Physical Exams 2: Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two motor pathways and what do they control?

A

Corticospinal (pyramidal)- cerebral cortex connecting to spinal motor neurons to control torso and limbs

Corticobulbar- upper motor neurons of CNs to control muscles of face, head and neck and terminate in the motor neurons in the brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does the L side of the brain control the R side of the body?

What happens of these motor neurons are damaged?

A

Corticospinal tracts cross the spinal cord in the medulla

Above- motor impairment on contralateral side
Below- motor impairment on ipsilateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Damage to an Upper Motor neuron results in ?

Damage to a Lower Motor neuron results in ?

A

UMN- increased muscle tone and exaggerated DTRs

LMN- absent muscle tone and DTRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What neuron tract carries the impulse that inhibits muscle tone?

What is the sequence of flow for sensory pathways?

A

Corticospinal tract

Impulses from skin/muscle/tendons/viscera
Peripheral nerves/dorsal roots
Spinal cord (pain, temp, position, touch)
Spinothalamic tract/Posterior Column
Sensory cortex of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Once sensations like pain, temp and crude touch synapse w/ secondary neurons, how to they get to the thalamus?

How are sensations like postition, vibration and fine touch perceived?

A

Cross and ascend in Spinothalamic tract

Directly into posterior columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of sensation are and are not sensed in the thalamus?

How is full perception of stimuli achieved?

A

Perceives pain, cold, pleasant
No fine distinctions are made

Third group of neurons send impulses to sensory cortex and higher discrimination is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A lesion in the sensory cortex may impair ? but leaves ? intact

What type of PT presentation suggests Dz of posterior columns?

A

Impaired perception of pain, touch and position; leaves finer discrimination intact (person can’t tell size/shape/texture of object in hand)

Loss of position and vibration senses but other senses are preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What Sxs mean transection of spinal cord

What are the 4 guiding questions of a neuro exam?

A

Loss of all sensation, paralysis and hyperactive DTRs

Does PT have Dz
Is there localization/symmetry
What is the pathophysiology of the finding
Wat is the DDx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

General assessment of a PTs mental status starts where?

How is orientation assessed?

How to assess cognitive function?

How intellectual function assessed?

A

First meeting- LOC, Appearance, Affect

ANO x 3

Long term- presidents
Short term- 3 words

Count back by 7s, spell 5 letter word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chart on Slide 28

A

Pg 147-171

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do CNs 3-12 arise from?

Where do CNs 1 and 2 originate?

A

Diencephalon and brain stem

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What CNs control pupil constriction, opening eye lid and most EOMs?

Which ones control EOM?

A

2 and 3

3, 4, 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What CNs control swallowing, raising of palate and gag reflex

Which ones contribute to voice and speech?

A

9 and 10

5 7 9 10 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

While assessing EOMs, a loss of conjugate movements in any direction will cause ?

How are nystagmus’ names?

A

Diplopia

Direction of quick component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define 3rd nerve palsy?

Define Anisocoria

A

Ptosis- drooping of upper eye lid

Difference of >0.4mm of pupil diameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Table 7-10,

A

Pg 277

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A lesion on ? CN causes an absent blinking reflex with the corneal reflex test?

What is the different results of a peripheral injury, like Bell’s Palsy, and a central lesion, like a stroke, on the muscles of the face?

A

Sensory 5 or Motor 7

Palsy- affects upper and lower face
Stroke- only lower face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerves are the motor area and pull the palate up during “aahh”?

How are both motor and sensory areas of these nerves tested?

A lesion here will cause what result to be seen?

A

9 and 10

Gag reflex

Paralysis causes pulling the uvula to unaffected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A lesion on ? CN will cause hoarseness or difficulty swallowing during the gag reflex?

What are the functions of CN11?

A

Unilateral lesion on 10, vagus
Unilateral absence of reflex can mean lesion on 9 or 10

Carry efferent motor fibers to innervate SCM (turn head) and Trap muscles (raise shoulders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trapezius muscle weakness with atrophy and fasciculations indicates ?

What type of result will be seen in the shoulder as a result of the muscle’s weakness?

A

Peripheral nerve d/o

Drooped shoulder, scapula is displaced down and laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A unilateral cortical lesion of CN12 causes ? result?

A distal lesion of C12 will cause what tongue result?

A

Protruded tongue deviates away from side of lesion

Deviates to weak side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sensory system carries stimuli such as pain/temp, position/vibration, light touch and discriminative sensation through which pathways?

A

Pain/temp- spinothalamic
Position/vibration- posterior column
Light tough- both paths
Discriminative sensation- cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When testing vibration and sensory sensation, what areas of the body are tested first?

Mapping out dermatomes help with an exam how?

A

Finger and toe

Localize neurological lesions to a specific level of the spine, particularly in spinal cord injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the organization that own dermatome mapping?

What are the land mark dermatome levels?

A

American Spinal Injury Association

C3- front of neck
C6- thumb
C8- ring and little finger
T4- nipples
T10- umbilicus
L1- inguinal
L4- knee
L5- anterior ankle/foot
L4,L5,S1- posterior ankle and foot
S5- perianal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define Analgesia

Define Hypalgesia

Define Hyperalgesia

A

Absence of pain sensation

Decreases sensitivity to pain

Increased sensitivity to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which dermatomes need to be checked bilaterally?

A
All 3 branches of trigeminal
C5-T2
T4
T10
T12
L2-S1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What part of a sensory test is often omitted if pain sensation is normal?

What size of tuning fork is used to test PTs vibration sense?

A

Temp

128Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What tests are included in testing discriminatroy sensations?

A

Stereognosis- name objects held in hand
Graphesthesia- numbers drawn on hand
2 point discrimination- normal <5mm on finger pads
Point localization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define Asterognosis

When is graphesthesis testing used?

A

Inability to recognize objects held in hand

If stereognosis is too painful or difficult for PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do we grade motor strength

A

0: no contraction detected
1: barely detectable flicker
2: movement w/ gravity eliminated
3: movement against gravity only
4: movement w/ some resistance
5: movement against full resistance w/out fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many muscle groups represent the motor innervation by the cervical/lumbar spinal cord

What muscles are not tested

A

10 groups

Abdominal muscles, T10-11
Hamstrings- innervated by levels of other muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What nerves control areas of the upper extremity?

A
C5- elbow flexor (bicep)
C6- radial; wrist extensor
C7- elbow extensor (tricep)
C8- median; grip and thumb opposition
T1- ulnar; pinky abduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What nerves control areas of the lower extremity?

A
L2- psoas hip flexion
L3- quad, knee extension
L4- tibialis anterior, ankle dorsiflexion, inversion
L5- hallucis longus, great toe extension
S1- gastrocnemius, plantar flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What neurons are innervated during DTR tests?

In order for a DTR to fire, what all needs to be intact?

A

Afferent and Efferent

Sensory, spinal cord synapse, motor fibers, neuromuscular junction, muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the path of a signal to elicit a DTR response?

How are reflexes graded?

A

Tapping - sensory - peripheral nerve - spinal cord - anterior horn - crosses neuromuscular junction - contraction/completion

4- very brisk w/ clonus
3- brisker than average, not specifically indicative of Dz
2- normal
1- low normal
0- absent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

An abnormal reflex at tricep, bicep, brachioradialis, patellar or achilles means a lesion where?

A
Bicep- C5
Brachioradialis- C6
Tricep- C7
Patellar- L4
Achilles- S1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A cutaneous reflex on upper/lower abdomen, plantar or anal region signify what areas of the NS?

A

Upper abdomen- T8-10
Lower abdomen- T10-12
Plantar- L5-S1
Anal- S2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hyperactive reflexes can indicate lesions where?

How do you prove/disprove an issue?

A

Descending corticospinal tract

Weakness, Spasticity, Pos Babinski

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hypo active/absent reflexes imply ? issue

How do you prove/disprove these issues?

A

Dz in spinal nerve roots, spinal nerves, plexus or peripheral nerves

Lower motor neuron findings of weakness, atrophy or fasciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of reinforcement can accent/increase a PTs diminished/difficult reflexes

A

Isometric contraction
Diminished arm reflexes- clench teeth, squeeze knees together
Diminished leg reflexes- lock fingers and pull against each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define the Babinski reflex

A

Plantar reflex- normal is toe flexion
Abnormal=positive, dorsiflexion and toe fanning from CNS lesion in corticospinal area or unconscious from drug/alcohol intoxication or postictal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a reflex seems hyperactive, what is the follow on test?

What part of the brain helps w/ keeping the body upright in space?

A

Test for ankle clonus
Sustained clonus= CNS dz

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Coordination of muscle movement requires what four areas of the NS to function together?

What function is usually not tested in a routine neuro exam?

A

Motor- strength
Cerebellar- rhythm/posture
Vestibular- balance/coordination
Sensory- position

Vestibular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you assess PTs coordination during a cerebellar exam?

A

Rapid alternating movements
Point to point movements
Gait
Standing- Romberg, Pronator drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define Dysdiadochokinesis

Define Dysmetria

A

Cerebellar issues- one rapid movement can’t be followed by follow on rapid movement

Finger over shoots target when PT point nose to out stretched finger target and worsened by eyes closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What PE finding suggests a PT has a loss of position sense?

What do abnormal Heel-to-Shin tests mean?

A

Nose to finger test is over shot by PT

Cerebellar Dz if heel over shoots knee and oscilates side to side down shin
Lost position sense of heel lifted too high and PT tries to look

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define Ataxic

What type of gait test can reveal hidden ataxia?

A

Uncoordinated gait and can be due to cerebellar Dz, loss of position sense or intoxication

Tandem walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What PE test mainly tests a PTs position sense?

What abnormal findings can be seen and what do the represent?

A

Romberg

Ataxia- from dorsal column dz and loos of position sense
Cerebellar ataxia- PT has difficulty standing w/ feet together regardless if eyes are open or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What PE test is both sensitive and specific for a corticospinal tract lesion?

Other than drifting, what other finding can be indicative of an issue?

A

Pronator drift, signifies lesion in contralateral hemisphere

Downward drift of arm w/ flexion of fingers and elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define Brudzinski sign

Define Kernig Sign

A

Elevated head bends/elevates knees

Extends knee from raised leg position, positive is pain in neck, back or head upon knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Define Articular Structures

Define Extra-Articular Structures

A

Capsule, Articular Cartilage, Synovium/Fluid, lIgaments, Juxta-Bone

Periarticular Ligaments, Tendons, Bursae, Muscle, Fascia, Bone, Nerve and Overlying sking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 types of joints?

A

Synovial- freely moveable, bones don’t touch and are covered by articular cartilage and separated by synovial cavity which is lined by membrane and secretes fluid, membrane surrounded by joint capsule

Cartilage- slightly moveable, discs separate surfaces- ribs-sternum, epiphyseal plates of long bones

Fibrous- immoveable, bones connected by fibrous CT, intervening layers of tissue holds bones together- sutures, distal talofibular joingt, teeth/socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the 5 types of synovial joints?

What is the most active joint in the body?

A

B/Socket, Condylar, Saddle, Hinge, Pivot

TMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of joints are in between the tib/fib and along the plates of the cranium?

What type are between the spinal vertebrae and the manubrium-rib?

A

Syndesmosis, Suture

Symphisis, Synchondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is assessed during the General Information part of a MSK exam?

What is assessed during the inspection?

What is assessed in the surrounding areas?

A

Appearance, Proportions, Ease of movement

Malalignment, deformity, fasciculation or tremors

Skin changes and atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Acute involvement of only one joint suggests ? issue

What issue affects several joints symmetrically

A

Trauma, Septic arthritis, Gout

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do you grade muscle strength?

A
0- no contraction detected
1- barely detectable/flicker
2- movement w/ no gravity
3- movement against gravity only
4- movement w/ some resistance
5- movement against full resistance and no fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What muscle opens the jaw?

What muscles close it?

A

External pterygoids

Masseter, Temporalis and Internal pterygoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define TMJ Syndrome

What finding wold be seen 2-3wks post-rotator cuff tear?

A

Unilateral chronic pain w/ chewing/clenching often associated w/ stress
Can have swelling/dec ROM and Trismus

Atrophy of Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lateral to medial, what are the bony land marks of the shoulder?

Which landmark do the rotator cuff muscles insert?

A

Great tubercle, AC joint, Coracoid process

Great tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What movements are Flex, Extend, Abd, Add, Internal and External rotation movements for the shoulder?

A

Flex= raise arm up and over head (0-180)
Extend= raise arms behind (0-60
)
Abduct- raise arms out and overhead
Add= cross arms across body
Internal- reach behind, touch scapula
External- brush hair/arm to shoulder level, bend elbow and rotate forearm to ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
What does each special test assess in the shoulder?
Cross over
Apley scratch
Neers/Hawkins
Suprspinatus strength (empty can)
Infraspinatus strength
Drop arm 
Forearm supination
A
ACJ
Overall rotation
Cuff tendonitis/tear
Cuff tendonitis/tear
Cuff of biceps tendonitis
Cuff tear
Bicep tendonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What special test is done to assess the subscapularis Muscles?

Where is the ulnar nerve in relation to the olecranon?

A

Lift off test

Posterior between olecranon process and medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
What do each of the following movements use for muscles?
Flexion
Extension
Supination
Pronation
A

Flex- bicep, brachialis, brachioradialis
Extend- tricep
Supinate- bicep, supinator
Pronate- pronator teres/quadratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Thenar or hyperthenar atrophy are signs of ? issue

What structures make up the snuff box?

A

Thenar- median nerve compression
Hypothenar- ulnar nerve compression

Distal to radial styloid
Extensor Pollicis Brevis and Abductor Pollicus Longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the movements of the thumb?

A
Flex- move across palm to 5MCP joint
Extend- across palm and away from fingers
Abduct- anterior and away from palm
Adduct- toward palm
Opposition- touch thumb to each finger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What parts of the hand are innervated by nerves from the carpal tunnel.

What tests can be done to assess for carpal tunnel?

A

Median Nerve-> pulp of index finger
Ulnar nerve-> pulp of pinky finger
Radial nerve-> dorsal web space of thumb and finger

Tinel Sign- tap median nerve
Phalen Sign- hold wrist flexed x 60sec and assess for numb/tingling; Pos= median nerve affected
Finklesteins- fist the thumb w/ wrist ulnar deviation; Pain= de Quervian Tenosynovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does C5 do for Motor, Reflex and Sensation

A

M: deltoid and bicep
R: bicep
S- outter upper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does C6 do for Motor, Reflex and Sensation

A

M: bicep curl, wrist extendors- carpi rad longus and brevis
R: forearm
S: outter lower arm and thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does C7 do for Motor, Reflex and Sensation

A

M: tricep extension, wrist flexion, finger extension
R: back of elbow
S: middle finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does C8 do for Motor, Reflex and Sensation

A

M: interossei muscles, finger flexors
R: NONE
S: medial forearm and pinky/ring finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does T1 do for Motor, Reflex and Sensation

A

M: interossei muscles
R: none
S: medial elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When assessing gait, define Stance Phase

When do most gait problems occur?

Define the Swing Phase

A

Foot on ground and bears weight

Weight bearing/stance phase

Foot moving forward and bears no weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How far wide should the gait base be ?

What is the only part of the gait that does NOT have knees flexed?

A

2-4”

Heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Top of the iliac crest is at what lumbar level?

Pubic symphsis should be at the same level of ? structure

A

L4

Greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How is the inguinal ligament best palpated during exam?

What is the sequence of structures that bisect w/ the inguinal ligament

A

Ipsilateral heel on opposite knee

NAVEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 3 bursae in the hip and how are the palpated?

A

Psoas- below inguinal ligament on deeper plane
Trochanteric- overlying greater trochanter
Ischiogluteal- overlying the ischial tuberosity and NOT palpable unless inflamed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What muscles are involved for movements of Flex, Extend, Abd, Add, Internal and External rotation movements for the hip?

A
Flex- ilipsoas
Extend- gluteaus max
Abduct- max and minimus
Adduct- adductors, pectineus, gracilis
External- obterator, quad femoris, gemuli
Internal- gluteus medius and minimus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Define Genu Varum

Define Genu Valgrum

A

Bow leg

Knock knee

80
Q

What does swelling over patella indicate?

What does swelling over infrapatellar bursitis mean?

What does swelling over medial tubercle suggest?

A

Prepatellar bursitis

Infrapatellar bursitis

Anserine bursitis

81
Q

What movement makes palpation of the medial meniscus easier to palpate?

How far above the knee is the suprapatellar pouch?

A

Tibia slightly internally rotated

10cm

82
Q

What is a Baker’s Cyst

What’s the difference signs for a minor and major effusion in the knee?

A

Popliteal cyst

Bulge sign= minor
Ballottment- major

83
Q

What muscles are responsible for knee flexion, extension, rotation?

A

Flex- hamstring group
Extend- quads
Internal rotate- sartorius, gracilis, semitendinous, semimembranous
External rotation- bicep femoris

84
Q

What special tests can be done for a knee exam?

A

McMurray- click/pop along medial joint w/ valgus stress, external rotation and leg extension= posterial medial meniscus tear

Valgus test- pain/gap in medial joint= MCL injury

Varus test- pain/gap in lateral joint= LCL injury

A/P Drawer- unequal= ACL/PCL injury

Lachman- forward excursion of tibia, most sensitive for ACL

85
Q

What muscles are used in ankle movement

A

Plantar flexion- gastrocoleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior and soleus
Dorsiflexion- tibialis anterior, extensor digitus longus, extesnor hallicus longus
Inversion- tibialis posterior and anterior
Everson- peroneus longus and brevus

86
Q

What movements does the tibiotalar joint do

What movements does the subtalar joint do

A

dorsiflexion/plantar flexion

inversion/eversion of foot

87
Q

What movements does the transverse tarsal joint do?

What movements does the MTP joints do?

A

Inversion/eversion of forefoot

Toe flexion

88
Q

What is the Motor, Reflex and Sensation offered by L4

A

M: tibialis anterior (foot inversion)
R: patellar tendon
S: sensation to medial arch of foot

89
Q

What is the Motor, reflex and Sensation offered by L5

A

M: extensor digitorum longus
R: NONE
S: middle 3 toes

90
Q

What is the Motor, Reflex and Sensation offered by S1

A

M: peroneus longus and brevus
R: achilles
S: lateral arch of foot

91
Q

What 4 landmarks should be visible when examining the spine?

A

C7 and T1
Paravertebral muscles
Iliac crest
PSIS

92
Q

Facet joints of the neck are protected by ? muscle

Sciatic nerve is located between what 2 structures

A

Trapezius

Greater trochanter and Ischial tuberosity

93
Q

When assessing Pts spine, offer stabilization for movements except for ?

Define Patrick’s Test

A

Flexion

Flexion Abduction External Roation- tests for SI joint problems like sacroiliitis

94
Q

What are the 3 shafts of the penis?

Size range for testes?

A

Two corpus cavernosum
Corpus spongiosum w/ urethra forms bulb

3.5-5.5 w/ L lower than R

95
Q

Testes produce what two things?

What covers each of the testes except for ? location

A

Testosterone, sperm

Tunic vaginalis

96
Q

Path of sperm from testes to urethra

Spermatic cord contains what structures?

A

Through external inguinal ring, over ureter to prostate, merges w/ seminal vesicle

Vessels, nerves, Vas Deferens, muscles

97
Q

Lymphatic from penile and scrotal surfaces drain where?

Where do lymphatics from the testes drain to?

A

Inguinal nodes

Abdomen

98
Q

What are landmarks for hernias?

External ring that allows vas deferens passage is palpable on what location?
Where is the non-palpable internal ring?

A

ASIS, pubic tubercle and inguinal ligament in between

Above and lateral to pubic tubercle
1cm above midpoint of inguinal ligament

99
Q

What is a second route for potential hernias?

How do you estimate the location?

A

Femoral canal below inguinal ligament

Index finger on R femoral artery, next medial finger on femoral vein, third finger on canal/empty space

100
Q

What separates the colon from the anus?

How many lobes of prostate surround urethra and can be palpated? What structures are not palpable here?

A

Pectinate/denate line, visible w/ proctoscope only

3, two lateral are palpable against anterior rectal wall and be 2.5cm long
Median lobe and seminal vesicle are NOT palpable

101
Q

What issues are examined for in males w/ PTs standing?

What 3 issues can cause irritative voiding Sxs

A

Hernias
Varicoceles- variscosities of pampiniform plexus around spermatic cord and gravity dependent and nearly always L sided

UTI, STI, BPH

102
Q

What 3 issues can cause hematuria

Define Phimosis

A

Nephrolithiasis, Cancer, Excessive exercise

Tight prepuce that can’t retract over glans

103
Q

Define Paraphimosis

Define Smegma

A

Tight prepuce that can’t be returned back to original position

Cheese/white material that acumulates under skin

104
Q

Define Balanitis

Define Balanoposthitis

A

Inflammation of glans

Inflammation of glans and prepuce

105
Q

Define Hypospadias

Define Epispadias

A

Congenital ventral displacement of meatus

Dorsal displacement of meatus, can be associated w/ incontinence

106
Q

What does yellow/clear discharge from penis mean?

What does induration along ventral surface of the penis mean?

A

Non/Gonococcal urethritis

Urethral stricture or carcinoma

107
Q

Define Pearly Penile Papules

Define Peyronies Dz

A

Skin colored bumps that form row around glans
Considered normal variant, not contagious and ASx
Dec w/ age but can remain for life

Palpable, non-tender plaque along dorsum of penis causing crooked/painful erections in middle age/older men

108
Q

Define Penis CA

Define Tinea Cruris

A

Non-atender indurated nodule/ulcer limited to uncircumcised men

Jock itch, unilateral lesions starting in crural folds
Define as half-moon shaped plaque w/ scaling
Take sample for KOH examination

109
Q

Define Erythrasma

How do different skin infections appear under Wood’s Lamp

A

Infection of major skin folds caused by bacteria Corynebacterium Minutissiumum but can be confused for Tinea Cruis

C. Mint glows coral red under Wood’s Lamp but negative hyphae on KOH
Tinea- none

110
Q

Poorly developed scrotum contours can be indicative of ? issue

What 3 issues can cause scrotal swelling?

A

Cryptorchidism- atrophied L testis outside of scrotum in inguinal canal and no palpable epididymis. Even w/ Tx, huge increase for CA.

Indirect hernia- intestines come through external ring and won’t allow examiner’s finger above it
Hydrocele
Edema

111
Q

Define Epidermoid Cyst

What parts of the scrotum can be evaluated w/ tranillumination?

A

Benign dome shaped white/yellow papules from occluded follicles that fill w/ keratin debris

Hydrocele- transilluminates
Blood, tissue, testis, tumors and most hernias DONT

112
Q

Define Hydrocele

How do male genital warts appear on exam?

A

Nontender fluid filled mass inside of tunica vaginalis
Examiner can get finger above the mass (scrotal hernias won’t allow finger above it)

Condylomata Acuminata
ASx/ithcy/painful papules/plaques of various shapes but can be cauliflower-like usually caused by HPV 6 or 11

113
Q

How do Genital Herpes appear?

How does Primary Syphilis appear

A

Scattered groups of vesicles 1-3mm
90% are HSV-2 w/ a 2-7 day incubation period; need to DDx from Zoster and Albicans

Red papule, becomes chancre 2cm in diameter w/ clean/red/smooth borders; heals in 3-8wks
Treponema Pallidum, spirochete, after 9-90 day incubation
PT may have inguinal lymphadenopathy w/in 7 days

114
Q

Define Chancroid

A

Red papule/pustule then turns into deep painful ulcer w/ ragged margins from Haemophilus ducreyi, anaerobic bacillus, after 3-7 day incubation and half w/ lymphadenopathy

115
Q

How does Gonococcal Urethritis present

How does Non-Gonococcal Urethritis present

A

Inflammation of urethra from G w/ yellow discharge and irritative voiding Sxs

Inflammation of urethra from Chlamydia w/ clear discharge and irritative voiding Sxs

116
Q

Define Acute Orchitits

How do tumors of the testis appear?

A

Unilaterally inflamed painful testes from mumps/viral infection

Painless nodule

117
Q

Define Spermatocele

Define Epididymitis

A

Painless, moveable cystic mass above testis that transilluminates and contains sperm

Inflammed epididymis causing tender pain and swelling that can pass to scrotum, relieved w/ lifting scrotum

118
Q

Define Varicocele

Define Prehn’s Sign

A

Varicose veins of spermatic cord usually on L side and can be associated w/ infertility
R sided= concern for vena cava obstruction by tumor

Lack of relief of pain when scrotum is elevated, used to support Dx of torsion along w/ absent Cremaster reflex

119
Q

What are the types of hernias?

A

Indirect- most common; exits external inguinal ring and is palpable w/ fingers but can’t get finger above it
Direct
Femoral

120
Q

Define Pilonidal Cyst and Sinus

How does rectal CA feel upon exam compared to polyps?

A

Small tuft of hair/halo of erythema marks opening of sinus
Generally ASx but abscess causes swelling, pain

Sessile mass w/ edges, stony consistency and irregular contours
Polyps= pedunculated and are round, smooth and semi-mobile

121
Q

How do you grade the prostate size

A
1= 1-2cm
2= 2-3cm
3= 3-4cm
4= more than 4cm
122
Q

How does BPH present upon exam?

How does bacterial prostatitis present?

A

Symmetrically enlarged, smooth and firm/rubbery w/ possible obliteration of median sulcus

Fever, UTI Sxs, low back pain
Prostate can be swollen/boggy/warm
Caused by E Coli, Enterococcus, and Proteus
Men <35- consider N Gonorrhea and Chlamydia

123
Q

How does chronic bacterial prostatitis present

What is the most frequent non-skin CA Dx in the US?

A

ASx, Sxs of dysuria, mild pelvic pain w/ normal feeling gland w/out tenderness/swelling
Cultures show E Coli

Prostate CA, also the second leading cause of CA death in men

124
Q

What are the Risk Factors for prostate CA

A

Inc w/ each decade after 50
Higher in AfAm
Fam Hx
Saturated fats/animal source fats

125
Q

What are the components/sequence of a well woman exam?

Define Gravida and Parity

A

Breast, External/Internal pelvic, Bimanual, Rectal (Sxs, +50) Microscopy/lab

of pregnancies, # of deliveries

126
Q

Preterm delivery is what weeks?

Abortions occur before ? week

A

20-36

20

127
Q
Define Polymenorrhea
Define Oligo
Define Menor
Define Metro
Define Postcoital
A
<21 days between menses
Infrequent
Excessive flow
Intermenstrual bleeding
Suggestscervical polyps/CA; in older PTs means atrophic vaginitis
128
Q

What preparation needs to be done by female PTs prior to a well woman exam?

Vaginal opening is AKA?

A

No douche/intercourse 24hrs prior
Empty bladder

Introitus

129
Q

Define Condyloma Latum

How do genital warts appear in female PTs?

A

Secondary Syphilis on Female PT

Shallow ulcer w/ red bases

130
Q

Define Cystocele
Define Cystourethrocele
Define Retrocele

A

Bladder hernia into vagina
Herniation of bladder neck and urethra into vagina
Prolapsed wall between rectum and vagina

131
Q

What causes Bacterial Vaginosis

What are the S/Sxs of an infection

A

Anaerobic bacteria

Gray/white malodorous coating of vaginal wall causing fishy/musty smell

132
Q

How many degrees is the spatula rotated and what is collected?

How many degrees is the cytobrush rotated and what is collected?

A

360 to collect cells from external os

180 to collect endocervical cells

Both replaced by CytoBroom

133
Q

How does BME of the uterus change w/ pregnancy?

A

12wks- palpable at pubis symphysis
16wks- midway between pubis and umbilicus
20wks- at umbilicus
More than 20wks- 1cm for every week of gestation

134
Q

When is a rectovaginal exam required?

When are DREs for FOT done?

A

Uterus is not palpable due to retroflexion

All PTs >50y/o or has any rectal complaints

135
Q

What changes are seen in female PTs during menopause?

A
Gray/sparse pubic hair
Small/flat/dry labia
Gaping/constricted introitus
Narrow/atrophic vagina
Smaller uterus
Non-palpable uterus
Weaker rectal tone
136
Q

What is the target site of sampling during a PAP smear?

__% of HPV infections are ASx and resolve within ?yrs

A

Transformation zone

90, 2yrs

137
Q

What is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer?

What HPV strains cause genital warts?

A

Persistent infection w/ high-risk HPV sub-types (HPV 16 and 18)

6 and 11

138
Q

Breasts extend from __ to __

Where does it extend superficially

A

2nd rib to 6th rib, sternum to mid-axillary line

Pec major, inferior margin at serratus anterior

139
Q

Define Inflammatory Ridge

What are the 3 types of breast tissue?

A

Bilateral thickening of inferior border

Glandular, fibrous and fat

140
Q

How many lobes per breast?

What do these lobes drain into?

A

15-20

Lactiferous ducts that drain into sinuses at nipple

141
Q

What supplies the breast with blood?

What 3 things are contained w/in the areola?

A

Internal Mammary and Lateral thoracic artery

Sebaceous, smooth muscle and occasional hair

142
Q

Where does breast lymph drain to?

Where does the upper arm and retro-areolar areas drain to?

A

Anterior and central nodes

Arm- lateral nodes
Retro-aerolar- central

143
Q

Where does deep breast lymphatic drainage go to?

How much time spent on breast exams yields the highest sensitivity?

A

Internal mammary nodes and supraclavicular nodes

5-10 for both

144
Q

How do breasts change in time of menses?

How does this correlate to the best time for a breast exam?

A

Swell and more nodular from increased estrogen

5-7 days after onset

145
Q

When laying supine for breast exam, examiner should spend ?min/breast

What type of findings suggest CA?

A

3

Hard, Irregular, Poorly circumsized, fixed to skin/tissue

146
Q

What types of drugs can cause non-pregnant lactation

What can cause unilateral bloody discharge from 1-2 ducts?

A

Dopamine agonists

Intraductal pappiloma
Ductal carcinoma in situ
Paget’s Dz of the breast

147
Q

What is needed for PTs presenting with Serous, Green, Black, non-bloody multiductal discharges?

What type of post-surgical finding can suggest recurrence?

A

Reassurance

Masses, Nodularity, Changes in color

148
Q

Define Fibroadenoma

Define Cysts

A

Benign non-tender tumor usually at 15-25y/o
Round, disc-like and mobile

Benign tender findings between 15-25y/o that mimic fibroadenomas

149
Q

Define Fibrocystic changes

What causes edema of breast skin, what is it AKA and where is it seen

A

Cobble stone texture w/ periodic/intermittent breast pain w/ Sxs peaking before menses

Lymphatic blockage, Peau d’Orange
Lower portion of breast/areola

150
Q

When palpating male areola and breast tissue, if a nodule if found greater than ? size needs to be distinguished between what two issues?

A

> 2cm
Pseudogynecomastia- soft fatty enlargement of obesity
Gynecomastia- benign firm disc of glandular enlargement that may be tender

151
Q

What is the most common important risk factor for breast cancer?

What are the modifiable risk factors?

A

Age

Breastfeeding for less than 1yr
Postmenopausse obesity
HRT
Cigarettes/ETOH
Sedentary
Contraception
152
Q

What are the non-modifiable risk factors for breast cancer?

What are the 3 models used for assessing breast cancer risks

A

FamHx, Inheritence, Hx, Endogenous hormones

BRCAPRO- used for high risk women to assess BRCA 1/2
Gail- PTs over 50 w/ no FamHx or one affected 1* relative and have annual mammograms

Claus Model- assesses high risk females and incorporated FamHx for both female and 1/2 relative w/ age of onset

153
Q

What are the most common screening modalities for breast CA?

A

Mammogram and CBE

154
Q

Define the Corticospinal/pyramidal tract

A

Mediate voluntary movement and integrate skill/movements

Carry inhibitory signals

155
Q

Define the Basal Ganglia System

A

Motor pathways between the cerebral cortex, ganglia, brain stem and spinal cord to help maintain tone, movement and gross automatic movements like walking

156
Q

Define the Cerebellar System

A

Receives sensory and motor input and coordinates motor activity, equilibrium and controls posture.

157
Q

A cortical stroke lesion on the Cerebral Cortex will cause what motor, sensory, and DTR effects?

A

Chronic contralateral weakness/spasticity
Flexion stronger than extension
Hip is externally rotated

Contralateral sensory loos in face. limbs and trunk on same side as motor deficits

Increased DTRs

158
Q

A brain stem stroke of acoustic neuroma on the brain stem will cause what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Contralateral weakness and spasticity, diplopia and dysarthria

No typical sensory findings

Inc DTRs

159
Q

Trauma to or a tumor on the spinal cord will cause what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Bilatera weakness and spaticity

Dermatomal sensory deficit on the trunk at level of lesion

Inc DTRs

160
Q

Parkinsonism at the subcortical gray matter/basal ganglia will cause what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Bradykinesia, Rigidity and tremors

Sensation intact

Normal or decreased DTRs

161
Q

Cerebellar stroke or brain tumor will cause what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Hypotonis, ataxia, nystagmus and dysmetria

Sensory intact

Normal or dec DTRs

162
Q

Polio, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis of the anterior horn will cause what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Weak/atrophy in segment/focal pattern or fasciculations

Sensation intact

Dec DTRs

163
Q

A herniated cervical/lumber disc affecting the spinal roots or nerves will effect motor, sensory and DTRs how?

A

Weak and atrophy in root-innervated pattern, sometimes w/ fasciculations

Sensory deficits at dermatomes

Dec DTRs

164
Q

Trauma to a peripheral nerve/mononeuropathy will effect motor, sensory and DTRs how?

A

Weak and atrophy in peripheral nerve distribution; sometimes w/ fasciculations

Sensory loss in nerve pattern,

Dec DTRs

165
Q

Peripheral polyneuropathy from alcohol or diabetes will lead to peripheral nerves/polyneuropathy and have what effect on motor, sensory and DTR functions?

A

Weak and atrophy distally, possible fasciculations

Stocking/glove sensory deficit

Dec DTRs

166
Q

Myasthenia gravis causing neuromuscular junction issues will have what motor, sensory and DTR effects?

A

Fatigue

Intact sensation

Normal DTRs

167
Q

Myscular dystrophy will have what effect on motor, sensory and DTR function?

A

Proximal weakness

Sensation intact

Normal or Dec DTRs

168
Q

Define Anisocoria

A

Defected constriction/dilation of a pupil
Constriction to light/near effort= PNS
Dilation= SNS

169
Q

What does it mean if Anisocoria is greater in light?

What does it mean if it’s greater in darkness?

A

Pupil can’t constrict
Due to trauma, open angle glaucoma, impaired PNS

Pupil can’t dilate
Horner Syndrome

170
Q

Define Adie Pupil

A

Tonic pupil
Large regular unilateral pupil size w/ reduced or absent reaction to light
Caused by denervation of PNS

171
Q

What would be seen in CN3 paralysis?

A

Large/fixed pupil to light and near effort

Ptosis from paralysed LP msucle w/ down and lateral deviation of the eye

172
Q

Define Horner Sydrome

A

Pupil is small w/ brief reflex to light but dilates slowly
Tirad= miosis, ptosis and anhydrosis
If hereditary, affected iris is lighter in color

173
Q

Define Argyll Robertson Pupils

A

Small irregular pupils bilaterally
Constrict w/ near and dilate w/ far vision but NO reaction to light
Seen in neurosyphylis and rarely in diabetes

174
Q

Why doesn’t blindness cause anisocoria?

A

As long as SNS and PNS innervation remain normal, no changes.
Blind eye will constrict w/ consensual reaction but not from direct stimulation

175
Q

When conducting MSK exam, warmth can be indicative of what four issues?

What two jaw structures have a disc between them to act as a cushion?

A

Arthritis, Tendinitis, Bursitis, Osteomyelitis

Madible condyle and temporal bone articulating surface

176
Q

What are the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff?

A

SITS

Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis

177
Q

What are the painful shoulder maneuvers and findings on exam for Rotator Cuff Tendonitis

A

Impingement Syndrome- repetition causes inflammation of supraspinatous tendon w/ max tenderness beneath the tip of the acromion

178
Q

What are the PE findings for rotator cuff tears

A

The most common clinical problem of the shoulder
RC Tears- RC muscles compress humeral head into glenoid fossa
Subscapularis- internal rotation
Supraspinatus- elevation
Infraspinatus/TM- external
Trauma/chronic wear on acromion and coracoacromial ligament
Shrug of shoulder and Drop arm test are Pos on PE

179
Q

What are the PE findings of Calcific Tendinitis

A

Degeneration of supraspinatus tendon from Ca Salts
Usually +30 women
Max tenderness below tip of acromium w/ inflamed subacromial bursa

180
Q

What are the PE findings seen in Bicipital Tendinits

A

Inflammation resembling/co-existing w/ rotator cuff tendinitis
Max tenderness at Bicep Groove
Supinate raised elbow, pain in groove or w/ resisted fwd flexion is Pos for test

181
Q

What are the PE finding Frozen Shoulder exam

A

Progressive restriction of A/PROM especially w/ external rotation and localized tenderness
Associated w/ MI that has decreased shoulder movement

182
Q

What is seen on PE for acromioclavicular arthritis

A

Degenerative changes with most tender on AC joint

Inc pain w/ movement of scapula and arm abduction

183
Q

What will be seen on PE with an anterior disclocation of the humerus

A

Anterior subluxatio/dislocaiton from fall or forced throwing
Pos apprehension sign is seen
Inferior, multi-directional or rarely, posterior dislocations also seen

184
Q

What is seen in Olecranon Bursitis and how is it treated

A

Trauma, gout or RA causes swelling superficial to OProcess, aspirate for Dx and relief

185
Q

How are elbow nodules in RA PTs characterized?

How does arthritis present?

A

Non-tender and firm
Can be attached to underlying periosteum

Inflammation/fluid felt along process/epicondyles causing stiff/pain and dec ROM

186
Q

How does Epicondylitis present?

A

Lateral Epicondylitis- tennis elbow- repetitive extension of wrist or pro/supination of elbow
Pain will be 1cm distal to lateral epicondyl and inc w/ resisted wrist extension

Medial Epicondylitis- Golfer elbow from repetitive wrist flexion from throwing
Max tenderness lateral/distal to medial condyle and inc w/ resisted wrist flexion

187
Q

What hand deformities are seen in chronic RA?

A

Swan neck- hyperextension of PIP and fixed flexion of DIP

Boutonniere- persistent flexion of PIP joint w/ hyperextension of DIP joint

188
Q

When/where are Heberden nodules seen?

How do you tell the difference between Chronic Tophi Gout and RA?

A

Hard/painless nodules on dorsolateral aspects of DIP joints in OA

Tophi involvement is less symmetrical than RA and can ulcerate/leak white urates

189
Q

Define Dupuytren Contracture

Define Trigger finger

A

Thickened band under 4th finger near distal palmar crease

Painless nodule on flexor tendon in palm near MC head

190
Q

Define Acute Tenosynovitis

Define Felon

A

Inflammation along tendon sheath of distal digit from Staph A, Step, Gonorrhea or C Albicans. Can spread to thenar space

Finger tip injury causing infection in an enclosed fasical space of distal phalaynx pulp usually from Staph A
If vesicle is present- consider Herpetic Whitlow, seen in health care workers exposed to HSV in saliva

191
Q

Flat feet can arise from what 4 underlying issues

Bunions are AKA ?

A

Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction, Obsity, Diabetes, Prior Injury

Hallux Valgus

192
Q

Define Morton Neuroma

A

Tenderness in 3/4th metatarsal space that radiates w/ squeezing
Sxs include hyperesthesia, numbness, aching and burning

193
Q

Define Hypospadias

What type of scrotal changes can be seen in HF and Nephrotic Syndrome PTs?

A

Urethral meatus is in inferior surface of penis

Pitting Edema- skin is taut

194
Q

Since testis are usually 3.5cm or smaller, what does a size 2cm or smaller indicate?

What do soft testis indicate?

A

Klinefelters

Cirrhosis
Myotonic Dystrophy
Estrogen
Hypopituitary
Post-orchitis
195
Q

What is the difference between early discovery of testis lump and late finding?

Primary Syphilis and Chacroids need to be distinguished from?

A

Late- testis feel heavier

Both from Granulosum Inguinale from Klebsiella

196
Q

Chacroid needs to be distinguished from ? 4 microbes

Where are anal fissures typically found?

A

Primary Syphilis
Genital Herpes
Lymphogranuloma Venereum
Granulosum Inguinale

Posterior midline

197
Q

What does rectal cancer feel like during DRE?

What does peritoneal metastases cause to be found during DRE?

A

Firm nodule w/ rolled edges of ulcerated CA

Rectal shelf
If PT is female- shelf is formed in the rectouterine pouch behind cervix and uterus