GenSurg Flashcards

1
Q

? is the name of the duodenal/jejunal feeding tube

How are positions verified

What are the E+ abnormalities seen w/ refeeding syndrome

A

Dobhoff tube

KUB films

Hypo K, Mg, Phos

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2
Q

What surveillance order is needed on Pts receiving TPN

Feeding tubes can be placed/started ? soon after surgery

Define Visceral vs Parietal pain

A

Weekly liver enzymes

Day 2 post-op

V: afferent fibers, pain MC midline d/t bilateral innervation
P: sharp/precise pain d/t peritoneal irritation

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3
Q

Sequence of x-ray assessment

What is a 3-way abdomen image and what is it used for

Abdominal x-rays normally show air in ? three areas

A

Adequacy Bones Calcifications Deformity/Density Extra air Foreign body/Fx

Flat, Upright, CXR for hemo/pneumo-peritononeum

Stomach Small bowel, Rectosigmoid

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4
Q

How are mechanical obstructions distinguished from ileus’

Ileus are more common after ? d/t ?

Sub-diaphragmatic air on x-ray suggests ? issue

A

Mechanical- more localized, severe pain
Ileus- diffuse and milder

Post-op d/t inc sympathetic nerve activity

Perforated viscous

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5
Q

Where does the appendix arise from

What land mark is used to locate it during removal

What causes this to become obstructed in adults/peds

A

Postero-medial cecum, 2cm inferior of IC valve

Taeniae of colon converging at base

Adult: fecalith Peds: lymphoid hyperplasia

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6
Q

What are the 3 PE tests performed to locate appendicitis

Mnemonic for Alvarado Score

A

McBurney: iliac fossa
Obturator- pelvis
Psoas- retroperitoneal/cecal

Migration to R iliac fossa- 2pts
Anorexia
N/V
Tenderness in R iliac fossa
Rebound pain
Elevated temp
Leukocytosis- 2pts (>75% neutrophils)
Shift to left of WBCs

5-6: compatible 7-8: probable 9-10: very probable

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7
Q

What ABX are used during appendicitis

Appendix are routinely removed even if not inflamed during ? GI surgery

What PE test is used for rectus sheath hematoma

A

Cipro+Metronidazole: Perf’d
Cefoxitin: non-perf’d

Meckels Diverticulum

Neg Fothergill sign

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8
Q

Where are Boerhaave perfs most likely to occur

What images are done

What lab result would be elevated from thoracentesis after Boerhave perfs

A

Left posterolateral wall- causes Hamman crunch

Cervical x-ray
Esophagogram w/ contrast
Chest CT to localize

Amylase

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9
Q

? is the most sensitive imaging study for suspected esophageal cancers

How are Pts managed

? is the most important prognostic factor

A

Endoscopic US w/ FNA of lymph nodes

Neoadjuvant chemo and rad

Stage of Dz

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10
Q

What are the 2 MC complications to occur within 30days after bariatric surgery

What is the most concerning early complication

? is the MC performed bariatric surgery

A

Dehydration, E+ imbalance

Anastomotic leak

LSG

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11
Q

? is the most accurate method to Dx gastric ulcers

When is a Dx of Zollinger Ellison Syndrome considered

What lab test is used for Dx

A

Endoscopy

Ulcer refractory to PPI
Ulcer in distal duodenum/jejunum
Recurrent ulcers despite Tx

Fasting gastrin, d/c PPI one week prior

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12
Q

? pre-op image is used to localize Zollinger Ellison tumors and all are Tx w/ ?

? triple therapy is used for Tx

Why is maintenance therapy done w/ Omeprazole

A

Somatostain receptor scintigraphy; Resection

Amox Clarith w/ PPI

Inhibits parietal cell ATP tor educe ulcer recurrence

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13
Q

Test of choice for post-gastric ulcer Tx eradication

What procedures done to Tx high risk Pts w/ gastric ulcers

How are perforated duodenal ulcers Tx

A

Urea breath test

Billroth I- gastroduodenal anastomosis
Bilroth 2- gastrojejunal anastomosis
Roux en-Y gastrojejunostomy

Omental/Graham patch

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14
Q

Complications after antrectomy

Complications after Truncal Vagotomy

? type of diet do Pts adopt to Tx Dumping Syndrome

A

Leakage from duodenal stump

Delayed emptying, Dumping syndrome, Diarrhea

Low carb, High fat/protein

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15
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test for suspected Pyloric Stenosis and how is this Tx

? type of ulcer is not associated w/ Ca risk

These ulcers can be Tx by ? methods

A

US; Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy

Duodenal

EGD <24hrs if hermorrhaging, Selective vagotomy

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16
Q

? is the MC form of volvulus

How are these Dx

Pts w/ ? signs need immediate surgery or ? if no signs are present

A

Sigmoid then Cecal

Colonic- X-ray; Small bowel- CT

Toxic, Bloody d/c, Fever, Leukocytosis, Peritonitis- surgery
None- sigmoidoscopy

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17
Q

Define Rigler Triad

How is this Dx

How is this Tx

A

Abdominal radiograph findings for gallstone ileus: Pneumobilia Obstruction Gallstone

CT

Enterolithotomy- incision made proximal to obstruction for relief and removal

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18
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum is d/t a remnant of ?

What is the Rule of 2s

A

Omphalomesenteric duct

2% of peds population
2 tissue types: gastric, pancreatic
2 feet from ileocecal valve

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19
Q

? are the MC benign tumors of the small bowel

? are the MC malignant tumors of the small bowel

? are the MC endocrine tumors of the small bowel

A

Leimyoma, Adenoma

Adenocarcinoma

Carcinoid tumor: hot flash, bronchospasm, arrhythmias

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20
Q

Define Bezoar

How are these conditions Dx by images

How are they Tx

A
Compacted, retained foreign material in GI tract:
Phyto- fiber
Lacto- milk
Pharma- meds
Tricho- hair

AP films

Endoscopy then surgery

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21
Q

? is the most sensitive and specific study to Dx acute cholecystitis

MCC of cholelithiasis

What are the RFs to develop this MCC

A

Cholescintigraphy: Hida scan

Cholesterol stones

Age Female Obesity Parity

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22
Q

What causes pigmented stones in the gallbladder

When are pigmented stones seen

What are the non-surgical Tx options for cholecystitis in Pts inelligible for surgery

A

Inc unconjugated bilirubin, turns into Ca bilirubinate

Sickle Thalassemia Spherocytosis

Ursodeoxycholic acid: stones <15mm
ESWL- breaks stones <2mm for passing

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23
Q

Optimum time for cholecystectomy or ? is performed

What is the MC complication that arises from acalculous cholecystitis

Choledocholithiasis leads to ? Dx

A

<72hrs from Sx onset; Percutaneous cholecystostomy

Gangrene > Perf, Empyema

Cholangitis

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24
Q

Common Bile Duct dilation more than ? suggest choledocolithiasis

What are the high risk features for suspected choledocholithiasis

How are mild or mod/sev cases of cholangitis Tx w/ ABX

A

> 10mm/1cm

Age >55y/o Bili >30mmol CBD >6mm Dx US w/ stone

Mild/Mod: Cefazolin/Cefoxitin
Sev/Deterioration: Aminoglycoside + Clinda or Metro

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25
Q

Severe or unremitting cholangitis despite ABX are best Tx w/ ?

How much gas is used to inflate the abdomen during lap procedures

What is the name of the incision used for open cholecystectomy procedures

A

Endoscopic sphincterotomy then to laparotomy

15mmHg of CO2

Kocher’s in RUQ

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26
Q

Post-cholecystectomy ABX are continued for how long

When are Pts f/u w/ and when can they return to normal activity

What system breaks up the liver into segments

A

Until afebrile and normal leukocytosis

F/u 1wk, normal routine in 6-8wks

Couinaud into 8 sections

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27
Q

Common hepatic artery arises from ? structure

What structure marks the point of origin for the artery

Why is vascular control within the abdomen difficult

A

Celiac axis

Gastroduodenal artery

Hepatic veins are very short prior to entering IVC

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28
Q

What 3 structures make up the portal triad

These three structures enter the liver through ?

Bile is composed of ? four components

A

Hepatic artery, Portal vein, Biliary duct

Hepatic hilum

Formed in hepatocytes out of:
Conjugated bile acid, Cholesterol, Phospholipid, Protein

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29
Q

What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors

MC injured organ w/ abdominal blunt trauma and w/ ? MC sequelae and ? is the Tx strategy for this injury

What is a rare sequelae to liver trauma

A

2 7 9 10

Liver- biliary fistulae after central injury pattern:
Non-op management

Pneumobilia

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30
Q

Define Bilioma

How are these Tx if major leakage occurs

MC type of liver cyst

A

Loculated collection of bile

ERCP and spincterotomy

Simple hepatic: anechoice lesion w/ smooth contours

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31
Q

What is the name of the pre-malignant liver cyst and how are they Tx

Polycystic Liver Dz occur in Pts w/ ? MedHx

How are the different types Tx

A

Cystadenoma- internal septae w/ irregular lining and papillary projections; Tx: resection

PCKDz

Type 1: cyst fenestration w/ <10 cysts >10cm
Type 3: transplant d/t parenchymal involvement

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32
Q

? is the MC liver tumor

How are these results different on imaging

Hepatic adenomas are associated w/ ? RFs and managed how

A

Hemangioma d/t congenital vascular malformation

T1: hypointense T2: hyperintense Cold: NucMed scan

OCP/Androgen steroid use;
<3cm: observe while d/c OCPs
Resection: >5cm, expanding, malignant suspicion

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33
Q

Histologically, Hepatocellular Adenomas consist of ?

How are Focal Nodular Hyperplasia growths of the liver ID’d w/ imaging

What is the major RF for developing Hepatocellular Carcinoma

A

Benign hepatocytes

Hot on NucMed imaging

Chronic Liver Dz: Chronic hep B/C

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34
Q

How is Hepatocellular Carcinoma Dx

After Dx of Hepatocellular Carcinoma, what f/u schedule do Pts have

What are the 4 palliative options for these Pts

A

High resolution CT/MRI

US w/ A-fetoprotein q6mon

TACE TARE SBRT Sorafenib

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35
Q

What is the MC classification system used for liver failure

How are Pts w/ Chronic Liver Dz Tx

What is the name of the main/accessory duct in pancreas

A

Child-Pugh: Class C is c/i for hepatic resection

TIPSS: shunt placed and BBs to reduce risk of first bleed

Main Wirsung Accessory: Santorini

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36
Q

Define Budd Chiari Syndrome

When is this MC seen

Initial Tx is ? followed by ?

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis

Hypercoagulable female w/ RUQ pain, Ascites, Megaly

TIPS then portal decompression before hepatic necrosis occurs (Fullament failure Tx w/ transplant)

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37
Q

Why does Acute Pancreatitis prominently present w/ N/V

What are the 6 parts of the Ranson Criteria

What scoring system is used as a bed side index of severity

A

Accompanying paralytic ileus

GA LAW:
Glucose>200 Age>55 LDH>350 AST>250 WBC>16K

BASAP:
BUN>25mg AMS SIRS Age>60 Pleural effusion

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38
Q

Pancreatic Pseudocysts form d/t and occur more commonly in Pts w/ ?

What complication can occur as a result of severe pancreatic inflammation

D/t fluid sequestration, how is hypovolemia Tx during acute pancreatitis

A

Acute pancreatitis fails to recover after 1wk of Tx; Duct abnormalities

Pseudoaneurysm- acute exacerbation of abdominal pain

3-6L 9% NS or LR over first 24hrs

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39
Q

MCC of Chronic pancreatitis

What is the clinical tetrad for this condition

Name of Tx operation for large/small pancreatic duct chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcoholism

Pain Weight loss Diabetes Steatorrhea: assess A1c, fecal elastase, check for HyperCa/Tglc

Large: Puestow Small: Whipple, Beger

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40
Q

What is the traditional resection operation to Tx chronic pancreatitis

MC type of pancreatic neoplasms

What is the defining characteristic of this neoplasm

A

Pancreaticoduodenectomy- removed pancreatic head, duodenum and distal CBD (Whipple)

Ductal adenocarcinoma (2nd MC GI tract malignancy), Bili levels average 18mg/dL

Aggressiveness- early dissemination

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41
Q

How is pancreatic cancer Tx surgically

What is the MC type of functional PNETs

What triad is used for Dx of this MC

A

Pancreaticoduodenectomy- whipple procedure removing pancreatic head, duodenum, distal biliary system

Insulinoma- Sxs of cerebral glucose deprivation

Whipple Triad:
Symptomatic fasting hypoglycemia w/ glucose <50 that is relieved w/ IV glucose

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42
Q

How are Insulinomas Dx

? is the MC PNET of MEN-1

These are MC found in ? anatomical triangle

A

72hr monitored fasting

Gastrinoma- abdominal pain, diarrhea, refractory PUDz

Pancreatic neck
Junction of 2nd and 3rd duodenum
Junction of cystic and common ducts

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43
Q

How are gastrinomas Dx

All Pts w/ MEN-1 and gastrinomas should be screened for ?

What is the most important determinant for Pt survival

A

Fasting serum gastrin >1000
Borderline: order secretin provocative test

Parathyroid adenoma/hyperplasia/hyperCa

Liver mets

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44
Q

Where are the majority of accessory spleens found

What are the 3 zones and their function

What are the two MC reasons for splenectomy

A

Splenic hilum- persistent dz if unrecognized

Red: hematologic
White: immunoglobulins
Marginal: macrophages B-cells

Sx relief of splenomeglay, ITP unresponsive to Pred

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45
Q

When are post-splenectomy Pts vaccinated

What microbes are the vaccinated against and why are these needed

Splenectomy can induce ? increase in heme results that is managed w/ ?

A

2wks prior to elective ectomy
2wks after emergent ectomy or at d/c if <2wks
3mon after chemo/rad

H-flu Strep pneumo Meningococcus- avoid Overwhelming Post-Splenectomy Infection

Thrombocytopenia induced risk for emoblisms- Tx w/ ASA and anti-platelet when Plt >600K

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46
Q

What are the 5 layers of the colon from in to out

What are the only two parts of colon w/out taenia coli

? parts of the colon are retro/intra-peritoneal

A

Mucosa Submucosa Circle/Long muscle Serosa

Longitudinal ribbons of smooth muscle outside of intestines: Appendix, Rectum

Retro: ascending, descending
Intra: transverse

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47
Q

What causes diverticulosis to bleed

? is the most optimal imaging modality for lower GI bleeds

What are the indications for surgery

A

Thinning of out pouching of superficial vasa recta

Colonoscopy

Persistent/Massive hemorrhage
Transfusion or >4units <24hrs
Recurrent bleed

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48
Q

Colorectal polyps are classified per ? criteria

? tumor marker is used post-op for colorectal recurrence

What Dx initiates colonoscopies regardless of age

A

Haggitt

CEA

UC- risk for Ca

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49
Q

Colonic obstruction d/t ? tends to be more localized and severe

Pain from ? part of the colon is diffuse and milder

? image finding is highly suggestive of colon cancer

A

Mechanical obstruction

Ileus

Barium enema w/ apple core lesion- can be Dx and therapeutic

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50
Q

Crohns Dz causes ulcers in ? shape

? histology results will be seen

How is UC surgically cured

A

Bear claw

Non-caseating granulomas

Total proctocolectomy

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51
Q

What are the 3 zones where hemorrhoids can develop

Internal hemorrhoids are lined by ?

External hemorrhoids are lined by ?

A

R-anterior, R-posterior, L-lateral

Columnar mucosa epithelium

Squamous epithelium

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52
Q

? med is a stool softener

? med is fiber

Define Rectal Procidentia

A

Colace

Metamucil

Rectal prolapse- full thickness protrusion through anus

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53
Q

What are the 4 RFs for rectal prolapse

Majority of cancers at the anal margin are ? type

Neoplams of the anal margin appear as ?

A

Post-menopause Female Constipation Surgery

SCC- well differentiated and rarely w/ distant mets

Rolled, everted edges w/ central ulcerations

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54
Q

What is the best initial management strategy for malignant neoplasms at the anal margin

Majority of anal fissures are found ?

What type are more commonly found in females

A

Chemoradiation

Posterior anal canal

Anterior fissures

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55
Q

Why are lateral internal spincterotomys preferred over posteriors

Why do Pts not experience incontinence after surgery

? type of anal abscess tend to be larger and complex

A

Avoid keyhole deformities

Intact external sphincter

Ischirectal- cryptoglandular infection w/in anal canal

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56
Q

? type of anal abscess have increased rates of fistulas

Pilonidal dz is AKA ? Dz

What is the name of the procedure for Pilonidal Dz

A

Horse shoe abscesses

Jeep seat dz- hair follicles in gluteal cleft infected w/ keratin leading to infection/abscess formation

Bascom

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57
Q

Define the Chamberlain Procedure

What procedure is used as an alternative

MC indication for needle biopsy of the lung

A

Anterior mediastinotomy for biopsy x3

VATS

Solitary pulm nodule

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58
Q

? form of imaging is particularly good for evaluating Pancoast Tumors

? image is used to detect cancer spread to mediastinal lymph nodes

Define Infiltrate and Effusion

A

MRI

PET

In: fluid in lung; Eff: fluid in pleural space (meniscus sign on CXR)

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59
Q

? is the standard image to Dx Ptx

Ptx are the MC ? problem

? are the MC Sxs of pleural Dzs

A

PA and Lat CXR w/ exhalation

Pleural- no innervation to visceral layer

Pain, Dyspnea d/t innervation from somatic intercostal/phrenic nerve

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60
Q

Pleural effusions develop d/t ? changes

How much fluid does it take to blunt CV angles or an entire hemithorax on CXR

How much fluid is needed on thoracentesis for evaluation

A

Inc hydrostatic press, capillary permeability
Dec colloid oncotic press, intrapleural press, lymph drainage

CVA: 300-500mL Hemi: 2-2500mL

20mL at least

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61
Q

Transudate and Exudates are caused by ?

What lab results are seen in Transudate results

Once full lung expansion is achieved after pleural effusions, ? is the next step

A

Trans: CHF, LF Ex: Ca, Pneumonia, PE

Total protein <3g (ratio <0.5)
LDH ration <0.6
SpecGrav <1.016

Pleurodesis w/ Doxy/Talc

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62
Q

? size tube are used for malignant effusion, hemothoraces Tx

MCC of exudative pleural effusion is ?

? microbe is the MCC of empyema

A

Ca: 20-28F Heme: 32-36F

Malignancy

Staph A

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63
Q

? parasite can induce thoracic empyema

? is the most important non-invasive test for thoracic empyema

All PTs need ? procedure and ? is the procedure of choice for Dx

A

Entamoeba histolytica

CXR

Bronchoscopy; Thoracentesis

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64
Q

? is the MCC of death in men and women in the US

Pancoast tumors are more likely to be ? type

? is Horners Triad

A

Lung Ca

Squamous cell Ca in apex

SCC in apex causing Mitosis Anhydrosis Ptosis

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65
Q

? types of lung Ca are more likely to be peripheral or central

Non-Small Cell Lung Ca is more likely to secrete ? while Small Cell Lung Ca is more likely to secrete ? substance

? nerve can become compressed by pancoast tumors in the apex

A

Peripheral: adenocarcinoma (painless)
Central: Small Cell

Non: PTH-like: HyperCa
Small: ADH-like: SIADH, MSH, ACTH

Ulnar

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66
Q

CT scans for lung neoplasms include the upper abdomen because of ? two common met sites

? lab result is essential because then ? tests are ordered

? is used for the staging test and is most effective for assessing distant/occult Dzs

A

Liver, adrenals

AlkPhos- bone scan brain MRI/CT

Fluorodeoxyglucose PET scan

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67
Q

Lung neoplasms are more likely benign w/ ? characteristics

? is the most predictive factor for successful surgical outcome in these Pts

Difference between Neoadjuvant and Adjuvant chemo

A

<2cm, Concentric, Smooth, Solitary

CardioPulm reserve, Fitness

Neo: pre-op to shrink tumor,
Adj: after Tx to prevent recurrence

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68
Q

TNM Staging

What is the difference between Unresectable and Inoperable

A

T- 1: <3cm 2: 3-7cm 3: >7cm 4: invasive
L:
0: none 1: ipsilat broncho/hilar 2: ipsilat mediastinal/subclavicular 3: contralateral
M: 0: none 1: mets

Un: invaded structures In: unstable Pt

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69
Q

MCC of arterial aneurysm

What are the 3 types of pseudo-aneurysms

? is the MCC of pseudo-aneurysms

A

Atherosclerosis

Saccular: out-pouch of vessel wall
Fusiform: diffuse
Mycotic: MCC Staph infection

Trauma

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70
Q

? law of physics is applied to AAA

MC Sx of AAA leak

Image modality for tracking, Dx and elective planning

A

Law of Laplace:

Back pain d/t leak in left posterior corner below L-renal artery origin

Track: US
Dx at rupture: CTA
Elective: Aortogram

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71
Q

AAA characteristics at increased risk for rupture

Repair is indicated in ? 3 conditions

Define Blue Toe Syndrome

A

> 5.5cm
Expands >0.5cm/6mon
Female > Male
Saccular > Fusiform

ASx and >5.5cm, Sx, Expands >1cm/yr

Distal embolization from AAA

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72
Q

Aortic Transections are usually d/t ? mechanism and occur ?

Pts can survive this injury if ? structure holds

Best image for Dx and best method to control/dec shearing forces

A

Deceleration, Distal to subclavian artery

Adventitia

CTA; BBs then dilators

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73
Q

? is the MC catastrophic event involving the aorta

Ruptures are more likely seen w/ ? Stanford type and have ? murmur

Name of procedure to Tx mesenteric ischemia

A

Acute dissection- AR

Type A

Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty w/ stenting

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74
Q

? is the MCC of carotid related CVAs

? may be the first Sx of carotid artery dz

? is the most useful test for carotid artery dz assessment while ? is the gold standard but only used if surgery is planned

A

Emboli- MC

Frank CVA

Duplex US; Carotid arteriography w/ >75% occlusion= need for surgery
(MRI/A- better for ischemic CVAs)

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75
Q

What medication is needed after carotid endarterectomy procedures

Subclavian Steal Syndrome causes blood to be ‘stolen’ from ?

Periphral Vascular Dz pain in calf, butt, groin means source is ?

A

Clopidogrel x 6wks

Subclavian steals from vertebral artery

Calf: femoral artery
Butt/Thigh: iliac
Impotence: aortic

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76
Q

What are 3 critical characteristics of limb ischemia

AMI measurement below ? means occlusive Dz present

What is the most important RF

A

Pain w/ rest
Inc pain at night
Hanging leg off bed/chair to dec pain

<1.0

Smoking

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77
Q

What 3 meds are used for peripheral vascular dz and what are their MOAs

What are the 6 Ps of acute arterial occlusions

Which one indicates the beginning of irreversible ischemic changes

A

Cilostazol: PD-5 inhibitor to dilate vessels
Anti-platelets: ASA
Pentoxiphylline: dec blood viscosity
Statins

PooP Color Pulse Movement Temp Numb

Sensory deficit

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78
Q

Arterial transections must be repaired within a few hrs to prevent ?

How are arterial occlusions Tx

? type of knee injury leads to an arterial stretch injury

A

Gangrene

Heparin- atraumatic
Arteriorgram if light touch intact
Thrombolytics or Embolectomy- emergent if neuro compromise present

Anterior dislocation

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79
Q

What causes popliteal artery entrapments

How does this entrapment present

Thromboangiitis Obliterans is AKA ? Dz

A

Medial head of gastrocnemius w/ abnormal insertion causing medial deviation of artery

ASx w/ rest, Ischemia w/ exercise

Buerger Dz

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80
Q

What causes venous dilation in AV fistulas

? thyroid Ca follows a FamHx path

Radiation during childhood puts Pts at risk for ? type of thyroid Ca

A

Arterial pressure

Medullary carcinoma in MEN-2

Papillary- MC type of thyroid Ca MC d/t iodine deficiency

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81
Q

? is the first line investigation test for solitary thyroid nodules

? scintigraphy result means nodule is likely benign

Toxic adenomas need to be removed if ? size

A

US guided FNA

Hot- hormonally active (low TSH, high T3/4)

> 4cm

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82
Q

How are the two MC types of thyroid cancer spread

MEN-1 is AKA while MEN-2 is AKA ?

? medication is used during thyroid tumors to suppress mets

A

Pap: lymph Foll: heme

1: Werner’s 2: Sipple’s

Thyroxine

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83
Q

MC neoplasm in mediastinum

MC neoplasm in mediastinum w/ clinical presentation

What are the 2 MCC of thryotoxicosis

A

Thymoma

Substernal thyroid

Graves: hypersecretory goiter
Plummer: toxic multi-goiter

84
Q

Achilles DTR response to hyper/hypo-thyroidism

How is Thyrotoxicosis Tx

What study is used after Pt returns to euthyroid status after thyrotoxicosis

A

Hyper: shortened; Hypo: prolonged

Methimazole/PTU
Lugol iodine/Ipodate sodium
BBs

R-131

85
Q

Where are Pts referred to after thyroid nodule work up

Hyperparathyroid Pts are at ? risk

? type of acid-base d/o can hyperparathyroidism develop

A

IM- hyper/thyroiditis
GenSurg/ENT- nodule/goiter/cyst

Premature death d/t CV/malignancy

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

86
Q

What other DDx need to be r/o w/ lab results consistent w/ hyperparathyroidism

What type of rad findings may be seen during hyperparathyroidism

? advanced imaging is used for finding sub-sternal glands

A

Breast Ca

Hands: osteitis fibrosa cystica, Mottled skull

Sestamibi; Gamma probe for small nodes

87
Q

Difference between Primary/Secondary hyperparathyroid growth

Define Mondor’s Dz

A

Primary: benign
Secondary: malignant

Chest wall trauma induced vein formation

88
Q

MEN-1 Werner’s Syndrome

MEN-2a Sipple’s Syndrome

MEN-2b

A

Hyperparathyroid
Gastrinoma>insulinoma
Pituitary tumor

Medullary thyroid Ca
Pheo
Hyperparathyroidism

Medullary thyroid Ca
Pheo
GI ganglioneuromatosis
Mucosal neuroma

89
Q

What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex and what do they release

What does the adrenal medulla produce

What causes adrenal cortical hyperplasia

A

Glomerulus: aldosterone
Fasciculata: cortisol
Reticularis: testosterone

Catecholamines- sympathetic stimulation

Malignancy in fasciculate causing excess cortisol secretion (Cushing syndrome)

90
Q

What is the next Tx step for pituitary adenomas if pituitary surgery fails

What part of the kidney are pheo’s found in and what do they secrete

What is the classic Pheo Triad

A

Adrenalectomy

Medulla- Epi

HA, Palpitation, Diaphoresis

91
Q

What are the two possible intra-operative complications during pheo removal

What are the indications to remove hormonally inactive pheos

What is the f/u procedure if surgery is not indicated for hormonally inactive pheos

A

Pheo: HTN d/t tumor handling
HOTN after tumor devascularized

Encroaching on surrounding structures
>5cm

<5cm= repeat CT in 3-6mon

92
Q

What is the difference between lobe and duct of breasts

? is the MC carcinoma

Rarely, ? meds are used to Tx fibrocystic breast changes

A

L: functional unit that produce milk
D: store milk and connect to nipple

Ductal

Tamoxifen, Danazol w/ tenderness during luteal phase

93
Q

What are the indications to excise fibroadenomas

What are the two benign conditions that cause nipple d/c

How are these Pts managed

A

> 35y/o or Pt request

Intraductal papilloma, Mammary duct ectasia

F/u q 3mon w/ MMG and US

94
Q

Define Galactorrhea

What PE test needs to be done

How is this Dx and when are pts f/u

A

Bilat milk d/t in non-lactating women

Visual field: Bitemporal hemianopsia

Dx mammogram; F/u q3-4mon x12mon w/ MMG and US

95
Q

Chronic breast abscesses normally arise from ?

How are these Tx

Where are supernumeray nipples found and how are they Tx

A

Duct ectasia

Stop nursing, Admit w/ IV ABX, OR I&D

Anywhere on milk line; Excision

96
Q

What are the two views of a screening MMG

How are findings classified

A

Craniocaudal, Mediolateral

BiRADs:
0- more images needed
1- neg/normal
2- benign finding
3- probably benign
4- suspicious, biopsy
5- suggests malignancy, definite biopsy
6- biopsy proven malignancy
97
Q

What Pt population would receive pre-operative breast MRI

? is the MC lump found on self breast exams

What is the worst pathological report for breast ca biopsy

A

Dense tissue, Implants

Ca: painless, unilateral w/out d/c

Triple negative: Tx w/ Chemo

98
Q

How is HER-2 positive breast Ca Tx

? is the MC breast Ca type

What is a pre-invasive marker of Ca

A

Poor prognosis 2/2 mets: Tx w/ monoclonal Abs

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

Lobular Ca in situ

99
Q

MCC of bilateral breast Ca

Define Paget Carcinoma

How are these Pts managed/Tx

A

Primary lobular tumor

Ductal carcinoma causing nipple itch/burn and crusted lesions

ABX/Topical steroids x 7d then refer to GenSurg

100
Q

How does Inflammatory Breast Ca present

How is this Tx

Men w/ breast Ca present at ? age and w/ ? Medhx

A

Erythema/Edema w/out palpable mass in non-lactating female

Neoadjuvant chemo, Surgery, Radiation

70y/o w/ prostate Ca

101
Q

What is an ominous finding for men w/ suspected breast Ca

How are these Tx

Difference between Modified Radical Mastectomy and Radical Mastectomy

A

Nipple d/c

Modified radical mastectomy

Mod: spares muscle w/ skin retention
Rad: dec function of arm d/t structure removal

102
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for breast ca

Post-surgical drains are removed at ? point of recovery

What two nerves can be injured during Modified Radical Mastectomy

A

Mets to axillary nodes

<30ml/day

Long thoracic: winged scapula
Thoracodorsal: lat dorsi paralysis

103
Q

? type of radiation therapy is used for breast Ca Tx

What structure is used to reconstruct breast mounds after mastectomy

Difference between Femoral and Inguinal Hernias

A

Tangential: dec body irradiation

Transverse Rectus abdominus muscle

Inguinal: arises above inguinal ligament
Femoral: arises below inguinal ligament

104
Q

Inguinal hernias develop laterally to ? structure

Direct Hernias develop through ? structure

What causes a congenital indirect hernia

A

Inferior epigastric artery

Hesselbach Triangle:
Medial: rectus muscle
Lat: inferior epigastric artery
Inferior: inguinal ligament

Patent processus vaginalis (same as hydrocele)

105
Q

? is the MC hernia in both genders

? nerve may be prophylactically seperated during hernia repair

? type of repair makes the recurrence rate higher

A

Congenital indirect

Ilioinguinal hernia

Laparoscopic: usually done for bilateral hernias (open for unilateral hernia)

106
Q

? type of hernia is more common in women

Epigastric hernias protrude through ? structural defect

Umbilical hernias in infancy are repaired after ? age

A

Femoral: inferior to inguinal ligaments, medial to femoral vein

Epigastric fat through linea alba

2y/o

107
Q

Post-hernia repair wound dehiscence appears as ?

How are these managed?

Untreated, this will progress to ?

A

Salmon colored peritoneal fluid

Return to OR for fascial repair

Acute: Evisceration
Delayed: Incisional hernia

108
Q

Sports hernias are not true hernias but are result of microtears to ?

This can also be a manifestation of ? Dx

Define Hydrocele, Spermatocele, Varicocele

A

Femoris Adductor Rectus
Hip flexor Obliques Psoas

Osteitis pubis

H: patent vaginalis allowing peritoneal fluid collection
S: fluid filled mass on epididymis
V: dilated pampiniforms (L > R)

109
Q

Smoking cessation ? long prior to surgery can help reduce atelecatsis development

If intubation for post-op pneumonia is done, keep sats at ? level

Aspiration pneumonia is avoided by Pts being NPO for ? long

A

> 2wks

PCO2 35-45
O2 >95%

> 6hrs prior for surgery

110
Q

What PE finding is associated w/ a suspected DVT

PERC criteria

Wells score criteria

A

Homan’s sign

HAD CLOTS:
Hormone Age >50 DVT/PE Sxs
Coughing blood Leg swelling O2 <95%
Tachy >100bpm Surg/Trauma <4wks

EAT CHIPS:
Edema/Leg pain/DVT Sxs: 3
Alt Dx less likely: 3
Tachy: 1.5
Cancer: 1
Hemoptysis: 1
Immobile >3 days: 1.5
Previous DVT/PE: 1.5
Surgery <30d: 1.5
111
Q

How is C Diff Tx

Mnemonic for trouble shooting catheters

? nerve injury can occur during hernia repair

A

PO Vanc or Metronidazole

DOPE: Displace Obstructed Position Equipment

Ilioinguinal- skin numbness

112
Q

? nerve injury can occur during mastectomy

? nerve injury can occur during para/thyroid surgery

? nerve injury can occur during carotid endarterectomy

A

Long thoracic- winged scapula

Recurrent laryngeal- hoarseness

Hypoglossal nerve- deviated tongue

113
Q

How is DIC Tx

Why do blood transfusions result in HypoCa

What is the lethal triad of hypothermia

A

FFP

Citrate from banked blood binds to Ca

Hypothermia
Metabolic acidosis
Coagulopathy

114
Q

What are the 4 stages of Decubitus Ulcers

What is the criteria for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

MOA of local anesthetics

A

1: Intact, non-blanching skin
2: shallow ulcer w/ red wound bed
3: adipose visible
4: underlying structures visible

Temp >101.5* Tachy/Tachy Leukocytosis

Na channel blocker to prevent AP

115
Q

What types of nerve fibers are easily blocked by local anesthetic

Why do these not work well in infected tissues

What are the two classifications

A

Thinner, Myelinated

Inc acidity (normally pH 5.5-6.0

Amides: metabolized by liver (MC used)
Ester: metabolized by cholinesterase into PABA- common allergen

116
Q

How are amides identified on visual assessment

Four methods local tissue inflammation effects anesthetic activity

What are the benefits of adding Epi

A

“i” before -caine

Dec blood flow slows clearance
Acidosis dec active anesthetic
Macrophage inactivation
Temp inactivated anesthetic

Inc duration, Dec bleeding/volume needed

117
Q

What are the 3 disadvantages of adding lidocaine to local anesthetics

Avoid Epi in Pts w/ ? MedHx

What are the MC adverse effects

A

Tachy, THN, Dysrhythmias

Cardiac dz HTN DM Hyperthyroid

Urticarea Dermatitis Edema Erythema

118
Q

What PE finding suggests CNS toxicity from lidocaine w/ epi

Max amount of lidocaine w/ and w/out epi

How much lidocaine is in 1% lido

A

Tonic clonic activity- Tx w/ benzo

4mg/kg w/out, up to 300mg
7mg/kg w/, up to 500mg

1%= 10mg/ml, 2%= 20mg/ml

119
Q

Max dose of Bupivacaine

Don’t use in ? Pts

How are toxicities Tx

A

2mg/kg up to 100mg

<12y/o

Hyperventilate dec pCO2, Benzo for seizure

120
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia MC occurs after ?

How is this Tx

What is the sequence of clinical anesthesia

A

Volatile agents, Succinylcholine

Cooling, BiCarb, Dantrolene

Dilation: loss of sympathetic tone
Pain/Temp
Pressure
Motor

121
Q

Define Spinal block

What is this MOA

What is the MC complication from use

A

Anesthetic in sub-arachnoid CSF

Sympathetic/sensory/motor blockage

Post-spinal HA; Tx w/ Blood Patch

122
Q

Define Epidural Anesthesia

What is the MOA

This type of block is good for ? injury

A

Anesthesia injected to epidural space w/ catheter left in place

Blocks sensory > motor

Rib Fx

123
Q

C5, T4 and T10 are located at ? landmarks

? complication arises from central nerve blocks

? complication can arise from high spinal blocks

A

5: clavicle 4: nipple 10: umbilicus

HOTN d/t neurogenic shock; Tx: pressor and fluid

Bradycardia, HOTN, Arm tingling

124
Q

How are high spinal blocks Tx

MC complication from central nerve blocks

How are spinal HAs Tx

A

IV naloxone w/ ventilation

Urinary retention

Fluids, Caffeine, Blood patch from autotransfused blood into epidural

125
Q

What adverse complication arises from central nerve blocks in Pts on anticoagulants

? type of amnesia does conscious sedation create

? is the name of cricoid pressure

A

Epidural hematoma: compresses spinal cord causing loss of neuro function below injection site

Antegrade

Sellick

126
Q

? type of suture materials cause a more intense inflammatory reaction

How is the tensile strength determined

? type of configuration has more infection risk

A

Natural fiber > Synthetic

Larger integer= smaller diameter

Braided

127
Q

Cutting needles are preferred for ? while tapered/round needles are used for ?

Define swaged needles

Define Double Armed needle

A

Cut: skin; Taper/Round: Vessel/Bowel

Suture is pre-attached to needle

Needles at both ends of suture for anastamoses

128
Q

Absorbable sutures

Non-Absorbable sutures

How are needle drivers loaded

A

Gut Monocryl Vicryl

Ethilon Prolene Silk

50-75% past tip, perpendicular to driver w/ only first joint inserted in rings

129
Q

Difference Adsons and Debakeys

Suture tension is inverse to ?

When are simple interrupted used

A

Ad: outside body w/ rat tooth ends for traction
Deb: inside body

Spacing: more bites, less tension

Almost all external closures, start in middle

130
Q

Most simple interrupted sutures are left in place for ? days w/ ? exception

When are horizontal mattress sutures used and left in place for ? long

When are vertical mattress sutures used

A

7-10 days; Face x 5d

Larger lacerations x 7-10d

Lacerations w/ poor eversion

131
Q

What type of knot is used to terminate a running suture

? type of suture is used to approximate deeper tissue prior to closure

What are the 3 types of scalpels and their use

A

Aberdeen/Fishermen knot

Subcuticular

10- large incisions, cut w/ hump of blade
15- small incision, smaller than 10 blade
11: puncture/cutting for suture removal

132
Q

Extensor surfaces are sutured in ? direction

Flexor surfaces are closed in ? direction

? closing material has a higher tensile strength than sutures

A

Longitude

Transversely

Staples

133
Q

Pts classified as Immediate during triage

A
PART I CUT:
Pending limb loss
Amputation
Retrobulbar hematoma
Tension Ptx

Intracranial hemorrhage

Compromised airway
Uncontrolled hemorrhage
Trauma w/ shock

134
Q

Pts classified as Delayed during triage

Pts classified as Minimal during triage and why is this group so dangerous

Pts classified as Expectant during triage

A
Globe injuries
Trauma w/out shock
Facial injury w/ airway intact
Burns, non-life threatening
Stable lacs/VS needing higher level of care

Minor lacs/burns, Small bone Fx; Overwhelm resources during MASCAL

Severe burns High spine injuries Absent VS Transcranial w/ coma Shock

135
Q

OPAs are inserted w/ the tip pointing ?

Flail chest can cause ? ventilation issue

Size of needle decompression needle

A

Up, rotate 180* at posterior

Inc pCO2, Dec pO2

14G, 3.25”/8cm

136
Q

How is systolic BP estimated during primary survey

A Pts hemodynamic status is determined by ?

During trauma, type specific blood should be avail w/in ? time

A

Radial= 80 Femoral= 70 Carotid= 60

Level of consciousness, Skin perfusion

<20min

137
Q

During Primary Survey, dilated pupil correlates w/ ?

A lateral gaze w/ dilated pupil indicates ?

9 line medevac

A

Ipsilateral injury

Brain stem herniation through tentorium cerebelli

1: location 2: frequency 3: Pt type 4: equipment 5: Pt ambulation 6: security 7: LZ marking 8: nationality 9: NBC threat

138
Q

What are the components of the MIST report

When is AMPLE done during triage

? is the MC error during the secondary survey

A

Mechanism of injury
Injuries
Sx/VS
Tx given

Secondary survey

Failure to ID multiple injuries

139
Q

? is the most valuable test during a penetrating trauma work up

What are the 3 zones of neck trauma

What zone injury may be managed expectantly

A

Plain radiograph

3: lower lip and up
2: cricoid to lower lip
1: cricoid to clavicle

Zone 2

140
Q

What are the indications for a thoracotomy

Penetrating trauma can be d/c home as long as ? structure is not violated

Most retroperitoneal injuries are identified how

A

Persistent output despite bilat tubes
Initial output >1500ml
Persistently >200ml x 3hrs

Anterior fascia

Extra luminal gas/fluid

141
Q

? type of Dx image is performed for suspected traumatic rectal injuries

Best imaging to screen for intrathoracic bleeds while ? is the most reliable to find free intrabdominal blood

Peritoneal cavity can hold ? much fluid

A

Sigmoidscopy

CXR; EFAST

3L

142
Q

Life threatening hemorrhage from pelvic trauma means ? structure is damaged

What do Pts need after external fixation

What two presenting findings suggest need for emergency craniotomy

A

Posterior columns

Angioembolization

GCS <9 w/ lateralizing neuro exam

143
Q

Closed head trauma is rarely the cause of HOTN except for ?

? is the best imaging for blunt cerebral vascular injuries

How are pericardial tamponades Tx

A

Final phase before herniation

CTA

Temporary: centesis
OR: Sternotomy w/ repair

144
Q

What is the MC location for aortic injuries

What two CXR findings aid w/ Dx

Diaphragm ruptures MC occur on ? side w/ ? CXR finding as pathognemonic

A

Distal to LSCA

Wide mediastinum >8cm,
Obscured apex of chest- apical cap

Left: Coiled gastric tube in chest

145
Q

? if the MC injured GU organ

? is the most reliable sign this MC has occurred

Pelvic injuries need ? study prior to cannulation

A

Renal injuries

Hematuria

Cystogram

146
Q

What PE findings suggest a urethral injury is present

What is the next step if these are found

Define ECMO

A

High riding prostate
Blood at meatus
Hematochezia

Retrograde urethrogram w/ fluoro

Extra Corporal Membrane Oxygenation

147
Q

Initial imaging for blunt/penetrating chest trauma

? side of the diaphragm is most likely to be injured

C-spine films need to encompass ? land marks and ? angle can help visualize this land mark

A

Portable x-ray

L > R

C7-T1; Swimmer’s view

148
Q

What parts of the C-spine are evaluated for soft tissue edema

Loss of the cervical lordotic curve can indicate ?

Hangman Fx is AKA ?

A

C2: 6mm
C6: 22cm

Soft tissue swelling, Muscle spasms

Traumatic spondylolisthesis- axial compression w/ hyperextension= bilat Fx of pars interarticularis

149
Q

? type of immobilization is used for Pts w/ C1-2 Fxs

Jefferson Fxs are AKA ?

Define Clay Shoveler’s Fx

A

Halo-vest immobilization x 12wks

Atlas Fx- d/t axial loading, usually w/out neuro injury

Isolated spinous process Fx; unilateral lamina/pedicle Fx

150
Q

? type of cervical Fx usually leaves Pts as quadriplegics

Hyperflexion injuries are usually from ? mechanism

Hyperextension injuries are usually from ? mechanism

A

Tear drop- hyperflexion and posterior displacement compared to inferior vertebrae

Flexion and Distraction- occiput blow

Extension and Compression- forehead blow

151
Q

Hyperextension neck injuries most often have ? neuro complain

? part of the neck is MC Fx

What are the 3 types of this Fx

A

Radiculopathy

Odontoid

Type 1: tip, uncommon
Type 2: neck
Type 3: junction and axis body

152
Q

What two types of neck injuries are most likely to be immediately fatal

More than half of L-spine Fxs occur where

Seat belt Fxs of the L-spine are AKA ? Fxs

A

Atlanto-occipital dislocaiton
Atlanto-axial dislocation

T12-L1

Chance Fxs

153
Q

L-spine compression Fxs can be Tx w/ pain and bed rest if ? two criteria are met

All ? Fxs of the L-spine are unstable regardless of neuro exam

What are the indications for surgical Tx

A

<50% loss of height, <30* angulation

Burst

> 50% height
Retropulsion narrows canal >50%
Kyphotic angulation ≥25*

154
Q

? classification system is used for pelvis Fx

A
Young-Burgess-
A: mechanically stable and MC type
B: partial posterior (rotation unstable, vertical stable)
B1: open book
B2: lateral compression
C: A/P instable
155
Q

Pts w/ intracapsular (femoral neck) pelvic Fxs will look like ? on PE

How much blood can the abdominal cavity sequester

Sequence for studying abdominal films

A

Shortened, externally rotated, abducted

> 3L

1: gas pattern
2: extraluminal air
3: calcifications
4: soft tissue masses

156
Q

What abdominal x-ray finding for the spleen is abnormal

? chest wall injuries are Tx w/ surgery

MC injury from blunt chest wall trauma

A

Below rib 12 and/or displaced stomach bubble to midline

> 1L blood loss
Diaphragm rupture
Aortic transection
Tamponade

Rib Fx

157
Q

Ptx are dx w/ x-ray and ? breathing pattern

Axial injuries to chest/spine can lead to ? thoracic issue

Aortic transections may live to hospital if ? structure holds during injury

A

Exhalation

Chylothorax

Adventitia

158
Q

Great vessel injuries are most often exposed by ? procedure

First test performed for Pts w/ high risk penetrating chest wounds

Pts w/ obvious tamponade but no imminent arrest have ? next step

A

Median sternotomy

eFAST

Directly to OR for sternotomy

159
Q

Indications for resuscitative thoracotomy

? is the Triangle of Safety for chest tubes

A

Penetrating trauma CPR <15min
Rapid deterioration
Organized rhythm, even PEA
Blunt trauma CPR <10min

Medial: pec muscle
Lat: lat dorsi
Inferior: 4-5th ICS

160
Q

? is the insertion site for thoracostomy

? type of suture is used for securing

What is the adverse outcome of placing a chest tube initially on wall suction

A

5th rib at anterior axillary line

No 0-1 silk

Pulmonary edema refractory to diuretics

161
Q

Indications to remove chest tubes

? organs are located retroperitoneum

3 main indications for Ex-Lap

A

No air leak on water seal
<200ml drainage/24hrs
No PTX

Duodenum Pancreas
Kidney Aorta Vena cava

Peritonitis, Hemorrhage, Injuries

162
Q

? is the exception to gunshot wound Ex-Lap rule

How are liver injuries graded

A

Tangental wounds= laparoscopy for peritoneal penetration

1: <10% surface area
2: 10-50% surface area
3: >50% surface area
4: 25-75% parenchymal disruption
5: >75% parenchymal disruption

163
Q

How are liver injuries managed after d/c

? type of drain is used after abdominal/pelvic trauma surgery

What is another type of drain that may be used

A

Re-image 4-8wks after
High grade: reimage at 3mon prior to returning to sports

Jackson pratt- grenade shape, keeps area under pressure

Penrose- prevent would healing, allows drainage

164
Q

What are the three sequential stages of wound healing

Abnormal wound healing occurs when ? stage is prolonged

What phase causes wound contraction

What phase includes remodeling

A

Inflammation
Migration/Proliferation
Maturation

Inflammation

Migration and proliferation

Maturation

165
Q

What are the 3 closure types

Debris can lead to traumatic tattooing if not removed in ? time frame

Pressure exceeding ? is Dx for compartment syndrome and Tx w/in ?

A

Primary: <8hrs of injury w/ suture/staple
Secondary: self healing w/ packing
Tertiary: delayed primary

<48hrs

> 30mmHg; Fasciotomy <6hrs

166
Q

? type of fluids should be used during compartment syndrome

? type of venom do Elapids have

? type of venom do Vipers have

A

Mannitol-Alkaline

Cobra/Mamba: neurotoxin

Rattler/Viper: cytotoxin- can lead to compartment syndrome

167
Q

Secondary intention healing occurs through ? three mechansism

Do not use ? item to cover healing tissue

Difference between contraction vs contracture

A

Base granulation
Edge contraction
Re-epithelialization

Cover sponges

  • ction: linear wound becomes shorter
  • cture: circle becomes smaller
168
Q

Best type of ulcer dressing for absorbency, comfort and hydrocolloids

? type of dressing is water resistant

? type can absorb alot of exudates

A

Foam Alginate Debridement

Films

Alginate

169
Q

? type of dressing can be changes w/ minimal pain

? type of dressing change can’t be used on infected or exudative wounds

? type of dressing must be protected by a secondary dressing

A

Foams

Hydrocolloid

Hydrogel

170
Q

What 3 factors determine an infectious process

What are the two MC microbes in surgical Pt infections

A

Organism
Environment/local response
Host defenses

Gram Pos cocci > Gram neg bacilli

171
Q

? surgical infection microbe is MC enteroccoccal species

? surgical infection microbe is MC Vanc resistant

How many brush stroked when scrubbing for surgery

A

Enterococcus epidermis

Enterococcus faecium

Finger tips: 30 strokes
Finger/Palm/Wrist: 20 strokes

172
Q

What is the BBB of the OR

? type of burn injuries can heal w/out scars

What are the names of the ridges found within the Basement Membrane Zone

A

Area between Anesthesia and Operative Field

Pure epidermal injury

Rete ridges- aid w/ protecting from shearing forces

173
Q

When looking at a burned area, ? area is most damaged

What are the next two areas surrounding this most damaged area

Rule of 9s

A

Center- zone of coagulation

Stasis then Hyperemia

Don’t count 1st degree:
Arm/Head: 9% each side
Leg/Trunk: 18% each side

174
Q

Second Degree burns extend into ? layer

What is the hallmark of this type of burn

Deep Partial Thickness extend to ? layer

A

Papillary dermis

Blisters

Reticular layer of dermis

175
Q

Partial thickness burns that have not healed w/in 3wks need ? Tx

? ABX is used for burns but w/ ? s/e

Third degree burns can only heal via ?

A

Excision and grafting

Silvadine: silver sulfadiazine: leukopenia

Contraction

176
Q

Second degree burns are Tx w/ occlusive dressings w/ ? exception

? type of ABX has no role in the Tx of burns

What is the position that extremities are splinted in

A

Face: Tx open w/ ABX ointment

Systemic ABX prophylaxis

Function, not comfort

177
Q

Define Autograft

Define Allograft

Define Xenograft

A

Skin graft from self

Skin graft from same species

Skin graft from another species

178
Q

Full Thickness graft are AKA ?

Split Thickness graft are AKA ?

What are the benefits of each

A

Sheet graft

Meshed graft

Sheet: dermis w/ superior cosmesis
Meshed: max surface area allows egress of serum/blood

179
Q

UOP is used to guide burn resuscitation but only after ? long

Why do burn Pts have so much edema

How is fluid resuscitation determined

A

8hrs

Hypoproteinemia

Baxter/Parkland formula:
4ml x TBSA x Kg
Half in first 8hrs, other half over 16hrs

180
Q

How are circumferential burns Tx

How can the increased catabolism rate be decreased after burns

What 3 meds have dec catabolism and incrased anabolism

A

Escharotomy

BBs

Insulin Growth hormones, T analogues

181
Q

Post-burn contractions are Tx via ?

3 kinds of electrical burns

Acid burns lead to / while alkaline burns lead to ?

A

Z-plasty once healed

Current Flame Thermal- arcing currents

Acid: coagulation necrosis
Alkaline: liquefaction necrosis

182
Q

Goal UOP after burn injuries

Define Consciousness

What are the two components

A

> 0.5ml/kg/hr

Subjective experience of environment and self

Arousal/wake- defines level of consciousness
Awareness/perception- defines content of consciousness

183
Q

What are the 5 terms used for defining levels of consciousness

A

Alert- awake, responsive

Stupor- responds w/ stimulation

Obtunded- asleep but responds to stimuli

Vegetative- arousal w/out awareness

Comatose- asleep, no response to stimuli

184
Q

Scalp vessels are below hair follicles at the level of ?

What is the acronym for structures of the SCALP

First responder intervention can help reduce ? type of brain injury

A

Galea

Skin CT Aponeuorsa Loose tissue Pericranium

Secondary- brain injury from sequelae from primary injury

185
Q

Intubation is recommended for GCS <8 or motor score below ?

What are the two worse secondary insults that occur after a TBI

What is an independent predictor of mortality

A

4 or lower

Hypoxia, HOTN

In-hospital O2 desat <90%

186
Q

Brain injuries need SBP maintained <90mmHg w/ ? PE test indicating adequate MAP

Equation for MAP

Equation for CPP

A

Radial pulse

1/3 (SBP + 2DBP)

CPP= MAP - ICP
ICP measured w/ ventriculostomy

187
Q

ICP monitor is called ?

Requirement prior to placement

Head CT w/ midline shift indicates ? damage and will have ? PE finding

A

Bolt

GCS 8 or greater and abnormal head CT

Brainstem herniation; Pupil changes ipsilateral side

188
Q

What causes Diffuse Axon injuries

What will be seen on CT

What med can be used for BP control during ICP

A

Shearing force from acel/decel

Normal

Phenylephrine

189
Q

ICP w/ agitation is intubated w/ ? combo of RSI meds

? is used for seizure prophylaxis

? is the safest and most prudent Tx for TBI Pts

A

Propofol w/ Fentanyl

Levetiracetam- Keppra

Euvolemia w/ ICP <20

190
Q

What does a brain stem/uncal herniation look like

What does a tonsillar herniation look like

While intubated, keep Pts capnography between ?

A

Dilated, unresponsive pupils w/ lateral gaze

Cushing Triad

35-45

191
Q

MCC of acute liver failure

? is a common complaint w/ no significance to a surgical Hx

What is the MC error that occurs w/ hematochezia

A

Acetaminophen toxicity

Changes in bowel habits

Assumption of hemorrhoids

192
Q

True liver function is assessed w/ ? three labs

Pre-op ABX are given ? far prior to surgery and redosed ? often

? perioperative stratification tool is used for risk assessment

A

Coagulation Albumin Total bili

<1hr of surgery; q2 t1/2 lives

ASA:

1: healthy
2: mild/mod systemic d/o
3: sev systemic dz
4: incapacitating
5: moribund/life expectancy <24hrs

193
Q

How is Mallampati classification done

Pre-op serum creatinine higher than ? has inc M&M

6 Major Adverse Cardiac event criteria

A

Mouth open, Tongue out, No Ah sound

> 2.0mg

DM insulin, RF, CHF, High risk surgery, Ischemic heart dz, TIA/CVA

194
Q

Chronically hyperglycemic Pts are more dehydrated and will be exacerbated while NPO for surgery, so use ? fluid

How is their insulin dosage calculated

Albumin <3g suggests while pre-albumin <16mg suggests ?

A

Dextrose solutions

Sliding scale

A: chronic malnutrition, P: acute malnutrition

195
Q

FENa equation

How is a Pts hydration status assessed

Colloid transfusion therapies include ? 5 fluids

A

100 x (Na.u x Cr.p/Cr.u/Na.p)

Edwards EV1000 w/ serum lactate

FFP (30min thaw wait time)
Whole blood
PRBCs
Albumin- LF, burns, nephrotic syndrome
Platelets- bleeds w/ <50K Plt count
196
Q

IO infusions target ? structure

Locations for central line placements

? is the femoral triangle landmarks

A

Medullary sinus

Cephalic Jugulars Femoral Subclavian via Seldinger technique

Medial: adductor longus
Lat: sartorius
Superior: inguinal ligament

197
Q

IV rehydration is good for ? long

What 3 alternative methods of delivering nutrition are considered if this time line is met

Pts receiving total enteral nutrition need ? daily lab and ? weekly lab

A

One week

Peripheral parental nutrition
Enteral G/J tube
Total parenteral nutrition

Daily: E+ Week: pre-albumin

198
Q

NG/OG tubes are used to decompress stomach in Pts that have eaten w/ ? time from surgery

? structures differ D1 from D2

Define Phleboliths

A

<6hrs

Kerckring folds

Calcified venous thrombi w/ lucent center in pelvic veins of women

199
Q

What does the mnemonic ADC VAN DISMEL stand for

A

Admit to
Dx
Condition

VS
Activity
Nursing

Diet
IVF
Studies
Meds
Allergies
Labs
200
Q

Appendectomy performed during pregnancy often lead to ? adverse reaction

Open appendectomy uses ? incision

? artery supplies the appendix

A

Pre-term labor but not delivery

McBurney’s

Mesoappendix

201
Q

? is the MC rare pathology of appendicitis

? part of the small bowel is straight vasa recta

Define Internal Hernia and what can cause these

A

Carcinoid

Jejunum

Strangulated bowel d/t bucket handle mesenteric defect; High speed MVCs

202
Q

Why does fertility increase risk for gallstones

Hepatocytes conjugate bilirubin w/ ? for secretion in bile

Liver metabolism of serum proteins provide the only source of ? two products

A

Estrogen- inc cholesterol secretion
Progesterone- dec bile acid secrettion

Glucuronide

Albumin, Alpha globulin

203
Q

What can cause splenomegaly

What causes hypersplenism

Why are vascular structures ligated as close to the spleen as possible during splenectomy

A

EBV, T-cell lymphoma

Pancytopenia sequestration

Avoid vascular injury to stomach/pancreas

204
Q

Why are a majority of diverticula actually pseudodiverticula

Colorectal screenings start at age ? and include ? tests

Rectal cancer can present on DRE w/ mets in ?

A

Missing mucosal layer

50y/o w/ annual occult blood and Flex-Sig q5yrs

Blumer shelf: pouch of douglas

205
Q

Pt w/ hemorrhoids and Fe anemia need ? two examinations

? is the standard approach for open lung biopsy

? lung neoplasms causes clubbing and hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

Anoscopy and Proctosigmoidscopy

Thoracoscopy

Paraneoplastic syndromes d/t proliferation of growth factors