chromosmoe: translocation of chrom 9, 22

Gleevec (Imtanib)

Tumor Lysis Syndrome: release of K, Ph; Tx w/ Allopurinl and manage RF

412
Q

How does HL present

What MC stat does this own

What PE finding is indicative

A

Painless adenopathy, Reed-Sternberg cells in bimodal age distribution

MC type of lymphoma

Painless cervical nodule w/out change x 30d

413
Q

Half of HL cases are implicated w/ ? MedHx infection

How is HL Tx

How does N-HL present

A

Epstein barr

Chemo and Rad

HIV Pt w/ GI Sxs and painless adenopathy

414
Q

HL affects ? nodes MC while NHL affects ? nodes MC

How is NHL Tx

? form of lymphoma has a geographical aspect to it’s prevalence

A

HL: upper body; NHL: peripheal nodes

Rituximab and chemo

Burkitt- Central Africa w/ association w/ EBV and AIDS

415
Q

? is the name of chemo regiment HL Pts receive

Define Multiple Myeloma

What MC stat does this form own

A

ABVD: Adriamycin Bleomycin Vinblastine Dacarbazine

Monoclonal plasma cell Ca producing IgG > IgA

MC primary tumor of bone/marrow

416
Q

How does MM present

How is this Dx

Marrow biopsy results would show ?

A

Bone pain (low back/ribs) Anemia Infection

Serum protein electrophoresis- M-protein spike
UA: Bence Jones proteins (IgG light chain)
Peripheral smear: Rouleaux formation
Xray: pumched out lytic lesion

Fried egg appearance- proliferation of monoclonal plasma cells

417
Q

How is MM Tx

What meds can be used during Tx

Define Meningitis

A

Marrow transplant

Melphalan: nitrogen mustard alkylating
Tha/Lena-lidomide: immune modulator
Bortezomib: proteasome inhibitor

Chemokine induced inflammation of leptomeninges, membranes around brain and spinal cord

418
Q

How is Meningitis and Encephalitis differed on PE

When does Crypto become an opportunistic infection and cause of meningitis

? parasite can cause meningitis

A

Enc: altered brain function, petechiae (N meningitis)

CD4 <100

P Falciparum

419
Q

MCC of meningitis in newborns

MCC of meningitis in children/teens

MCC of meningitis in adults/elderly

A

GBS, EColi, LIsteria

N meningitidis, Strep pneumo

Strep pneumo, Listeria

420
Q

Bacterial meningitis LP results

Viral meningitis LP results

How is meningitis Tx based on etiology

A

Inc Protein/Opening pressure, dec glucose

Norm pressure, Inc WBCs

Aseptic: Acyclovir
Bacterial: Dexameth w/ Cephalosporin/Vanc
Bacterial >50: Vanc Rocephin Ampicillin
Contact: Rifampin

421
Q

MCC of Encephalitis

Define Reye Syndrome

What would be seen on PE during Reye’s

A

HSV; ImmCOmp= CMV

Rapid encephalopathy w/ hepatic dysfunction

Pos Babinski, HyperReflexia

422
Q

What would be seen on LP results of encephalitis

How is Encephalitis Tx

Define MS

A

Inc WBCs predominantly lymphocytes
Norm glucose, proteins

Support and Acyclovir

Autoinflammatory Dz w/ demyelination, neuron loss and scarring of white matter

423
Q

What are the MC Sxs seen w/ MS

What PE sign is seen early in this Dz

What is the MC form of MS

A

Paresthesia Optic neuritis Weakness Sensory loss

Lhermittte- electric shock in limb/torso from neck flexion

Relapsing Remitting MS: episodic flare ups
Secondary Progressive: progressive deterioration
Primary progressive: declining neuro function w/out flares
Progressive Relapse: declining neuro function w/ flares

424
Q

What is the next Dx step for MS if MRI is inconclusive

MS targets ? cells particularly resulting in demyelination

What MRI criteria is used for Dx

A

Oligocloncal bands

Oligodendrocytes

McDonald dx criteria

425
Q

How is MS Tx

How is MS incontinence Tx

AIDS is defined as ?

A

CCS for attacks, Interferon betas

Oxybutynin: incontinence

CD4 <200

426
Q

How is HIV Dx

When is medical HAART therapy indicated

A

ELISA w/ confirmation by Western blot

CD4 <350 or Viral load PCR >55K

427
Q

? opportunistic infection is present regardless of CD4 levels

? opportunistic infection is present w/ CD4 count of ≤250

? opportunistic infection is present w/ CD4 count of ≤200

? opportunistic infection is present w/ CD4 count of <150

? opportunistic infection is present w/ CD4 count of <100

? opportunistic infection is present w/ CD4 count of <50

A

All: TB

250: Coccidio
200: Pneumocystis
150: Histo
100: Toxoplasmosis/Crypto

<50: mycobacterium ovium complex

428
Q

Post-HIV exposure prophylaxis should be started w/in ? time frame

When are retestings done

How is neonatal acne Tx

A

<72hrs

6wks, 3mon, 6mon

Topical Ketoconazole 2%

429
Q

What are the 4 stages of acne

What are the 4 DDxs and how could each be r/o

A

1: comedonal
2: papular, little scarring
3: pustular; >25 lesions w/ mod scarring
4: nodulocystic, severe scars

CCS acne: no comedone, pustules all in same stage
Rosacea: no comedones
Perioral: distribution
Acneiform drug eruption

430
Q

How are each grade of acne Tx

A

1: topical retinoid
2: topical retinoid and benzoyl peroxide; add Clascoterone/Minocycline if no response
3: systemic ABX (Doxy, Mino, Sare) + grade 2 regiment
4: Isotretinoin

431
Q

Any case of acne that is more than mild is Tx w/ ? first line Tx regiment

What birth control options are available for Tx

What type of reaction is Erythema Multiform and is usually associated w/ ?

A

Topical retinoid
Topical antimicrobial

Ethinyl estradiol norgestimate
Estrostep
Yaz

Type 4; HSV, Sulfa drugs

432
Q

How does Erythema Multiforme present on PE

What are the two types of EM

How is EM differed from SJS

A

Target lesion w/ dusky center on palms, soles, and extensors that blanch, but don’t itch or Nikolsky

Major: two mucus sites and widespread skin
Minor: limited skin, one mucosal

EM: extremity/mouth
SJS: trunk

433
Q

How is EM Tx

Define SJS

What is this commonly caused by

A

PO antihistamine
Acyclovir if +HSV
Topical CCS

Milder TEN, ≤10% BSA w/ +Nikolsky’s

Gout meds
Anticonvulsants
Sulfa drugs

434
Q

How is SJS and TEN Dx

How is this Tx

Define TEN

A

Biopsy- necrotic epithelium

D/c offender
IVIG
Consult derm/ophth

≥30% BSA affected

435
Q

TEN can present in Peds mimicking SSS, how is it differed on exam

How is TEN Tx

Define Urticaria

A

Sparing of mucous membranes

Admit Consult Cyclosporine

Blanchable papules/wheals that disappear <24hrs

436
Q

What sign is associated w/ urticaria

What is a painless, deeper form or urticaria

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this

A

Darier’s Sign- localized urticaria occurring where skin is rubbed d/t histamine release

Angioedema

Type 1, IgE: mast cell degranulation releases inflammatory reactants

437
Q

General measure for Tx urticaria

What two factors can exacerbate Sxs

How is urticaria Tx

A

Calamine or 1% menthol

NSAIDs, ETOH

2ng Gen AntiHist:
Fexofenadine
Des/Loratadine
Cetirizine

438
Q

How is Urticaria Tx in Pts w/ disrupted sleep d/t itching

What TCA can be used too

What med is safe for chronic, unresponsive cases

A

First Gen:
Hydroxyzine
Diphenhydramine

Doxepin

Leukotriene antagonists

439
Q

Define Acanthosis Nigricans

The presence of this indicated ? two issues

What are these Pts at risk for developing

A

Velvety, hyperpigmented plqaues

Hyperinsulinemia
Insulin resistance

Metabolic Syndrome

440
Q

How is Acanthosis Nigricans Tx

What can be done for cosmetic Tx

How does BCC present

A

Weight loss
Metformin

Vit D analogs
Topical retinoids

Pearly rolled border, telangiectasis w/ central ulcer

441
Q

How is BCC Dx

How is this Tx

What is Kaposi Sarcoma associated w/ and is a ? defining Ca

A

Shave/Punch biopsy

Surgical; Fluorouracil, Imiquimod

HHV-8; AIDS

442
Q

What is the hallmark of Kaposi Sarcoma used for Dx

What lab result will be seen in these Pts

How is it Tx

A

Biopsy- vascular proliferation d/t angiogenic inflammation

CD4 <100

Chemo/Radiation
HAART for all Pts w/ AIDS related cases

443
Q

What are the ABCDEs of moles

Define Melanoma

What is the MC site of this in wo/men

A

Asymmetry Borders Color
Diameter Evolving

Tumor growth d/t malignant transformations in melanocytic system

M: back W: calves

444
Q

Malignant melanoma is the MC tumor responsible for mets to ?

What acronym is for the most important independent factors for increased likelihood of melanoma

How is this Dx

A

Heart

HARMM:
Prior Hx of melanoma
Age >50
Absent regular Derm evals
Changing mole
Male

Biopsy

445
Q

How is malignant melanomas staged

Prognosis is associated w/ ?

How are these Tx

A

Clark Classification:

1: epidermis
2: papillary dermis
3: papilary reticular
4: reticular dermis
5: penetrates SQ fat

Lesion depth

1-3: excision, 4: chemo

446
Q

Define SCC

What do they look like on PE

These usually arise within preexisting ?

A

Malignant epithelial tumor from epidermal keratinocytes

Enlarged hyperkeratonic macule w/ scales/crusted lumps

Actinic keratosis
Intraepidermal carcinoma

447
Q

How are BCC and SCC differed on exam

How is SCC Dx

How are they Tx

A

BCC: telangiectasia, central ulcer, rolled border
SCC: scaly papules

Biopsy

Excision w/ Mohs

448
Q

Two areas MC affected by pressure ulcers and how can they be avoided

What are the 4 stages

How are pressure ulcers Tx

A

Sacrum, Hip; Reposition q2hrs

1- Non-blanching
2- pink ulcer, lost dermal layer
3- dermal loss, SQ/fat visible
4: exposed bone/tendon

1: prevention, thin dressing
2: occlusive dressing
3-4: necrotic debridment

449
Q

? is a common inflammatory dermatosis of the lower extremities

Where are these MC seen

How is this MC Tx

A

Stasis dermatitis: chronic venous insufficiency w/ varicose veins

Medial ankle

Compress, CCS, ABX if cellulitis present

450
Q

Define AKs, which are synonyms for ?

These are precursors for ? Ca

How are they Tx

A

Solar Keratosis- pink/yellow lesions w/ sand paper texture

SCC

Cryo Imiquimod 5-Fu

451
Q

Define SKs

What are these commonly referred to as?

How are they Tx if desired

A

MC benign skin tumor; dark plaques w/ stuck on appearance

Barnacles of old age

Cryo, Electrodissection, Curettage

452
Q

What MCC cellulitis in adults

What MCC cellulitis in kids

How are these Dx and w/ ? education

A

Staph, Strep pyogenes

HFlu, Strep pneumo

Cultures; F/u <48hrs

453
Q

How is cellulitis Tx

A

Mild:
Cephalexin
Cefuroxime
PCN allergy: Clinda

Purulent/MRSA:
TMP-SMX
Clinda
Doxy
IV Vanc or Linezolid
454
Q

Erysipelas is always caused by ? microbe

How is this type of infection defined

How is it Dx

A

GAS: Strep pyogenes

Superficial cellulitis w/ dermal lymphatic involvement

Culture
Antistreptolysin titer

455
Q

How is Erysipelas Tx

A

Mild: Pen G
PCN-All: Erythro/Clinda

Mod:
TMP-MSX and Pen VK
Cephalexin

Severe:
Vanc and Daptomycin

456
Q

How does dermal candidiasis present on PE

What is seen on KOH preps

How is vaginal candidiasis Tx

A

Diffuse, beefy red erythema w/ sharp margins and satellite lesions

Budding yeast, hyphae and pseudohyphae

Micon/Clotrim/Flucaon-azole

457
Q

How is oropharyngeal dandidiasis Tx

How is esophageal candidiasis Tx

How is diaper cadidiasis Tx

A

Clotrimazole, Nystatin

Flucon/Itracon-azole

Nystatin
Clotrim/Micon/Ketocon-azole

458
Q

How is symptomatic candidiasis induced vulvovaginitis during pregnancy Tx

What type of herpes is Varicella Zoster

How is Shingles Dx

A

Topical Clotrim/Micon-azole

HHV-3

PCR/Tzanck prep: multi-nucleated giant cells

459
Q

What PE finding w/ shingles is an Ophtho referral

How is Zoster Tx

How is this Tx during pregnancy

A

Hutchinson

Antivirals, Sxs <72hrs
FAV-ciclovir

Acyclovir

460
Q

How is chicken pos (varicella) Tx

What needs to be avoided in Peds and why

When can Peds be vaccinated from chicken pox

A

<12y/o: none, >13: acyclovir

Salicylates; Reyes syndrome

12-15mon and 4-6yrs

461
Q

When should Pts get Shingles vaccine

Warts are AKA ? and all caused by ?

A

50y/o x two 2-6mon apart

Verrucae; HPV

462
Q

Verruca Vulgaris

Verruca Plana

Verruca Plantaris

A

Common warts from
HPV 1 2 4 7; grow on areas of trauma

Flat warts from HPV 3 10 26 29 41; grow on face, scratch marks

Plantar warts D/t HPV 2 4 on weight bearing surfaces of feet

463
Q

Condyloma Acuminatum

Filiform Wart

Epidermodysplasia verruciformis

A

Veneral warts d/t HPV 6 11

Frond-like narrow growths on face; variant of common wart

Hereditary d/o of chronic HPV infections

464
Q

Cardinal sign of warts is ? on PE

How are these Tx

How are anogenital warts x

A

Absent skin lines
Pin-point black dots
Bleeds when shaved

Cryo Salicylic acid Interferon- refractory

Trichloroacetic acid, Podophylin

465
Q

HPV vaccine is effective against ? strains

Define GAD/o

What meds can be used for Tx

A

6 11 16 18

Excessive worry about multiple things x 6mon

SSRI: Paroxetine Escitalopra
Buspirone
SNRI: Venlafaxine
Kava herb: liver damage

466
Q

Define Panic D/o

How is this Tx

Define OCD

A

Intense fear/discomfort w/ Sxs peaking <10min causing altered behavior x 1mon

Benzo if SSRI too slow
SSRI: Paroxetine Sertraline Fluoxetine
CBT

Repetitive, disabling thoughts (obsession) or behaviors (compulsion)

467
Q

What is the primary goal of OCD’s actions

This d/o is labeled as ?

What other Dx is associated w/ OCD

A

Not lose control

Ego-dystonic: behavior is inconsistent w/ beliefs/attitudes

Tourettes

468
Q

How is OCD Tx

Define Body Dysmorphic D/o

What other Dxs commonly co-exist in these Ptx

A

Psychotherapy
SSRI/Clomipramine

Imagined defect in physical appearance d/t stereotype of beauty

Psychotic and OCD

469
Q

How is BDD/o Tx

Define Hoarding D/o

How is this d/o Tx

A

SSRIs w/ CBT

Difficulty discarding items regardless of value

Paroxetine w/ CBT

470
Q

Define Trichotillomania

What is used first in Tx and what can be used as adjuncts

Define Excoriation D/o and how is this Tx

A

Intentional hair pulling w/ pleasure/relief after completing task

CBT- 1st then SSRI/TCA

Picking of skin causing distress; CBT w/ Fluoxetine

471
Q

Define PTSD

How can this be Tx

Criteria for Adjustment D/o

A

Traumatic exposure leaving Sxs >1mon

SSRI w/ CBT
Prazosin for nightmares
Benzos x first 2wks

Sxs emerge <3mon of stressor and end <6mon after stressor is resolved

472
Q

Define Major Depressive D/o and what is first line Tx

What is a major cause of depression

How is the severity of depression measured

A

5 or more SIGECAPS ≥2wks; SSRIs

Unemployment

Beck depression inventory

473
Q

Define Dysthymia

How is this Tx

How does BP1 present

A

Depressive Sxs >2yrs w/out being Sx free for >2mon at a time

SSRI w/ therapy and PT

Destroys relationships
Neglects work
Spending life savings

474
Q

What class of medication needs to be avoided in BP1

How does BP2 present

How can these PTs be managed

A

SSRIs

Sadness, distracted and dec need for sleep

SSRIs
Quetiapine
Olanzapine w/ Fluoxetine

475
Q

Define Cyclothymic D/o

How are these Pts managed and Tx

Criteria for ADHD

A

Hypomaniac episodes w/ low mood state x 2yrs

Lithium Valproate Carbamazepine w/ therapy

Hyper, impulsive and inattentive <12y/o and in more than 1 environment

476
Q

? is one of the most inheritable psych d/os

Who is more likely to have this

Define Autism

A

ADHD

First born son

Dec social communication/ interactions w/ restricted, repetitive movements and adherence to routines

477
Q

What meds can be used for Autism

Define Narcolepsy

What can be presenting c/c

A

2G: Risperidone, Aripiprazole
SSRI: sterotype/repetitive behavior

Recurrent sleeping/napping w/ intense urge to sleep 3x/wk x 3mon

Cateplexy: bilateral loss of muscle tone w/ retained consciousness

478
Q

What causes narcolepsy

How are PTs managed

Define Insomnia

A

Hypocretin deficiency in CSF

Modanafil, Methyphenidate

Insufficient quality/quantity of sleep 3x/wk x 3mon

479
Q

What would be seen on PE during alcohol withdrawal

What needs to be given during withdrawals along w/ benzos

What med is used for ingestion aversion

A
Anxiety
Hyper autonomic- tachy, sweating
Insomnia
N/V
Tremor

Dextrose Mg Thiamine

Disulfiram- inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

480
Q

What med is used for alcoholics to change brain chemistry and decrease restlessness during sobriety

What drug is used w/ equal efficacy as the above drug and naltrexone

? presentation suggests PCP ingestion

A

Acamprosate, 666mg TID

Topiramate

Aggressive w/ enraged response to loud noises/sudden movements, horizontal nystagmus

481
Q

What is the MOA of PCP

How is this form of ingestion Tx

What is the MOA of LSD

A

NMDA antagonist

Haloperidol, Benzos

5-HT action

482
Q

How is LSD ingestion Tx

MOA of opium

What does ingestion cause to occur

A

Haloperidol, Benzos

Mu receptor agonist

Constipation Resp-depression Pin-point pupils

483
Q

How are opioid withdrawals Tx

What is the MOA of Benzos

What is seen during withdrawals

A

Clonidine, Methadone, Buprenorphine w/ Naloxone

Inc frequency by opening GABA receptors

Anxiety Seizure Tremor- MC if short acting abuse

484
Q

How are Benzo ODs Tx

MOA of barbituates

Why are barbituate ODs more dangerous than benzos

A

Flumazenil- competetive GABA antagonist
Clonazepam- long acting w/ taper

Inc open duration of GABA channels

No depression ceiling

485
Q

MOA of cocaine

What is seen w/ ingestion

What is used during intoxication

A

Prevent amine (Dopamine NorEpi Serotonin) reuptake

Sympathetic activation: Anorexia Tachycardic Dilated pupils HTN

Haloperidol Vit C: promotes excretion

486
Q

What needs to be avoided when Tx cocaine intoxication

What meds can be used for withdrawal

MOA of amphetamines

A

BBs, restraints- risk developing rhabdo

Buproprion, Bromocriptine, SSRIs

Promotes DNS release w/ dec reuptake

487
Q

How are amphetamine ingestion Tx

MOA of ectasy

What is seen during use

A

Haloperidol Benzos Vit C

5HT > dopamine effects

Hyperthermia, hyponatremia

488
Q

When are smokers screened for lung cancer

How are screenings completed

What meds are used during cessation

A

50-80y/o w/ 20ppy Hx w/ current use/quit <15yrs

Annual low dose CT

Buproprion Varenicline

489
Q

Define Conversion D/o

These PTs can present w/ ? odd factor

How is this Tx

A

Neuro Sxs that can’t be Dx/explained

La belle indifference

Therapy w/ anxiolytics

490
Q

Define Somatic Sx d/o

How are these Pts best managed

Define Hypochondriasis

A

Pre-occupation w/ serious illness ≥6mon

Single clinician for monthly visits/therapy

Illness Anxiety D/o: obsession w/ idea but no Dx’d illness x 6mon

491
Q

How is Illness Anxiety D/o managed

What are the two types of Anorexia Nervosa

How is Anorexia Nervosa differed from Bulemia nervosa

A

Therapy w/ SSRIs

Restricted, Bing/purge

BMI <17, weight <85% of ideal

492
Q

When does Anorexia Nervosa need to be admitted

How are these Pts Tx

What metabolic disequalibrium is caused by bulimia nervosa

A

Weight <75% expected body weight

Therapy w/ SSRIs

Met alkalosis

493
Q

How is Bulimia Nervosa Tx

Define Binge Eating D/o

How is this managed for Tx

A

Fluoxetine w/ therapy

Lack of control over eating despite being full/not hungry

Therapy, behavioral Tx

494
Q

What causes Pityriasis Rosea

How is this Tx

Define Blepharitis

A

HSV 7

Steroids w/ antihistamines

Painless inflammation of eyelid d/t dysfunctional meibomian gland or staph infection

495
Q

Blepharitis is associated w/ what two conditions

What will Pts complain of

How is this Dx and Tx

A

Seborrhea, Rosacea

Crusty eyelids in AM

Slip lamp; Compress, massage, ABX

496
Q

Define Chalazion

How are these Tx

Define Hordeolum

A

Painless infected meibomian gland in middle section of eye lid

Warm compress, CCS, Incision w/ curettage

Painful, warm lump on eye lid w/ photophobia/foreign body sensation d/t Staph A

497
Q

How are Hordeolums Tx

How are corneal abrasions Dx

How are these Pts Tx

A

Warm compress w/ topical ABX; Non-response: InD

Fluorescein stain

Bacitracin/Polymyxin B or Cipro
Contacts= Ciproflox

498
Q

How does Cauda Equina present

How is this Dx

How is this Tx

A

Compressed lumbrosacral nerve roots below conus medularis

MRI of L4-5

Surgical emergency

499
Q

How is spinal stenosis differed from lumbar rediculopathy

What sign may be seen in these Pts

What PE test is negative

A

Stenosis: worse w/ walking/exercise, relieved w/ hip flexion/leaning forward

Kemp: unilateral radicular pain from stenosis made worse w/ extension

Straight leg raise

500
Q

How is spinal stenosis Dx

Criteria for this Dx

Define Secondary Amenorrhea and the MCC

A

CT myelogram if MRI c/i

No menses or secondary features at 13yrs
No menses at 15yrs w/ secondary features

No menses x3mon or 6mon w/ Hx of irregular cycles; pregnancy

501
Q

? syndrome can cause Secondary Amenorrhea

How is Amenorrhea Dx

How is this Tx

A

Ashermans: endometrial atrophy d/t scarring/radiation
Sheehan: dysfunctional pituitary d/t posterior stalk bleed

Quant hCG

OCP: cyclic progesterone 10mg x 10days

502
Q

What are the three MCC of hearing loss

Define CHL

Define SNHL

A

Presbycusis Impaction ET dysfunction

Lesion on EAC, TM or middle ear preventing conduction

Lesion in inner ear or on CN8

503
Q

SNHL d/t brain tumor will be MC located ?

How is HL Dx

ETD is the primary cause of ? two Dxs

A

Cerebellopontine angle

Weber: sound to affected ear= CHL unaffected= SNHL
Rinne: BC > AC= CHL, AC > BC= SNHL

AOM, OME

504
Q

All children under 7y/o have ? ENT issue

How is this issue Dx

How are these Pts managed

A

ETD

Tympanogram

Ibuprofen Steroids Pseudophedrine
Tympanostomy tubes

505
Q

How is barotrauma Tx prophylactically

Barotrauma can present w/ SNHL and vertigo if ? develops

AOM is AKA ?

A

Afrin- risk for medicamentosa

Perilymph fistula: torn membrane separating middle and inner ear

Suppurative OM

506
Q

MC microbe for AOM

Criteria for Acute, Chronic and Recurrent AOM

What would be seen on PE during AOM

A

Strep pneumo then Hflu, Moraxella

Acute: <3wks
Chronic: >3wks
Recurernt: 3x in 6mon, 4 in 12mon

Bulging TM w/ loss of landmarks and limited mobility w/ pneumatoscopy

507
Q

How is AOM in children and adults Tx

What is used for kids w/ immediate hypersensitivity to first line Txs

How is Chronic Otitis Media Tx

A

Peds: Amox Adult: Augmentin or Doxy/Azith/Clarithromycin

Azith/Clarith-romycin

Myringotomy

508
Q

How does Otitis Externa present on exam

What is the MC microbe

What variant is seen in the DM population

A

Itching canal w/ pain during movement, Weber lateralizes to blocked canal

Pseudomonas

Malignant OE:

509
Q

Fungal Otitis is d/t ? microbes

How is OE Tx if TM can’t be visualized

How is fungal otitis externa Tx

A

Aspergillus niger or Candida

Cipro and Dexamethason, Ofloxacin, Cortisporin suspension

Acetic acid, Clotrimazole, Itraconazole PO

510
Q

What is the MCC of CHL

How is this MC Tx

What three PE findings suggest Allergic Rhinitis

A

Cerumen impaction: Weber to clogged side, abnormal Rinnie (BC>AC)

Cabamide peroxide or Triethanolamine

Boggy turbinates Allergic shiner/salutes

511
Q

How is non-allergic rhinitis Tx

How is cold air induced rhinitis best Tx

MC site for anterior and posterior nose bleeds

A

Intranasal steroids, antihistamines, Ipratropium

Ipratropium

A: Kiesselbach plexus/Little’s area
P: Woodruff d/t sphenopalatine artery

512
Q

How are persistent epistaxis Tx

MCC of Acute Sinusitis

MCC of Chronic Sinusitis

A

Pressure x 10min while leaning fwd
Oxymetazoline/Cocaine
Anterior packing w/ cephalosporin
Petroleum jelly/ABX ointment

Strep pneumo Hflu Moraxella

Staph A, Anaerobes, Gram-neg

513
Q

What are the indications to prescribe ABX for sinusitis

How are these Pts Tx

What is used if Pt fails to improve in 7d

A

Duration >10d w/out improvement
Fever >102
Purulent d/c
Improvement then rapid worsening

Amox the Augmentin
Allergy: Clinda/Doxy/Cephalosporin

Augmentin 2g Levo/Moxi-floxacin

514
Q

How is Chronic Rhinosinusitis Tx

Define Leukoplakia

What are the two RFs that put these Pts at risk to develop ?

A

Augmentin, Clinda if allergic

White pre-cancerous patches on mucosa that can’t be wiped off

Tobacco use, HPV; SCC

515
Q

What PE finding of leukoplakia makes the risk for dysplasia or Ca higher

This mouth condition presents mimicking ? other Dz

How are Pts Tx for leukoplakia

A

Erythematous appearance- erythroplakia

Hairy luekoplakia: EBV associated lesion in HIV Pts w/out pre-malignancy risk

Surgical excision, d/c tobacco

516
Q

How is Hairy leukoplakia Tx

When does an aphtous ulcer need to be considered for biopsy

A
Zidovudine
A/G-clovir
Foscarnet
Podophyllin
Isotretinoin

Lasts >3wks

517
Q

How are aphthous ulcers Tx

How is Strep Throat Tx in Pts w/ PCN allergy

MCC of viral pharyngitis

A

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
Mg hydroxide
Viscous lidocaine

Erythromycin, 1st gen cephalosporin

Adenovirus

518
Q

How is Mono Dx

How is fungal pharyngitis Tx in HIV Pts

How many Centor criteria for rapid testing

A

Heterophile agglutination test: Monospot

PO Fluconazole

3 of 4; neg= culture is Gold Standard

519
Q

How long are athletes benched after having Mono

How is Ghonorrhea pharyngitis Tx

Peritonsillar abscess AKA ? and MC d/t ?

A

3wks from Sx onset

Ceftriaxone

Quincy’s abscess; Strep/Staph or Bacteroides

520
Q

What ABX are used for PTAs

MCC of epiglottitis

How do Pts present on PE

A

Amox Amp-Sulbactam Clinda

HIB

Drooling Dysphagia Distress while sitting w/ neck hyperextended/chin protruding

521
Q

What ABX are used to Tx epiglottitis

When is laryngitis cancer a considered Dx

How is laryngitis Dx

A

Ceftriax w/ Clinda and CCS

SCC if persists >2wks w/ ETOH/smoking Hx

Laryngoscopy

522
Q

How are vocal performers w/ pharyngitis Tx

What is the MC thyroid neoplastic dz

MC type of PO Cancer

A

CCS

Papillary

SCC

523
Q

Define Brachial Cleft Cyst

These Cysts own ? MC stat

Define Thyroglossal cyst

A

Cyst appearing after URI anterior to SCM

MC lateral neck mass

Soft mass rising w/ tongue protrusion; MC midline mass

524
Q

AV node blocking drugs

How long after conversion are Afib Pts anticoagulated

What two med classes can have first dose HOTN

A

Digoxin

4wks

ACEI, A-blockers**

525
Q

MCCC of sudden cardiac death/arrest

? med dec mortality in CHF the most

? med does not increase mortality after MI

A

Ischemic heart dz

ACEI

Nitro

526
Q

Most modifiable RF for CADz

? med decreases mortality from acute MI

LVH criteria

A

Smoking

ASA

On EKG?

527
Q

? atypical beat causes inverted P-waves on EKG

? PE finding suggests CHF as the most likely cause of a Pts dyspnea

High output cardiac failure

A

Junctional beats

Third heart sound

PE: warm skin, bulging eyes, wide pulse pressures

528
Q

Post-CHF exacerbation d/c education to prevent readmissions

BNP can be artificially low d/t ? two things

TIMI RFs

A

Daily weights

Obesity, Pericardial constriction

Criteria/indications

529
Q

MOA of statins

Two possible adverse outcomes

Pt education for taking these meds

A

Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, inc LDL clearance

Rhabdo, Myositis

Take at night (Atorva/Rosuva- anytime of day)

530
Q

MOA of Niacin

Adverse effect of use

C/i to use

A

Inc HDL levels by decreasing clearance

Inc prostaglandins= flushing/warm skin; Pre-Tx w/ NSAID/ASA 30min prior

PUD, Liver Dz

531
Q

MOA of Fibrates

Adverse effects of use

C/i to use

A

Dec triglyceride synthesis w/ inc lipoprotein catabolism

Increased gallstones

Hepatobiliary Dz, Breastfeeding

532
Q

What is the only Fibrate approved for co-use w/ a Statin

Genfibrozil can’t be used w/ ? meglitinide

How is the pruritus associated w/ biliary obstruction Tx

A

Fenofibric acid

Repaglinide

Cholestyramine

533
Q

MOA of Bile Acid Sequestrants

Adverse effects of use

C/i to use

A

Binds to bile acids preventing absorption and dec LDL

Inc triglycerides
Impairs medication/fat soluble vitamin absorption

Sev hypertriglycerides, Complete biliary obstruction

534
Q

MOA of Ezetimibe

What are the indications for use

What are the adverse effects of use

A

Inhibits intestinal cholesterol absorption

Combo use w/ statin to dec LDLs

Inc LFTs, HA/D

535
Q

? are the two MCC of end stage renal dz in USA

? is the only ARB that doesn’t cause hyperuricemia

MOA of Thiazide diuretics (including Metolazone)

S/e of use

A

DM then HTN

Losartan

Dec reabsorption and Ca excretion at distal tubule

HypoNa/K, HyperUr/Ca/Glucose

536
Q

MOA of Loop Diuretics

Adverse effects of use

C/i in ? population

A

Inhibit water transport across LoH

HypoK/Na/Ca

Sulfa allergy

537
Q

MOA of K-sparing diuretics

S/e of use

C/i to use

A

Inhibit Na/water absorption, most useful combo use w/ Loops

HyperK, metabolic acidosis

Renal failure, HypoNa

538
Q

MOA of ACEI

Adverse effects of use

C/i to use

A

Dec pre/after load, inc vasodilation and insulin action

1st dose HOTN, HyperK Cough Angioedema

Pregnancy

539
Q

MOA of ARBS

Adverse effect of use

C/i to use

A

Binds/blocks angiotensin two receptors w/out increasing bradykinin levels

HyperK

Pregnancy

540
Q

MOA of Non-Dihydro CCBs

MOA of Dihydro CCBs

S/e of use

C/i to use

A

Vasodilators w/out cardiac effect

Affect contractility/conduction along w/ vasodilation

HA Edema Consitpaion- Verapamil

CHF, 2/3 blocks

541
Q

How are Coarctations repaired

What do Pts need prior to surgery

MC cyanotic congential heart Dz

A

Surgery/Transcatheter

Prostaglandin E1- Alprostadil

Tetrology: PROV

542
Q

Tetrology is associated w/ ? genetic defect

What is the MC presentation

How is this Dx

A

Chrom 22 deletion

Blue Baby Syndrome; tet spell relieved w/ squatting

Echo

543
Q

What are the two revascularization techniques for Tx angina and what determines the method

What two meds are used for a chemical stress test for Pts unable to exercise

Pts need to d/c ? two meds prior to test

A

PCI: 1 or 2 vessel Dz in non-DM w/out LAD involvement and normal EF

CABG: L-main or 3 vessel Dz, or two vessel Dz in diabetics, or Pts w/ EF <40%

Adenosine: dec AV conduction
Dipyridamole: dec platelet aggregation, coronary artery dilation

Theophylline: adenosine receptor antagonist
Caffeine

544
Q

What can trigger Rest Angina

What medication may be used during angiography to aid w/ Dx

How are these Pts managed and what is avoided

A

rinzmetal: cocaine, pseudophedrine

Ergonovine

CCBs, then Nitro;
No BBs

545
Q

Check ? leads for P-wave morphology

How is a sinus rhythm determined

Normal PR interval

A

2, V1

Upright 1, 2, aVF;
Neg in aVR

.12-.2 (3-5 boxes)

546
Q

How is L atria enlargement assessed

How is R atria enlargement assessed

Normal QRS length is ? but if shortened ? step is

A

M-shaped in lead 2
Biphasic in V1 w/ larger terminal component

Tall in lead two ≥3mm
Biphasic in V1 w/ larger initial component

547
Q

What iis the typical outpatient medical regiment for angina

What are the two procedures done for Tx and what determined each one

MCC of HF

A

BB ASA Nitro Statin

PCI: 1-2 vessel dz w/out L-main involvement and normal EF
CABG: L-main stenosis or 3 vessel dz (2 vessel if diabetic) of LVEF <40%

CADz

548
Q

Define Sinus Arrhythmia

If Sx, how are these Pts Tx

A

Beat to beat variation: inc w/ inspiration, dec w/ expiration

Brady w/ Atropine first, then:
Trans-pace, Epi, Dopamine

549
Q

Criteria for Sinus Tach

What med is used for persistent sinus tach during ACS

Criteria for Sinus Brady and how are Pts w/ Sxs Tx

A

> 100bpm w/ P-waves

Metoprolol

<60bpm w/ P-waves;
Atropine then Epi/Trans-pacing

550
Q

How does A-flutter appear on EKG

How are stable Pts managed

How are unstable Pts managed

A

Identical saw-tooth waves at 250-350 bpms

Vagal, Rate: BB/CCBs

Sync’d conversion

551
Q

Definitive Tx for A-flutter

? class anti-arrhythmics can be used

What are the four types of Afib

A

Ablation

1A, 1C or 3

Paroxysmal: <7days
Persistent: >7days
Permanent: >12mon, refractory to conversion or no attempts
Lone: no heart Dz

552
Q

? syndrome can occur during Afib

How are stable Pts Tx

How are unstable Pts Tx

A

Ashman: aberrant conduction beats w/ wide QRS after short R-R cycles

Rate: BB or Non-Di CCBs, Digoxin if BB/CCB c/i

Synch’d conversion

553
Q

What class medication is avoided during systolic HF

Harsh rumbling murmur means ? and lead to ?

Rumbling murmurs mean ? and lead to ?

A

CCBs

Stenosis- pressure overload

Regurgitation- volume overload

554
Q

What are the two different EKG presentations of PSVTs

How are the two Tx

A

Orthodromic: narrow complex tachycardia
Antidromic: regular, wide complex tachycardia

Stable, narrow: vagal, Adenosine, BB CCB Digoxin

Stable, Wide:
Amiodarone, Procainamide

Unstable: Synch’d conversion

555
Q

What is the difference between WAP and MAT

MAT frequently co-exists w/ ? other d/o

How is MAT Tx in this population

A

WAP: <100bpm
MAP: >100bpm

COPD

Verapamil;
BB if LV function preserved

556
Q

WPW is a AVRT variant w/ accessory pathway located ?

What are the 3 EKG findings

How is this wide complex Tx

A

Bundle of Kent

Short PR
Wide QRS
D-wave

Procainamide/Amiodarone
Synch’d conversion
Ablation

557
Q

What EKG finding suggest AV junctional rhythms

What EKG finding suggest PVCs

MCC of Vtach

A

Inverted P-wave 1, 2, aVF
Post P-wave aVR

T-wave opposite direction of QRS w/ compensatory pause

Ischemic heart dz

558
Q

Along w/ low E+, what medication toxicity can cause V-tach

How is stable, sustained Vtach Tx

MCC of Vfib

A

Digoxin

Amiodarone Lidocaine Procainamide

ischemic heart Dz

559
Q

MCC of syncope

Harsh/Rumbling murmur indicates ?

Blowing murmur indicates ?

A

Vasovagal: prodrome of dizzy, light headed, tunnel vision

Stenosis

Regurg

560
Q

Increasing venous return to the heart increases the intensity of ALL murmurs except ? two

What two murmurs radiate

What positions accentuate aortic and mitral murmurs

A

HOCM, MVP

MR: axilla AS: carotid

Aortic: sit, lean forward
Mitral: lay on side

561
Q

What does hand grip do for heart murmurs

This murmur increases ? murmurs

What effect does Amyl nitrate have on murmurs

A

Inc after load, dec LV emptying

Outflow: AS, HOCM, MVP

Dec afterload, inc LV emptying; inc AR/MR murmurs; this is why after load reducers (ACEI) are used

562
Q

? is the MC valvular Dz

What are the two MCC by age

What would be seen on PE indicating this murmur

A

AS- preload depended

> 70: age degeneration <70: bicuspid valve

Pulsus parvus et tardus: weak, delayed carotid pulse w/ narrow pulse pressure

563
Q

How are Pts w/ AS managed until surgical correction

What additional murmur can be heard w/ AR

What two additional PE findings aid w/ Dx AR

A

Avoid exertion and neg inotropes: BBs, CCBs

Austin Flint: Mid-late diastolic rumble at apex d/t regurg from LA into LV

Bounding pulses, Wide pulse pressure

564
Q

What are the 8 types of wide pulse pressures seen w/ AR

A

Water Hammer: rapid up/down of radial pulse

Corrigan: water hammer in carotid artery

Hill’s: SBP popliteal > brachial, most sensitive

Duroziez: femoral artery pressure= bruit

Traubes: double sound at femoral w/ compression

De Musset: head bob w/ pulse

Muller’s: pulsations seen in uvula

Quincke’s: finger nail pulsations

565
Q

How is AR Dx

How are Pts managed until surgery

MCC of MS

A

Echo w/ cath

Dec afterload: ACEI/ARB

Rheumatic heart dz

566
Q

What facial changes are seen on PE in Pts w/ MS

What ENT syndrome can this cause

What will be heard on exam

A

Mitral facies: flushed cheeks w/ facial pallor d/t hypoxia

Ortners- recurrent nerve plasy d/t LA dilation

Loud S1 (MV closure) w/ opening snap

567
Q

MCC of MVP

What does this sound like on PE

What makes this click occur sooner/later

A

USA: MVP
Developing: rheumatic heart dz

Widely split S2 w/ displaced PMI

Soon: dec preload, Late: inc preload

568
Q

What med is used during MVP w/ Sxs

Do Pts need endocarditis prophylaxis

What causes PS

A

BBs

No

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

569
Q

What additional murmur is heard w/ PR

Define Carvallos Sign

? lab result makes a Dx of CHF more likely

A

Graham Steel: early diastolic decrescendo at LUSB, accentuated w/ inc venous return/dec w/ dec return

Inc murmur w/ inspiration w/ pulsatile liver= TR

BNP >100; LMOP:
Fuorsemide Morphine Nitrates O2 Position- sit and dangle legs over bed to dec preload/venous return

570
Q

What are the two MCC of pericarditis

How is pericarditis Dx

How is this Tx based on etiology

A

Infection: Coxsackie, Echovirus
Dresslers

EKG: diffuse, precordial ST elevation/PR depression, opposite in aVR

NSAID/ASA; Dressler: ASA/Colchicine (avoid NSAID)

571
Q

? size of abdominal aorta is considered an aneurysm

What is the MC location

How do un/ruptured aneurysms present

A

> 3cm

Infrarenal

Un: Flank pain, abdominal bruit, pulsatile mass
Rup: Flank pain w/ echymosis, HOTN, mass

572
Q

How are AAA Dx

When are screenings performed

What sizes are indicative of repair/referral

A

Stable: CT w/ contrast Unstable: bedside US

All men 65-75y/o w/ smoking Hx

> 5.4 or expands >0.5cm/6mon
4.5cm: refer
4-4.5cm: US q6mon
3-4cm: US q12mon

573
Q

What is the MC Sx of PADz

How can the location of Sxs determine the side of occlusion

What type of ulcers does this condition develop

A

LE claudication

Aortic bifurcation/Common iliac: butt, hip, groin
Femoral artery/branch: thigh/upper calf
Popliteal: lower calf, ankle/foot

Lateral malleolus

574
Q

Define the triad for Leriche Syndrome

How is PADz pain at rest relieved

How is PADz Dx

A

Claudication Impotence Dec femoral pulses

Foot dependency (hanging off of bed)

ABI <0.9, pain at rest suggests ABI <0.4

575
Q

How is PADz Tx

What is the name of the first line revascularization procedure

Acute Arterial Occlusion is most likely to occur where

A

Exercise w/ smoking cessation
Clostazol > ASA/Clopidogrel

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty

Superficial Fermolr/Popliteal artery d/t thrombotic occlusion

576
Q

What is an early and late sign for Arterial Occlusion

Define Thromboangitis Obliterans

How is this condition Dx

A

Paresthesia, Paralysis

Buerger’s Dz: non-atherosclerotic vasculitis

Abnormal Allens test, Corkscrew arterioles on aortography

577
Q

How is Thromboangitis Obliterans Tx

Where is the MC primary cardiac tumor found

This MC can present mimicking ? valvulopathy

A

Cessation w/ Iloprost (prostaglandin analog) and CCB

LA near fossa ovalis

MVP

578
Q

How are Atrial Myxomas Dx

How is GCA Tx if steroid-sparing/refractory agents are needed

What PE sign can be seen w/ superficial thrombophlebitis

A

TEE: ball-valve obstruction on MV

Methotrexate, Azathioprine

Trousseaus: migratory thrombophlebitis w/ malignancy

579
Q

Most specific sign for DVT

3 indication for IVC filter w/ DVTs

How long are Pts anticoagulated for

A

Swelling/edema >3cm

Recurrent despite anticoagulation
C/i to anticoagulation
RV dysfunction/enlargement

x3mon

580
Q

PVDz stats

PADz stats

A

Pain worse w/ leg dependency/rest
Pain improves w/ activity/elevation
Cyanosis w/ dependency
Medial ulcers

Better w/ dependency/rest
Lateral ulcers
Worse w/ activity/elevation
Redness w/ dependency

581
Q

What does Chronic Vein Insufficiency have hyperpigmented skin changed

How are ulcers dressed

What medication can be used to improve healing time

A

Hemosiderin deposition

Zinc gauze w/ MC site on medial malleolus

ASA

582
Q

Define Wheeze

Define Rhochi

Define Crackle/Rales

Define Stridor

A

Louder expiration d/t narrow/obstructed airway

Low pitch rumble/rattle cleared w/ coughing

High pitched noises w/ inspiration NOT cleared by cough

Narrowing in larynx/trachea hear throughout cycles

583
Q

MC type of cardiomyopathy

What are the two MCCs

What is the hallmark PE finding

A

Dilated: systolic dysfunction

Idiopathic, Coxsackie/Echovirus

S3 gallop

584
Q

How is Dilated Cardiomyopathy Dx

How are these Pts Tx

When is an ICD warranted

A

Echo w/ dec EF and LV dilation/thin walls

Loops ACEI BB Spironolactone

EF <35%

585
Q

Define Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

What is the MCC

What sign may be seen on PE

A

Diastolic dysfunction d/t dec filling compliance

Amyloidosis

Kussmaul: inc JVP w/ inspiration

586
Q

How is Restrictive Cardiomyopathy Dx

How are Pts Tx

Define HOCM

A

Definitive: biopsy
Echo: non-dilated ventricles w/ normal wall thickness and diastolic dysfunction

Chelation: hemochromatosis
GCCS: sarcoidosis

Autosomal dominant d/o causing hypertrophy w/ diastolic dysfunction

587
Q

What causes the obstruction during HOCM

What makes the murmur worse

How is this Dx

A

Septal hypertrophy w/ anterior MV motion during systole

Inc contraction: B-agonist Exerise Digoxin
Dec LV volume: Valsalva, dehydration

Echo: 15mm wall thickness w/ LVH

588
Q

How is HOCM Tx

MC type of ASD

What is the other type and the valvulopathy associated w/ it

A

BB then CCBs/Disopyramide
Young and refractory: myomectomy or alcohol ablation

Ostium Secundum, mid-septum

Ostium premium: MV abnormalities

589
Q

What does ASD sound like on PE

How is this Dx and what EKG sign may be present

These can be Tx w/ observation but surgery is indicated when

A

Wide, Fixed Split S2 w/out vary w/ inspiration

Def: Cath
Echo; Crochetage: R-wave notching in inferior leads

> 1cm or Sxs via percutaneous transcatheter

590
Q

Define PDA

What population is more likely for this defect

What allows this defect to continue after birth

A

Continuous connection between descending aorta and pulm arteries

Premature female

Continued prostaglandin E1 production and low O2

591
Q

What syndrome can develop out of PDAs

What does this sound like on PE

How is this condition Dx

A

Eisenmenger: P-HTN w/ cyanosis and feet clubbing

Continuous ‘to-and-fro” machinery murmur w/ wide, bounding peripheral pulses

Initial: Echo, Def: Cath

592
Q

How are PDAs Tx

What is the MC congenital heart Dz of childhood

What EKG phenomenon may be seen w/ this MC

A

Indomethacin; Surgical if non-responsive by 1-3y/o

VSDs, MC type: Perimembranous

Katz-Watchel: LVH + RVH

593
Q

When are VSDs Tx w/ surgery

Why is surgical intervention done prior to 2y/o

Where are aortic coarctations MC located

A

Symptomatic infant
Uncontrolled CHF
Delayed growth
Recurrent resp infections

Prevent P-HTN

Insertion of ductus arteriosus distal to L subclavian origin

594
Q

How does aortic coarctations present

What are the two types

What is the Gold Standard and Confirmatory Dx test

A

Arm BP > Leg BP (bilateral claudication)

Post-ductal: adults, narrowing distal to ductus
Pre-ductal: infantile, narrowing prox to ductus

Confirm: Echo, Gold: Angiography

595
Q

How are Coarctations repaired

What do Pts need prior to surgery

A

Surgery/Transcatheter

Prostaglandin E1- Alprostadil

596
Q

Tetrology is associated w/ ? genetic defect

What is the MC presentation

How is this Dx

A

Chrom 22 deletion

Blue Baby Syndrome; tet spell relieved w/ squatting

Echo

597
Q

Ranges for Normal, Elevated, Stage 1 and Stage 2 HTN

What is the MCC of Primary and Secondary

What are the two MCC of end stage renal dz

A

N: <120/80 and <80
E: 120-129 and <80
1: 130-39 or 80-89
2: ≥140/≥90

P: idiopathic, S: renovascular dz

DM then HTN

598
Q

? is the only type of shock where large amounts of fluid are avoided

What drugs are used instead

What is the first line medical therapy for O-HTON

A

Cardiogenic- capillary wedge pressure >15mmHg

Dobutamine Epi Amrinone- PPD-3 inhibitor

Fludrocortisone then Midodrine- A-1 agonist or Droxidopa- pressore

599
Q

What is the worst RF for CADz

What is the most important modifiable RF

How long does angina pectoris last

A

DM

Smoking

<30min or <5min w/ rest/Nitro

600
Q

Initial test of choice for Angina and classic finding

What is the most important non-invasive test

What is the definitive test

A

EKG: ST-depression

Stress test

Angiography

601
Q

What iis the typical outpatient medical regiment for angina

What are the two procedures done for Tx and what determined each one

A

BB ASA Nitro Statin

PCI: 1-2 vessel dz w/out L-main involvement and normal EF
CABG: L-main stenosis or 3 vessel dz (2 vessel if diabetic) of LVEF <40%

602
Q

MCC of L-sided HF

MCC of R-sided HF

MC form of HF

A

CADz and HTn

L-sided HF (Pulm Dz, MS)

Systolic: Dec EF w/ S3

603
Q

What causes High Output HF

What are the 3 parts leading to HF

A
Wet BeriBeri 
Anemia 
Pagets 
Thyrotoxicosis
Shunts, AV

Sympathetic activation
Hypertrophy/remodel
RAAS activation w/ ventricular remodel

604
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor of HF

What are the two initial tests ordered for suspected CHF

What medication class is the single most effective med for mortality benefit in HF w/ reduced EF

A

EF: <35% inc morality and ICD indication

CXR w/ BNP >100

ACEI

605
Q

Indications to use Ivabradine for HF

? med has decreased hospitalizations but offers no benefit for mortality

A

Chronic, stable HF w/ LVEF ≤35% and HR ≥70bpm and already maxed out/unable to take BBs

Digoxin

606
Q

What are the LMOPs of CHF Tx

What CXR finding suggests CWP of 18-25mmHg

What CXR findings suggest CWP of >25mmHg

A

Lasix (Furosemide) Nitrate O2 Poistion- sit and dangle legs

Kerley Bs

Butterfly/Batwing

607
Q

What class medication is avoided during systolic HF

Define Acute Bacterial Endocarditis

Define Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

Prosthetic valve endocarditis is MC d/t ?

A

CCBs

Normal valve infected w/ Staph A

Abnormal valve infected w/ Strep V

Staph Epidermis

608
Q

What organisms cause endocarditis w/ negative blooc cultures

What are two microbes that cause endocarditis in Pts w/ colon Ca/UC

What is the MC Sx of infective endocarditis

A
Haeomophilus aphrophilus
Actinobacillus 
Cardiobacterium hominis
Eikenella corrodens
Kingella kingae

Strep bovis

Fever

609
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Infective Endocarditis

How long is Fungal Endocarditis Tx

What valve is most likely to be affected by infective endocarditis

A

FROM Jane:
Fever Roth Osler Megaly, speen Janeway lesions

Amphotericin x 6-8wks

M>A>T>P

610
Q

What are the major criteria

What are the minor criteria for Rheumatic Fever

Rheumatic valvular dz is most likely to affect ? valves

A
Joint polyarthritis
Oh no, carditis
Nodules, SQ
Erythema marginatum: macular, non-pruritic annualr rash w/ sharp demarcation borders on trunk/extremity
Sydenhams chorea

Arthralgia Fever Inc ESR/CRP Prolonged PR

M>A>T>P

611
Q

Gold standard for Dx myocarditis

How are these Pts Tx

MCC of pericardial effusions

A

Biopsy

Systolic failure: Loops ACEI BBs

Lung Ca then Breast Ca

612
Q

Most important RF for aortic dissection

How can the location of pain predict the type of dissection

What two meds are used for Type B dissections

A

HTN

Ascending: anterior pain, type A
Arch: neck/jaw
Descending: interscapular pain, type B

Non-Sel: labetalol w/ Na nitroprusside

613
Q

How quickly is BP lowered during aortic dissections

Define COPD and what is the MC RF

What is the only genetic dz linked to COPD

A

100-120 <20min

Smoking

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

614
Q

Define Emphysema

What are the 3 types of emphysema

What is the hallmark of emphysema

A

Enlarged terminal airspace (distal to terminal bronchioles)

Centrilobar: smoking
Panacinar: a-1 antitrypsin
Paraseptal: Spot Pneumos

Dyspnea

615
Q

How is emphysema Dz

Define Chronic Bronchitis

What is the MC etiology

A

PFT: irreversible restrictive pattern w/ FEV1/FVC <70%

Productive cough x 3mon x 2yrs

Smoking

616
Q

What are the 3 cardinal Sxs of chronic bronchitis

How is Chronic Bronchitis Dx

? arrhythmia is seen in these Pts

A

Chronic cough, Sputum, Dyspnea

PFT: FEV1/FVC <70% w/ dec FVC

MAT: >100bpm w/ 3 different P-wave morphologies; Tx- Verapamil

617
Q

What lab result differs Chronic Bronchitis from Emphysema

Most important step in Pt management along w/ ? vaccines

When is O2 supplementation needed

A

Inc H/H w/ resp acidosis

Cessation, Pneumococcal/Influenza

PaO2 >55,
SpO2 88% or less
Cor Pulmonale

618
Q

Emphysema

Chronic bronchitis

A
Dyspnea- MC Sx
Hyperinflated lunged/flat diaphragm
Hyperresonance
Matched V/Q defect
Hypoxic
Productive cough- hallmark
Rales, Rhonchi, Wheeze
Resp acidosis w/ inc H/H
V/Q mistmatch
Hypercapnea
619
Q

What ABX classes are used during COPD exacerbations

How are Pts Tx by GOLD Class

A

Macrolide: Azith/Clarith-romycin
Cephalosporin
Augmentin
Fluroquinolones

A: SABA (Albuterol) or SAMA (Ipratropium)
B: LAMA>BA (Tiotropium>Sal/For-meterol)
C: LAMA (Tiotropium)
D: LAMA+LABA or LABA+inhaled GCSS

620
Q

Why doe COPD Pts develop P-HTN and Cor Pulmonale

Define Bronchiectassis

What is the MCC and what infections are Pts vulnerable to

A

Hypoxic constriction inc R-sided atrial pressures

Permanent dilation of bronchials

CF w/ Pseudomonas infections;
Non-CF: HFlu

621
Q

How is CF Dx and w/ ? two findings

What are the three components of Asthma

What is the strongest RF

A

CT: tram-track and signet ring sign

Airway hyperactivity
Bronchoconstriction
Inflammation

Atopy

622
Q

Define Samter’s Triad

Define Atopic Triad

How is Asthma Dx

A

ASA, Rhinosinusitis, Polyps

Asthma Dermatitis Rhinitis

PFT: reversed obstruction w/ dec FEV1/FVC

623
Q

How is Asthma Dx via bronchoprovocation test

How is an exacerbation best assessed

What criteria are needed for discharge after exacerbation

A

Methacholine challenge: 20% or more dec of FEV1 followed by bronchodilator challenge w/ FEV1 inc 12% or more

Peak expiratory flow rate

PEFR >70% or >15% improvement

624
Q

Define Sarcoidosis

What do Pts present w/

What lab results would be seen

A

Idiopathic, multi-system inflammatory granulomatous dz

Lupus pernia- most specific
Erythema Nadosum (classic)
Dry cough

Hyper ACE, Ca, Vit D

625
Q

Define Lofgren Syndrome seen w/ Sarcoidosis

What is the best initial test and what would be seen

A

Polyarthralgias w/ fever
Erythema Nadosum
Bilateral hilar adenopathy

CXR:

1: BHL w/out pulm Sxs
2: BHL w/ ILDz
3: ILDz only
4: fibrosis w/ restrictive dz

626
Q

What is the most accurate Dx method for sarcoidosis

How are these Pts Tx

What meds can be used for cutaneous manifestations

A

Tissue biopsy: non-caseating granulomas

PO CCS

Methotrexate, Hydroxychloroquine

627
Q

What are two poor prognostic factors for Sarcoidosis

MCC of typical pneumonia and CAP

What would be seen on PE for this MC

A

Lupus pernio, Interstitial lung Dz

Strep pneumo

Tactile fremitus
Egophony
Dull w/ percussion

628
Q

How does pneumonia d/t Strep Pneumo appear

What would be seen on lab results

What is the 2nd MCC of CAP

A

Chills/Rigors w/ rusty (blood-tinged) sputum

Gram-pos diplococci

H-Influ: Gram-neg rod in ImmComp or Pts w/ Pulm Dzs

629
Q

Pneumonia d/t Staph A is commonly seen after ? and causes ?

What stain pattern does this have

? microbe causes pneumonia in alcoholics

A

Influenza, HAP

Clustered gram-pos cocci

Klebsiella: purple (currant jelly) sputum w/ cavitary lesions on CXR;
Gram-neg rods

630
Q

? is the MCC of Atypical pneumonia

What two non-pulm manifestations can this cause

How is this MC Dx

A

Mycoplasma pneu.

Bullous myringitis
Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

CXR:
Reticulonodular pattern, PCR (test of choice)- cold agglutinins

631
Q

What ABX are used for pneumonia Tx

What class of ABX is this naturally resistant to

How is Legionella Dx and Tx

A

Azith/Clarith-romycin, Doxy

Lacks cell wall= B-lactams

PCR > Urine Ag;
Azith/Clarith-romycin or Levofloxacin

632
Q

How is aspiration induced pneumonia Tx

How is the need to admit pneumonia Pt determined

? additional PE finding suggests aspiration pneumonia

A

IV Amp-Sulbactam, PO Augmentin

CURB65:
Confusion Uremia >30 Resp >29 BP <90/<60, Age >65

Foul smelling sputum d/t accumulation in R-lower lobe

633
Q

How is Histoplasmosis transmitted

This can also be an AIDS defining illness if CD4 is below ?

How is this Dx

A

Bird/bat droppings in Mississippi/Ohio River Valley

150/<

Sputum culture > PCR
Inc ALK-P, LDH w/ pancytopenia

634
Q

How is Histoplasmosis Tx

? is the MC opportunistic infection of HIV

How do Pts present w/ this MC

A

Mild/Mod: Itraconazole
Sev: Amphotericin

P jirovecii

Dyspnea/dec O2 sat w/ exertion

635
Q

How is P jirovecii pneumonia Dx

How is the normal course of TMP-SMX adjusted w/ add on meds

What IV med is used for severe cases

A

Diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates w/ LDH >200
Broncho lavage for fluorescent Ab stain
Definitive: biopsy

HIV w/ Hypoxia: add Prednisone

Pentamidine

636
Q

How is P jirovecii Tx in Pts w/ G6PD

? forms of TB are infectious

Two forms of extrapulm TB

A

Atovaquone or Pentamidine (avoid Dapsone, Primaquine)

Primary, Secondary (reactivated)

Scrofulla: cervical nodes
Pott’s: vertebral

637
Q

What are the two granuloma complexes seen w/ TB

How is TB Dx and when is a Pt considered Tx

How is this Dx if primary Dx methods are c/i

A

Ghons: calcified lymph node
Rankes: healed, calcified Ghons complex

One pos acid fast= pos
NAAT: more sensitive than sputum
3 consecutive neg acid fast= neg

Gastric specimen

638
Q

MOA/adverse of Rifampin

MOA/adverse Isoniazid

MOA/adverse of Pyrazinamide

MOA/adverse of Ethambutol

MOA/adverse of Streptomycin

A

RNA synthesis inhibitor; orange secretion

Inhibits myclonic acid synthesis; peripheral neuropathy

Gout/liver Dz

Color vision changes

Aminoglycoside, CN8 toxicity

639
Q

Pos PPD criteria >5mm

Pos PPD criteria >10mm

Pos PPD criteria >15mm

A

Close contact w/ ATB
HIV/ImmSupp
15mg/day x 1mon or equivalent of Pred
Pox CXR w/ calcified granuloma

High risk, dense populus, Immigrant
IVDA
GI surgery
Induration inc x 10mm x 2yrs

No RFs

640
Q

Define Silicosis

This condition puts Pts at risk for ?

What is seen on CXR for Dx

How are Pts Tx

A

Pulm Dz d/t inhaled silicone dioxide from quarrys/sand blasting

TB/mycobacterium infection

Nodular opacities in upper lobes w/ eggshell calcifications

CCS w/ O2

641
Q

Coal Worker’s Lung CXR resembles ? and has ? PFT pattern

How is Berryllium exposure made

How is this Dx made

A

Emphysema, Obstructive

Nickel, Copper, Aluminum in aerospace/electronics

Lymphocyte proliferation test- assess thymidine uptake

642
Q

How is Berylliosis Dx

How are PTs Tx

This lung condition puts Pts at increased risk for ?

A

Restrictive lung patter and non-caseating nodule biopsy

CCS w/ O2 then Methotrexate

Colon Lung Stomach Ca

643
Q

Name of lung Dz from cotton exposure

What occupational hazard puts Pts at risk

What c/c do Pts present w/

A

Byssinosis

Textile: flax/hemp seed exposure

Sxs better at end of work week, restart when work resumes

644
Q

MC complication from Asbestosis

Most specific complication from Asbestosis

Define Silo Filler Dz

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Mesothelioma of pleura

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis from nitrogen dioxide release; N95 mask helps

645
Q

Pertussis is most contagious during ? phase

When is the whoop/emesis seen

How are Pts Tx

A

Catarrhal

Paroxysmal

Azithromycin or TMP-SMX

646
Q

What med is used for prophylaxis Tx of close contacts w/ epiglottitis

What meds are used for Pt Tx after intubation is established

How is Croup d/t parainfluenza Tx

A

Rifampin

Ceftriax/Cefotax or -cillin

Dexamethasone w/ nebulized Epi

647
Q

MCC of Solitary Pulm Nodules

What characteristics make these increased risk for malignancy

What characteristics make these more likely to be benign

A

Infectiours Granulomas

Lobulated Age >40 Irregular Diameter Size >2cm

Circumscribed Smooth <1cm <30y/o

648
Q

What are the two MC sites for carcinoid tumors

What do these look like on bronchoscopy

How can the location of the tumor be identified

A

GI > Lungs

Pink/Purple centrally located tumor w/ vascularization

CT or Octreotide scintigraphy

649
Q

Bronchial carcinoid tumors are made of ? type of cells

What do these tumors secrete

What is the strongest association for SCLC

A

Enterochromaffin

Serotonin ACTH ADH MSH

Smoking

650
Q

? is the MC solid tumor to present w/ paraneoplastic syndromes

Mesothelioma tumors arise MC from ? and 2nd MC from ?

Criteria for Pulm-HTN and ? genetic association

A

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)

Pleura, Peritoneum

Pulm arterial pressure ≥20mmHg;
BMPR2 defect

651
Q

What are the four classifications of P-HTN

If vasoreactive condition, ? class med is first line Tx

? combo findings on PE are suspicious for PEs

A

1: idiopathic
2: d/t left heart dz
3: hypoxemia/chronic lung dz
4: thromboembolic dz

CCBs

Normal CXR w/ hypoxia

652
Q

What is the MC abnormal CXR finding of PEs

What are two classic but rare findings

How are Pts Tx if un/stable

A

Atelectasis

Westermark: avascular marking distal to PE
Hampton: wedge shape infiltrate d/t infarct

Stable: Heparin w/ Warfarin bridge
Un: SBP <90/RV dysfunction: thrombolysis w/ LMWH

653
Q

Well’s Criteria for PE

What is done if the above stratification method shows a score of 0-1

A
3pts:
Clinical S/Sxs of DVT or PE likely
1.5pts:
HR >100, Immobile x 3d/surgery <4wks, Prev PE/DVT Dx
1pts: hemoptysis, malignancy w/ Tx <6mon
PERC Rule:
Hormone 
Age >50
DVT/PE Hx
Coughing blood
Leg swelling
O2 <95%
Tachy >100bpm
Surgery/Trauma <28days
654
Q

What steps are used for PE prophylaxis in low, mod, and high risk Pts

MCC of ARDS and w/ ? presentation

Mimicks CHF on CXR, how are they differed

A

<40y/o/low risk early ambulation
Mod: stockings, pneumatics
Sev: LMWH (Ortho/Neuro surgery)

Gram-neg sepsis: hypoxemia w/out hypercarb

ARDS spares CV angles

655
Q

Define Central Sleep Apnea

Define Cheyne Stokes breathing pattern

Define Biots Breathing pattern

A

Dec CNS drive causes dec respiratory effort

Response to hypercapnia d/t dec brain blood flow

Quick, shallow breaths of equal depth w/ irregular apnic periods (medulla damage, opioid use)

656
Q

Define Kussmauls Respirations

What are the two types of pleural effusion and their etiologies

A

Hyperpnea; deep, rapid breaths d/t metabolic acidosis (body tries to blow off excess Co2) w/out pauses

Transudate: CHF** Cirrhosis Hypoalbumin Atelectasis Nephrotic (inc hydrostatic, dec oncotic press)

Exudate: infection/inflammation-
Pneumonia Emboli TB Ca

657
Q

What is the initial test of choice for pleural effusions

What is the best type of image

What is the Dx Gold Standard

A

CXR: blunting of angles (meniscus sign)

Lateral decubitus films

Thoracentesis for Light’s Criteria;
Protein:Serum >0.5
LDH:serum >0.6
LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal

658
Q

Max amount to be removed by throacentesis during therapeutic procedure

What lab results suggest fluid is empyema

How are effusions Tx if recurrent, chronic or d/t malignancy

A

1.5L

pH <7.2, glucose <40, +Gram stain

Pleurodesis w/ Talc or Doxy/Mino-cycline

659
Q

Define Anaphylactic Shock

How are Pts Tx

How long is observation mandated

A

IgE mediated hypersensitivity

Epi, Airway, Antihistamines

4-6hrs d/t biphasic phenomenon

660
Q

MCC of infectious esophagitis

Hallmark of GERD

What are the 4 red flags of GERD

A

Candidis: empiric Tx w/ Fluconazole

Pyrosis

Bleeding Odynophagia Weight-loss Dysphagia

661
Q

What are the two MCCs of gastritis

H Pylori quad therapy

Concomitant therapy

A

1: H pylori 2: NSAID/ASA
Bismuth subsalicylate Tetracycline Metronidazole w/ PPIs

Clarithromycin Amox Metro PPI

662
Q

? medication is good for preventing NSAID induced gastric ulcers

What is the MC site for extranodal N-HL

MCC of acute/chronic pancreatitis

A

Misoprostol

Stomach

A: Gallstones, C: ETOH

663
Q

What two lab results suggest cholestasis is present

MCC upper GI bleeds

MCC lower GI bleeds

A

Inc ALP w/ GGT

PUD

Diverticulosis Dx by colonoscopy

664
Q

? ABX are used for Diverticulitis Tx

What anti-Ab indicated Crohns

MCC acute mesenteric ischemia

A

OutPt/Uncomp: Metro and Cipro/Levo or TMP

Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Afib emoblus

665
Q

What two ‘water shed’ locations are MC affected by ischemic colitis

MC non-neoplastic polyp in colon

MC tumor marker screened during colon Ca

A

Splenic flexure, Rectosignmoid junction

Hyperplastic

CEA

666
Q

TCA over dose antidote

Amphetamine over dose antidote

Benzos antidote

A

Na bicarb

Ammonium chloride

Flumazenil

667
Q

Theophylline antidote

Digoxin antidote

Methemoglobin antidote

A

BBs

Digibind w/ Mg

Methylene blue w/ Vit C

668
Q

Ethylene glycol antidote

What is used to Tx fecal impaction after manual removal

When is diverticulitis considered to be complicated

A

Ethanol infusion, Fomepizole

Polyethylene glycol

Fistual, Obstruction, Perforation, Abscess