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IPAP > ClinLab Block 4 > Flashcards

ClinLab Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

How much blood do males and females have?

A

M- 5-6L

F- 4-5L

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2
Q

What are the three general functions of blood?

A

Transportation
Regulation
Protection

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3
Q

What are the three parts of centrifuged blood?

A

Plasma- 55% water liquid extracellular matrix
REBs- 45%
Buffy coat- WBCs and platelets

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4
Q

What are the percentages of WBCs in blood volume?

A 
Neutrophils: 60-70%
Lymphocytes: 20-25%
Monocytes: 3-8%
Eosinophils: 2-4%
Basophils: 0.5-1%
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5
Q

What are the two functions of bone marrow?

A

Supply peripheral circulation with mature cells

Increase production if hematological conditions warrant

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6
Q

How do cells enter the blood stream?

Define Polychromasia

A

Sinusoids

Immature cells referred to as reticulocytes and staines w/ supra vital stain

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7
Q

Formed elements do not divide once they leave the red bone marrow with what exception?

A

Lymphocytes

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8
Q

What is the normal Erythroid/Granulocyte ratio?

What causes the ratio to increase?

A

1 : 3

Anemia

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9
Q

Define Stem Cell Pools

A

Stems cells with high self-renewal capacity and committed CFUs

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10
Q

Define Bone Marrow Pools

A

Cells stored for later release into peripheral circulation

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11
Q

Define Peripheral blood pools

A

Functional cells and storage forms of platelets and granulocytes (marginating granulocytes)

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12
Q

Define Hematopoieses

A

Production, development, differentiation, and maturation of ALL blood cells

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13
Q

What are the fates of myeloid and lymphoid stem cells?

A

M- give rise to RBCs, platelets, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

L- lymphocytes

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14
Q

Hemopoietic growth factors regulate ? and ?

What stimulates each and where is the factor made?

A

Differentiation and Proliferation
Epo- RBCs, kidney
Thrombo- platelets, liver
CSFs and Interleukins- WBCs

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15
Q

Where is Erythropoietin and Thrombopoietin synthesized what cell do they exert their effect on?

A

E- kidney, RBCs

T- liver, platelets

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16
Q

Define Cytokines, Interleukins, and CSFs

A

Chemical signals responsible for promoting a specific lineage of cell

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17
Q

What is that pathway of events that causes increased production of blood cells?

A

Receptors: Dec O2 sensing in kidney

Input: inc erythropoietin released in blood

Control Center: proerythroblasts in red bone marrow mature into reticulocytes

Output: Reticulocytes enter circulation

Effector: larger number of RBCs in blood and sensed by kidneys

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18
Q

What stimulates the release of erythropoietin and what happens in the developmental steps?

A

Hypoxia

Red marrow w/ proerythroblasts who eject nucleus and become reticulocytes who develop into RBCs in 1-2days

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19
Q

What parts of erythropoietin cell development are erythropoietin or iron dependent?

A

Fe- Erytheroblasts and Reticulocytes

Eryth- everything before and including erythroblasts

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20
Q

What is Hgb composed of?

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

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21
Q

Oxygen affinity to Hgb A primarily depends on what three factors?

A

Temp
pH
2,3-BPG concentration

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22
Q

Difference between Ferrous and Ferric Iron

Which process is required for Fe metabolism?

A

Ous- 2+ reduced
Ic- 3+ oxidized

Redox change

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23
Q

How is Fe transported in the blood?

A

As Hgb, can not be exchanged

Transferrin bound

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24
Q

What makes up the Heme structure and what is it called?

If Fe is added to it what does it become?

A

C H N

Protoporphyrin IX
Fe2 added= Ferroprotoporphyrin

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25
Q

What types of Hgb are formed in a yolk sac?

What are the four types of Hgb chains that can be formed in fetus and adults?

A

Epsilon and Zeta

A B G D

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26
Q

Normal Hgb has _ globin chains

What makes up Hgb F and where is it seen?

A

4

A2G2- predominant formed during liver/marrow erythropoiesis in fetus

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27
Q

All adult normal Hgb is formed as ?

A

Tetramers

HbA- A2B2
HbA2- A2D2
HbF- A2G2

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28
Q

What are the two hemoglobinopathies listed

A

Thalassemia: Underproduction of normal globin proteins/lack of synthesis of chains resulting frommutated genes

Qualitative Disorders: Sickle cell dz resulting from point mutation of glutamic acid to valin in globin gene

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29
Q

How long do RBCs live for and where are they broken down?

A

120 days

Spleen and liver

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30
Q

RBCs that are broken down end up in what three things with what end fates?

A

Globins aa- reused
Fe- reused
Non-iron heme- urobilin in urine or brown stercobilin in feces

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31
Q

RBCs broken down in the liver release Fe3+ to be carried by transferring to ? to be combined with ?

A

Red bone marrow

Fe3 + Globin + B12 + Erythopoietin

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32
Q

What are the 4 functions of the spleen?

A

Filtration- spherocytes
Reservoir- 1/3 of platelets/granulocytes
Immune role- opsonizing Abs/processing Ags from encapsulated organs
Hematopoietic role

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33
Q

What are the three zones of the spleen and their functions?

A

Red pulp- RBC filter
White pulp- lymphocyte processing
Marginal zone- storage of lymphocytes and platelets

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34
Q

Define Spherocytes and where they’re made

A

Produced in spleen if RBC membranes are less deformable or if Ab coated

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35
Q

Spleen can produce what 3 cells if necessary?

A

WBCs
RBCs
Platelets

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36
Q

What type of lab result/finding signals PTs had a splenectomy?

A

Abnormal RBCs called inclusions present in peripheral circulation

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37
Q

What are the Granular and Agranular Leukocytes?

A

Granular- myleopoiesis/ granulocytopoiesis- neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

Agranular- lymphocytes, except NK and Monocytes

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38
Q

How long do WBCs live for?

What is the exception?

A

Hrs to days
Lymphocytes live for months to years
Monocytes live for months

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39
Q

What WBC process is a normal response to invaders?

Which WBC process is never beneficial?

A

Leukocytosis

Leukopenia

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40
Q

Constituents and function of Neutrophil

A

Myeloperoxidase
Lysozyme
Defensins

Phagocytic and Microbicidal

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41
Q

Constituents and function of Eosinophils

A

Major Basic Protein
Histaminase

Helminth killing
Modulation of immediate hypersensitivity

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42
Q

Constituents and function of Basophils

A

Histamine

Immediate hypersensitivity

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43
Q

Constituents and function of Monocytes

A

Lysozyme

Phagocytic (macrophages)
Ag presentation (dentrites)
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44
Q

Constituents and function of T-lymphocytes

A

Perforin
Granzye (only CD8)

Helper/suppressor (CD4)
Cytotoxic (CD8)

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45
Q

Constituents and function of NK Lymphocytes

A

Perforin
Granzyme

Cytotoxic

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46
Q

Which two WBCs are active phagocytes?

A

Neutrophils and Phagocytes, attracted by chemotaxis

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47
Q

What WBC responds most quickly to tissue damage?

What function do they carry out?

A

Neutrophils

Use lysozymes, strong oxidants and defensins to destroy bacteria

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48
Q

What WBC is the second to arrive to the site of tissue damage?

A

Monocytes are slower than neutrophils but arrive in larger numbers and destroy more microbes, enlarge and differentiate into macrophages

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49
Q

What WBC responsds to the sites of inflammation?

What chemicals are released?

A

Basophils

Heparin, histamine and serotonin to intensify inflammatory reaction

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50
Q

Define Emigration and what name it was formerly known by

A

WBCs leaving the blood stream by sticking to and squeezing between endothelial cells

Formerly known as diapedesis

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51
Q

What WBC are the “major” soldiers of the immune system?

A

Lymphocytes

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52
Q

What are the 3 types of lymphoctes and their functions?

A

B Cells- destroy bacteria and inactivate toxins, form plasma cells to produce Abs

T Cells- attack viruses, fungi, transplanted and cancer cells

NK Cells- attack infectious microbes and tumor cells

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53
Q

What does a Normal Plasma Cells come from?

What do plasma cells make?

A

Evolves from B Lymphocyte

Immunoglobulins

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54
Q

What is each immunoglobulin made of?

A

4 polypeptide chains
2 heavy chains- G A M E D
2 L chains- K L

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55
Q

What do myeloid stem cells develop into?

A

Megakaryocytes- splinter and are wrapped in plasma membrane to help stop blood loss via platelet plug formation but only live for 10 days

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56
Q

What are the 3 types of anticoagulants primarily used in the hematology lab?

A

EDTA
Heparin
Sodium Citrate

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57
Q

Characteristics of the EDTA tube

A

Lavender top
Chelating agent for Ca
Most frequent use for CBC
Excessive causes RBC shrinkage

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58
Q

What are the characteristics of the Green Tube

A

Heparin, used as an in vivo anticoagulant therapy

Binds to antithrombin 3 to catalyze the inhibition of thrombin

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59
Q

Define the Osmolality Fragility test?

A

Blood drawn in green tubes to detects whether RBCs are more likely to break down
Used to detect hereditary spherocytosis and thalassemia

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60
Q

What are light blue blood tubes used for?

A

Sodium Citrate precipitates calcium to an unstable form

Used in in coagulation studies- PT, aPTT, TT

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61
Q

What is measured in a CBC?

A 
RBC count w/ morphology
Hbg
Hct
WBC count w/ differential
Platelet estimate
RBC indices- MCV, MCH, MCHC, RDW (RDW technically not an RBC index)
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62
Q

What is one of the most common lab tests ordered?

A

CBC- performed by lab techs to provide info on PTs blood

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63
Q

What is the Rule of 3?

A

RBC x 3= Hgb

Hgb x 3= Hct

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64
Q

What causes Leukocytosis

A 
Infections
Leukemia
Pregnancy
Neoplasms
Pneumonia
Inflammation
Necrosis
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65
Q

What causes Leukopenia

A 
Marrow failure
Radiation
Chemo
HIV
Viral disorders
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66
Q

Define Total Red Blood Cell count

A

Count of the number of circulating red blood cells in 1mm3 of peripheral venous blood

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67
Q

Define Hemoglobin

A

Index of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

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68
Q

Define Hematocrit

A

% of total blood volume that is made up of RBCs

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69
Q

What can cause an abnormal Hct?

A 
Anemia
Bleeding
RBC destruction
Leukemia
Malnutrion
Over hydration
70
Q

Define Red Cell Indices

A

Calculated from RBC, Hct, and Hgb

Important for classifying anemias by giving quantitative measurements of average size, Hgb content and concentration

71
Q

What are the four things a Red Cell Indices provides and what are the definitions of those acronyms?

A

MCV- mean volume
MCH- mean Hgb
MCHC- mean Hgb concentration
RDW- red cell distribution width

72
Q

Define MCV

A

Avg volume/size of a RBC from volume of packed RBC Hct and number of RBCs

Helps Dx types of anemia

73
Q

Define MCH

A

Content/weight of Hgb in the average RBC by deviding Hgb by RBC count and should always correlate with MCV and MCHC

74
Q

Define MCHC

A

Avg Hgb concentration/color in given volume of packed RBCs

75
Q

MCH as high as 50= ?

MCH as low as 20=?

A

Macrocytic anemia

Hypochromic microcytic anemia

76
Q

MCHC <32= ?

Increases are seen in ? condition?

A

Hypochromasia

Spherocytosis

77
Q

Define RDW

A

Measurement of degree of anisocytosis and poikilocytosis

78
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential

A

% of each type of leukocyte present in specimen is measured

79
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential WBC

A

Measures functional status of immune system

80
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential Segmented Neutrophils

A

Majority at 54-62%

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and mature phagocytes that migrate through tissues to destroy icrobes

81
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential band forms

A

Peripheral leukocytes w/ U shaped nucleus or curled rods prior to segmentation

82
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential Basophils

A

Granulocytes that participate in immediate hypersensitive reactions

83
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential Eosinophils

A

Mature granulocytes that respond to parasitic infections, eczema, and allergic/asthma reactions

84
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential Lymphocytes

A

Large NK cells and small T/B Cells

85
Q

Define CBC w/ Differential Manocytes

A

Large phagocytes of peripheral blood w/ an immature macrophage stage

86
Q

Define Poikilocytosis

Define Anisocytosis

A

Increased variation of the SHAPE of RBCs

Increased variation of the SIZE of RBCs

87
Q

Define Pelger-Huet Anomaly

A

Congenital autosomal dominant disorder where granulocyte nuclei fail to segment normally but funtions normally
Homozygous= round nucleus
Heterozygous= bilobed nuclei resembling bands

88
Q

Define Toxic Granulation

A

Found in severe inflammatory states
Toxic granules are azurophilic and usually found in promyelocytes, metamylocyte, band and segmented stages
Due to impaired cytoplasmic maturation

89
Q

Define Hypersegmentaiton

A

Presence of abnormally increase nuclear lobulation and one of the FIRST hematologic abnormalities seen in megaloblastic anemia
AKA myeloid right shift

90
Q

Hypersegmentation may accompany other disorders of maturation such as ?

A

Fe deficiency

91
Q

When is a RBC, Hgb, and Hct level seen increased and decreased?

A

Polycythemia

Anemia

92
Q

When is a MCV and Mean Corpuscular Hgb level seen increased and decreased?

A

Macrocytic anemia

Fe deficiency, thalassemia

93
Q

When is a MCHC level seen increased and decreased?

A

Spherocytosis

Fe deficiency, thalassemia

94
Q

When is a RDW level seen increased and decreased?

A

Anisocytosis Fe Def>Thalassemia

No Dz known

95
Q

When is a Platelet counts increased and decreased?

A

Inflammation, Infections, Myeloproliferative d/o

ITP, DIC, Marrow failure

96
Q

When is a Neutrophil Count increased and decreased?

A

Infection, Inflammation, Leukemia

Inc risk of bacterial fungal infections

97
Q

When is a Lymphocyte Count increased and decreased?

A

Infectious mononucleosis, pertussis, CLL, ALL

Acute viral infection, Sepsis, Corticosteroid therapy, Stress, Congenital Immunodeficiency

98
Q

When is a Monocyte Count increased and decreased?

A

Chronic Inflammatory/inflammation, CMML

Hodgkin Lymphoma

99
Q

When is a Eosinophil level seen increased and decreased?

A

Allergy, Parasite infection

Corticosteroids

100
Q

When is a Basophil level seen increased and decreased?

A

Sinusitis, Myeloproliferative disorder

Hyperthyroid, Pregnancy

101
Q

When is a Reticulocyte level seen increased and decreased?

A

Hemolysis, Blood Loss

Marrow Failure

102
Q

How will a clotted blood sample alter the results?

A

Falsely low cell count

103
Q

When would a hemolyzed blood sample be accepted by the lab?

A

Evaluating condition of intravascular hemolysis

104
Q

How doe plasma factors effect an ESR time?

A

Accelerated w/ elevated levels of ifbrinogen and globulin proteins which decrease zeta potential that holds RBCs apart
Dec zeta= rouleaux formation and rapid sediment time

105
Q

What red cell factors effect an ESR?

A

Abnormal shape hinder rouleaux and slows ESR
Anemia increases due to dec RBCs that favors rouleaux formation
Microcytic are slower than macro

106
Q

What are the clinincal uses of ESRs?

A

Sickle Cell
Osteomyelitis
Stroke
CADz

107
Q

ESRs are markedly elevated in ?

A

Hyperfibrinogenemia
Hyperglobulinemia
Monoclonial blood protein d/o- multiple myeloma

108
Q

ESRs are moderately elevated in ?

A

Active inflammatory diseases- RA, chronic infections, collagen dz, neoplastic dz
Not Dx, useful for monitoring

109
Q

Define Anemia

What are the two methods for classifying anemia?

A

Sx of a conditions that reduces the O2 carrying capacity of re body

Morphology, Physiologic cause/mechanism

110
Q

Define Aplastic Anemia

A

Aplastic anemia resulting from injury to blood stem cells that leads to pancytopenia

111
Q

Define Hypoproliferative Anemia, how does it present and what Dzs does it cause

A

Deficient EPO or marrow response

Presents w/ normocytic/chromic RBC indices but inappropriately low reticulocyte response

Includes acute/chronic inflammation, malignancy renal Dz, protein malnutrition, endocrine deficiency, anemia from marrow damage

112
Q

Elevated and decreased reticulocyte counts mean?

A 
Inc= increased damage
Dec= hypoproliferative
113
Q

Define Reticulocyte

A

Immature RBCs that have lost nuclei but not cytoplasmic RNA

114
Q

What value does a Retic Count have?

A

Index of RBC production by marrow
Inc= reticulocytosis, means body has inc need for RBCs somewhere
Assists w/ Dx hypoproliferative anemia from anemia due to inc RBC destruction

115
Q

What does a decreased retic count mean and where is it seen?

A 
Chronic Iron deficiency anemia
Aplastic anemia
Ineffective erythropoiesis
Thalassemias
Sideroblastic anemia
116
Q

What lab test is important for the classification of all anemias?

A

Red Cell Indices

117
Q

What is Microcytosis associated with?

A 
Small RBCs and MCV less than 78fL
Fe deficient anemia
Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anemia
Anemias of chronic diseases
118
Q

What are macrocytosis anemias associated with?

A 
Macroctyes- large RBCs >9um or MCV >100fL
Liver Dz
B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency
Neonates
119
Q

What is hypochromic microcytic anemias associated with?

A

Thalassemias
Sideroblastic anemia
Among most common seen typically seen w/ Fe deficiency: Celiac Dz, chronic bleeds, pregnancy
Low MCV, MCH, MCHC

120
Q

What part of the blood can be used to measure all iron in the body?

A

Serum, exhibits diurnal variations

121
Q

Define Total Iron Binding Capacity

A

Measures total amount of iron that can be bound by transferrin in the plasma or serum

122
Q

Define Transferrin Saturation

A

Max amount of Fe bound in plasma or serum
Less than 16%= deficient
Often increased w/ Fe overload

123
Q

What part of the blood is proportional to the amount of stored iron?

What part is inversely proportional?

A

Ferritin- much better assessment of iron stored in the body

Serum Transferrin Receptor

124
Q

Serum iron is only clinically useful if/when ?

A

Grossly abnormal- poisoning

125
Q

Low total serum iron measurements are associated with ? conditions?

High levels ?

A

Deficiency, acute/chronic inflammation, pre-menstrual

Overload, pregnancy, ingestion

126
Q

Where is transferrin synthesized and how many irons does it carry?

A

Liver

2 Fe3 molecules

127
Q

What is measured as a marker of iron status?

A

Transferrin

128
Q

What is a routine blood test used to determine iron status?

A

Total Iron Binding Capacity
High= low stores, high estrogen
Low= high storage, malnutrition, liver dz

129
Q

What is the best serum marker of increased body iron?

What other purpose does is have?

A

Transferring saturation

Screens for iron overload

130
Q

Define Ferritin

A

Protein-iron complex found in all tissues and particularly in Liver, Spleen, Skeletal muscle and Marrow

131
Q

What is the single most useful test for assessing total body iron stores?

A

Ferritin
Low= deficient (high specificity)
High= overload

132
Q

What type of lab result would come back in a PT w/ anemia of chronic disease/inflammation?

A

Low serum iron
Low TIBC
High ferritin

133
Q

What type of conditions result would cause a PT to have anemia of chronic disease/inflammation?

A

Infections- AIDS, TB, malaria, chronic abscess

Inflammation- RA, Lupus, IBS

Malignancy- CA, MM, lymphoma

134
Q

What causes Normochromic Normocytic anemia

A 
Acute blood loss
Inc plasma volume
Aplastic anemia
Neoplasm
Malignancy
135
Q

What causes megaloblastic macrocytic anemia?

A

Dec B12 and Folate- pernicious anemia due to inability to absorb B12 from dec intrinsic factor
MCV greater than 110

136
Q

What effect does lack of B12 have on the body’s processes?

A

Disrupted DNA syntheises and ineffective erythropoiesis

137
Q

In the anemia flow chart, low levels of MCV and MCHC mean ?

A

Issues: Serum Iron, TIBC, Ferritin

Low iron= deficiency, chronic dz anemia

Normal= do electrophoresis for thalassemias

High= examine bone marrow for sideroblastic anemia

138
Q

In the anemia flow chart, normal levels of MCV and MCHC mean ?

A

Acute blood loss Hx
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Anemia of chronic dz/infection

139
Q

In the anemia flow chart, high levels of MCV means ?

A

Check B12 and Folate levels
Low B12= Pernicious anemia, sever malnutrition, GI problem
Low folate= malnutrition, GI problem, liver dz
Normal or High of either= myeloproliferative dz, liver dz, CDA

140
Q

Define Hemolytic Anemia

A

Shortened red cell survival

141
Q

What are the intracorpuscular and extracorpuscular defects of hemolytic anemias?

A

Intra- Hereditary

Extra- immune, infection, splenic sequestration

142
Q

People with defected red cell membranes typically present with what S/Sxs?

A

Anemia
Jaundice
Splenomegaly

143
Q

Define Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

Mutations on gene that causes half of all hereditary spherocytosis

144
Q

What type of lab results will be seen in PTs w/ defected red cell membrane hemolytic anemia?

A 
Mild anemia
Normal HCV and MCH
MCHC elevated
Decreased haptoglobin
Inc osmotic fragility
145
Q

What would be the lab findings in a blood sample of a TP with Hereditary Elliptocytosis

A 
Mild compensated anemia
Slight reticulocytosis
Normal MCV and MCHC
Decreased haptoglobin
Inc osmotic fragility
146
Q

What would the lab findings be on a PT blood sample with Hereditary Stomatocytosis

A 
Mild anemia
Inc MCV
Dec MHCH
Dec haptoglobin
Inc osmotic fragility
147
Q

What is the issue with G6PD deficiency

A

G6PD protect Hgb from being oxidized

Heinz bodies are present in RBCs due to the oxidation of hgb

148
Q

What types of drugs are oxidizing drugs and will adversely effect G6PD PTs?

A

Anti-malarials
Sulfonamides
Nitrofurantoin

149
Q

What races are more prone to G6PD deficiencies?

A

Greek, Italian, Jewish, Blacks

150
Q

Define Hemoglobinopathies

A

Qualitative or quantitative abnormalities in Hgb synthesis

151
Q

What are Hgb F, A and A2 made up of?

A 
F= two A and two G
A= two A and two B
A2= two A and two D
152
Q

What characterizes Sickle Cell Disease?

What are the two types?

A

Production of HbS- a Beta chain abnormality substiution of Valine for Glutamic acide in 6th position of NH2 terminal end of B chain
Homozygous= HbSS, SCDz
Heterozygous= HbSB SC trait

153
Q

Define a Drepanocyte

A

Crescent shaped RBCs in SCDz from liquid crystals from PT becoming dehydrated, infected of low O2

154
Q

Define Thalassemia

A

Hgb defects due to autosomal co-dominant mutation/deletion in A or B chains leading to reduced synthesis of A or B chains

155
Q

Table on

Table on

A

Slide 63

Slide 43

156
Q

How many red, white and platelet cells are made each day?

One pluripotent stem cell can produce _ mature erythrocytes

A

200 billion red, 10 billion white, 400 billion platelet

16

157
Q

Increase of neutrophils is consistent w/ ?

Increase of bands in particular is suggestive of ?

A

Bacterial infections

158
Q

What is the response to hemorrhage?

A

Hemostasis- process that causes bleeding to stop and first stage of wound healing

159
Q

What is the sequence of responses that stops bleeding?

A

Vascular spasm
Primary hemostasis- plug formation
Secondary hemostasis- clotting

160
Q

What are the two stages of hemostasis?

A

Primary- response to vascular injury and produces plug

Secondary- enzymatic activation of coagulation proteins to produce fibrin

161
Q

What is produced and secreted from the endothelial lining of vessels?

A

vWF, fraction of Factor 8

Secretes prostaglandins, plasminogens activators

162
Q

What are the 3 stages of plug formation?

A

Adhesion
Activation
Aggregation

163
Q

How does aspirin effect platelet function?

A

Inhibits cyclo-oxygenase enzyme preventing platelets from extending pseudopods

164
Q

What is the general rule about abnormalities in primary hemostasis?

A

Result in hemorrhage from mucosal surfaces and prolonged bleeding times after venipunctures

165
Q

How is bleeding time calculated?

A

PFA100 w/ cartridges that have collagen/epi or collagen/ADP

166
Q

How is aspirin induced platelet dyfunction deduced?

A

Col/Epi closure time is prolonged but Col/ADP results are normal

167
Q

What does it mean if both Col/Epi and Col/ADP are prolonged?

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Significant platelet function defect

168
Q

What does Bleeding Time measure?

A

Time required for cessation of bleeding after a capillary puncture
Focuses on number of platelets present and ability to form a plug

169
Q

Bleeding time tests are rarely ordered but show a greatest risk for bleeding problems when time is greater than ?

A

15min

170
Q

Stopped on

A

69

IPAP (212 decks)

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