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IPAP > A&P 1: Block 3 > Flashcards

A&P 1: Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major parts of the brain?

A

Brain stem
Cerebellum
Diencephalon
Cerebrum

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2
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brain stem

A

Medulla oblongata
Pons
Midbrain

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3
Q

Cerebellum aka?

A

little brain

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4
Q

Diencephalon comprised of what 2 things?

A

Thalamus

Hypothalamus

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5
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

How is it supported?

A

Cerebrum

Supported on diencephalon and brain stem

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6
Q

What are the 3 layers of the meninges

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

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7
Q

Cranial dura mater has _ layers

Spinal dura mater has _layers

A

Cranial: 2
Spinal: 1

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8
Q

What are the two layers of the cranial dura mater?

Which one is continuous w/ spinal meninges?

A

External periosteal layer

Internal miningeal layer- continuous w/ spinal dura mater

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9
Q

The 2 layers of cranial dura mater are fused together except for where?

A

Separate to enclose dural venous sinuses that drain blood from brain->internal jugular vein

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10
Q

What are the 3 extensions of the dura mater?

A

Falx cerebri: separates hemispheres of CEREBRUM
Falx cerebeli: separates hemispheres of CEREBELLUM
Tentorium cerebelli: separates cerebrum from cerebellum

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11
Q

Neurons synthesize ATP almost exclusively from ____

A

glucose

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12
Q

How is the BBB disrupted?

A

Trauma
Toxins
Inflammation

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13
Q

What parts of the brain lack the BBB

A

Pineal gland
Pituitary gland
Hypothalamus (median eminence of hypothalamus)

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14
Q

What area senses toxins in the blood?

Where is it located?

A

Area postrema

4th ventricle in medulla

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15
Q

What area of the brain controls vomiting

A

Area postrema

4th ventricle in medulla

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16
Q

What two structures form the BBB

A

Tight junctions of endothelial cells in capillaries

Astrocyte foot processes

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17
Q

What substances cross the BBB by active transport?

A

Water soluble (glucose)

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18
Q

What substances cross BBB very slowly?

A

Creatine
Urea
Most ions

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19
Q

What substances can not cross the BBB at all?

A

Proteins

Antibiotic drugs

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20
Q

What substances cross the BBB easily?

A

O2
CO2
Alcohol
Most anesthetic agents

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21
Q

Major functions of CSF

A

Protection- chemical/physical

Carries O2, glucose and chemicals to neurons and neuroglia

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22
Q

CSF circulates between what layers of mater?

A

Between Arachnoid and Pia

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23
Q

How many ventricles does the brain have?

A 
4
Lateral
Septum pellucidum
3rd- narrow cavity surrounded by R/L halves of thalamus
4th- between brain stem and cerebellum
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24
Q

CSF contributes to brain homeostasis in what 3 ways?

A

Mechanical protection- jolting and floats
Chemical- optimal ionic composition
Medium for nutrient/waste exchange

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25
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

Choroid plexuses in walls of each lateral ventricles

Capillary network covered w/ ependymal cells

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26
Q

How does CSF flow into 3rd brain ventricle?

A

two openings called

Interventricular foramina

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27
Q

How does CSF flow into 4th ventricle?

A

Through cerebral aqueduct

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28
Q

How does CSF enter the subarachnoid space?

A

3 openings in roof of 4th ventricle
Median aperture
Two lateral apertures

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29
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed into the blood?

A

Arachnoid villi

Reabsorbed as fast as it’s secreted

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30
Q

Define hydrocephalus

A

Excess CSF in brain

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31
Q

How does hydrocephalus occur in adults?

A

Head injury
Meningitis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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32
Q

How is hydrocephalus often treated?

A

Shunt placement

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33
Q

How are PTs with obstructive hydrocephalus treated?

A

Third ventriculostomy

Hole is made in floor of 3rd ventricle so CSF can bypass obstruction

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34
Q

What formation extend throughout the brain stem?

A

Reticular formation composed of gray and white matter

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35
Q

What functions does the medulla oblongata control?

A

Breathing
HR
BP
Reflexes of cough, swallow, vomit

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36
Q

Where does the medulla oblongata begin?

A

Foramen magnum

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37
Q

Define ascending/descending tracts of the medulla oblongata

A

Ascending- sensory

Descending- motor

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38
Q

What type of matter make up the ascending and descending tracts of the medulla oblongata?

A

White

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39
Q

Define pyramids of the medulla oblongata

A

Bulges of white matter on anterior
Largest motor tracts pass from cerebrum to spinal cord

Pyramids represent the corticospinal tracts

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40
Q

Define decussation of pyramids

A

Axons of L pyramid cross to R side, vice versa

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41
Q

Define medullary nuceli

What are the 6 medullary nuclei

A

Masses of gray matter where neurons from synapses w/ one another to control vital body functions

Cardiovascular center- HR rate/force, vessel diameter

Medullary rhythmicity- basic rhythm of breathing
Deglutition center- swallowing bolus

Gustatory nucleus- input from taste buds to brain

Cochlear nuclei- auditory input

Vestibular nuclei- equilibrium pathway

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42
Q

Define Olive and their function

A

Lateral to each pyramid

Inferior olivary nucleus relays impulses to cerebellum from cerebral cortex, red nucleus and spinal proprioceptors

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43
Q

Define Posterior nuclei and its function

A

R/L gracile nucleus and cuneate nucleus make posterior medulla

Associated w/ sensations of touch, conscious proprioception and vibration

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44
Q

Where do first-order sensory neurons have their cell bodies?

A

Dorsal roots of spinal cord

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45
Q

Where are second-order neurons located?

A

Posterior nucleus of medulla

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46
Q

Define medial lemniscus

A

Band of white matter in thalamus of second order neurons

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47
Q

Where does the medial lemniscus run through?

A

Medulla
Pons
Midbrain

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48
Q

What do the tracts and columns of the posterior medial lemniscus form?

A

Posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway

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49
Q

S/Sx of injury to medulla site?

A

Paralysis/loss of sensation on opposite side of body

Irregular breathing/HR rhythm

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50
Q

Pons consists of which nuclei?

A

Both, sensory and motor

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51
Q

What type of relay signals does the pontine nuclei relay?

A

Voluntary movements from cerebral cortex origin to cerebellum

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52
Q

How does the Pons help the medulla w/ breathing?

A

Pons contains pneumotaxic and apneustic area which work in conjunction w/ medullary rhythmic area

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53
Q

What comprises the respiratory center

A

bilateral clusters in medulla and pons

Comprised of rhythmic, pneumotaxic and apneustic areas

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54
Q

Medullary rhythmic area control which specific parts of respiration?

A

Inspiration area

Expiratory area

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55
Q

Pneumotaxic and apneustic areas control what specific parts of respiration?

A

transition between inhalation and exhalation

Pneumotaxic turns off inspiratory area before lungs become full
Apneustic prolongs inhalation by stimulating inspiratory area

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56
Q

Vestibulocochlear nerve has nuclei in which two parts of the brain stem?

A

Pons and medulla

Vestibular branch: sensory axons ending in vestibular nuclei in pons (some enter cerebellum via inferior cerebellar peduncle

Cochlear: sensory axons end in nuclei in medulla oblongata

Axons of motor neurons in both branches project from pons to hair cell sin semicircular and spiral organ

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57
Q

Midbrain is also termed what?

A

Mesenchephalon

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58
Q

Function of the midbrain?

What kind of tracts are here?

A 
Connects pons to diencephalon 
Both types (like medulla and pons)
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59
Q

Function of cerebral peduncles

A

Corticospinal
Corticobulbar
Corticopontine

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60
Q

Define tectum

A

roof

two pairs of elevations called corpora quadrigemina

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61
Q

Define corpora quadrigemina

A

Superior/inferior colliculi (little hills)

Superior: reflex centers for visual reflexes and visual tracking of moving objects
Inferior: auditory reflex centers

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62
Q

What are the two visual reflexes in the Superior Colliculi

What do these two reflexes account for in one action?

A

Pupillary reflex: adjusts size of pupil
Accommodation reflex: shape of lens for close/distant vision

Involuntary turning of head when an object is seen out of the corner of an eye

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63
Q

Function of inferior colliculi

A

Relay auditory impulse from ear to thalamus

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64
Q

What reflex is located in the inferior colliculi

A

Startle reflex, involuntary head turning in response to a loud/unexpected noise

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65
Q

What are the two nuclei of the midbrain and what are their functions?

A

Substantia nigra: releases dopamine, subconscious muscle movements

Red nuclei: rich blood and iron containing pigment. Cerebellum and cerebral cortex synapses merge here to coordinate muscular movements

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66
Q

Loss of what midbrain nuclei is associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Substantia nigra

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67
Q

What muscle movements does the Red Nuclei control?

A

Babies crawling

Arm movement during walking (large muscles of shoulders and arms)

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68
Q

What spinal tract originates in the red nucleus?

Where does this tract end?

A

Rubrospinal tract

Superior thoracic region which is why this tract doesn’t have impact in lower limb movement

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69
Q

Define reticular formation

A

Small clusters of neuronal cell bodies along with bundles of myelinated axons

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70
Q

Reticular formation comprises of what kinds of neurons?

A

Sensory

Motor

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71
Q

Main function of descending neurons from reticular formation?

A

Regulate muscle tone

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72
Q

What is the function of the reticular activating system?

A

Maintain consciousness and participate in awakening from sleep

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73
Q

What is the central constricted area of the cerebellum

A

Vermis

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74
Q

What are the lateral lobes of the cerebellum called?

A

Hemispheres

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75
Q

What are the ridges/convolutions of the cerebellum called?

A

Folia

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76
Q

The cerebellar cortex is what color matter?

A

Gray

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77
Q

The white matter of the cerebral cortex forms what structure?

A

arbor vitae (tree of life)

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78
Q

Function of the cerebellar peduncles

A

White matter axons that conduct impulses between cerebellum and rest of the brain

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79
Q

Difference between Cerebral Peduncles and Cerebellar Peduncles

A

Cerebral: anterior, cerebrum->spine
Cerebellar: posterior, cerebellum->brain

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80
Q

What part of the brain regulates posture and balance?

A

Cerebellum

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81
Q

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

A

Evaluate how well movements are carried out and sending feedback to motor areas

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82
Q

Function of the Anterior and Posterior lobes of the cerebellum

A

Unconscious refinements of skeletal muscle movements

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83
Q

What is the function of the floculonodular lobe of the cerebellum

A

Equilibrium and balance

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84
Q

Define ataxia

What causes this?

A 
Inability to coordinate muscle movements
Infection
Injury
Disease 
Degenerative changes
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85
Q

Diencephalon comprises what 4 structures

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus
Subthalamus

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86
Q

Diencephalon surrounds what ventricle?

How far does it extend?

A

Third

Stem to cerebrum

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87
Q

How are the two halves of the thalamus connected?

A

Across the third ventricle by bridge of gray matter- intermediate mass

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88
Q

Function of the thalamus

A

Main relay station for most sensory impulses reaching the cerebral cortex from the spine, stem and midbrain
Regulation of autonomic activities and maintenance of consciousness

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89
Q

What is the Internal Capsule

A

Thick band of white matter

Separates thalamus and caudate nucleus from lentiform nucleus

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90
Q

Function of the hypothalamus

A

Regulator of homeostasis
Regulates the pituitary
“Bosses boss”

Control of autonomic NS
Hormone production
Emotion/behavior
Eating/drinking regulation
Body temp
Cardiac rhythms 
States of consciousness
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91
Q

Function of the mammillary bodies

A

Relay stations for reflexes related to sense of smell

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92
Q

What are some of the important parameters interpreted by the hypothalamus?

A

Glucose
Osmotic pressure
Blood temp
Hormones

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93
Q

What comprises f the epithalamus?

What do those structures do?

A

Habenular nuclei and pineal gland
Habenular: olfaction, emotional responses to odors
Pineal: secretes melatonin

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94
Q

Function of the subthalamus

A

Works with other structures to control body movement

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95
Q

Define gyrus

A

folds within the brain

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96
Q

Define sulcus

A

Shallow grooves in between gyri

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97
Q

Define fissure

Which ones are more prominent?

A

Deeper grooves in between gyri

Longitudinal- separates brain into R/L hemisphere

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98
Q

When/how are gyri and fissures formed?

A

During embryonic development when gray matter of cortex enlarges faster than the deeper white matter

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99
Q

How do the R and L hemisphere communicate?

A

Commissure called Corpus Callosum, the largest fiber bundle in the brain

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100
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the brain?

A

Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital

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101
Q

What separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

A

Central sulcus

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102
Q

What separates the frontal and temporal lobes?

A

Lateral cerebral sulcus

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103
Q

What separates the parietal lobe from the occipital lobe?

A

Pariteo-occipital sulcus

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104
Q

What are the 3 tracts in the cerebral white matter?

A

Association tract: myelinated fibers for impulses between gyri in same hemisphere

Commissural tract: myelinated fibers for impulses from gyri to gyri in opposite hemispheres(corpus callosum)

Projection tract: myelinated fibers for impulses from cerebrum to lower CNS (thalamus, stem, cord) OR from them up to CNS(internal capsule)

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105
Q

What are the 3 important commissural tracts?

A

Corpus callosum
Anterior commissure
Posterior commissure

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106
Q

What are the 3 nuclei within each cerebral hemisphere?

A

Globus pallidus
Putamen
Caudate nucleus

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107
Q

What comprises the lentiform nucleus?

A

Globus pallidus

Putamen

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108
Q

What comprises the Corpus striatum?

A

Globus pallidus
Putamen
Caudate nucleus

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109
Q

What does the internal capsule separate?

Where is it located?

A

Caudate nucleus of basal ganglia and the thalamus separated from lentiform nucleus of the basal ganglia

Lateral to the thalamus

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110
Q

What does the lentiform nucleus consist of?

A

Putamen and globus pallidus

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111
Q

What does the basal ganglia help regulate?

A

Initiation and termination of movement
Controls inconscient (unconcious) contractions
Muscle tone
Action selection- decision when several possible behaviors to execute at a given time

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112
Q

What are the two movement disorders the basal ganglia is involved with?

A

Parkinsons- melanin-pigment dopamine producing neurons degenerate

Huntingtons- damage to corpus striatum

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113
Q

Damage to basal ganglia causes what three signs?

Damage to the basal ganglia has also been associated to what two conditions?

A

tremors
stiffness
involuntary movements

OCD and ADHD

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114
Q

Define limbic system

A

Emotional brain

Emotions, pain, pleasure, docility, affection and anger

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115
Q

The cerebral structures of the limbic system encircle what part of the brain?

A

Upper part of brain stem

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116
Q

What are the main components of the limbic system?

A 
Hippocampus
Anygdala
Limbic lobe
Dentate gyrus
Cingulate gyrus
Hypothalamus mammillary bodies
Anterior/medial nuclei of thalamus
Olfactory bulbs
Fornix
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117
Q

Function of the hippocampus

A

Converting new info to long-term memories

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118
Q

Function of the amygdala

A

Behavior patterns- docile, rage, presence/absence of fear/aggression and restlessness

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119
Q

Function and location of Cingulate gyrus

A

Superior to corpus callosum
Limbic system- emotion formation, learning and memory
Coordinates sensory input with emotions, regulates aggression and mediates emotional response to pain

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120
Q

Function and location of Fornix

A

Band of nerve fibers extending from hippocampus to mamillary body of hypothalamus, forming arch over thalamus

Carries signals from hippocampus to hypothalamus, transfer of info from mammillary body of limbic system to hippocampus

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121
Q

Hippocampus is critical for the formation of what two types of memories?

A

Autobiographical

Fact

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122
Q

What happens when the hippocampus is damages?

A

Anterograde amnesia- loss/inability to form new memories while preserving old memories

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123
Q

What part of the brain is termed the “executive suite” of the NS?

A

Cerebral cortex

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124
Q

What is the function of the cerebral cortex?

A

Allows us to communicate, perceive, remember, understand, appreciate, and initiate voluntary movements.

Seat of consiousness

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125
Q

What kind of matter comprises the cerebral cortex?

A

Gray matter only
Neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons plus glia and blood vessels

NO fiber tracts

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126
Q

What are the 3 generalizations of the cerebral cortex?

A

Contralateral concerning
Symmetrical hemispheres in size, not function
No functional area of the cortex acts alone

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127
Q

What are the 3 general areas of the cerebral cortex?

A

Sensory- receive/interpret sensory impulses
Motor- initiate movement
Association- communicate w/ motor cortex and other association areas (analyze, recognize and act on sensory inputs)

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128
Q

Define Primary sensory areas

A

receive nerve impulses from sensory neurons without prior filtering/analysis

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129
Q

Define Primary motor areas

A

originators of voluntary muscular contractions

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130
Q

Define Association area

A

includes cortical areas that do not have word “primary” in their name. Receive input from primary areas, integrate sensory experiences to generate meaningful recognition/awareness

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131
Q

Where does speech originate from in the brain?

A

Broca’s area

Planning and production takes place, impulses sent to premotor regions that control muscles of larynx, pharynx and mouth

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132
Q

Function of Wernicke’s Area

A

Interprets meaning of speech by recognizing words

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133
Q

Define Aphasia

A

Inability to use or comprehend words

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134
Q

Where are Broca and Wernicke’s area located?

A

L cerebral hemisphere, regardless if R or L handed

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135
Q

What causes Non-Fluent Aphasia

A

Damage to Broca’s area

Know what they want to say but can not speak it

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136
Q

What causes Fluent Aphasia?

A

Damage to Wernicke’s area
Faulty understanding of spoken or written words
Words put together but no combined meaning (word salad)

Word deafness (inability to understand spoken words)
Word blindness(inability to understand written words)
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137
Q

L hemisphere has greater control of what functions?

A

Language
Math
Logic

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138
Q

R hemisphere has greater control of what functions?

A

Visual-spacial
Intuition
Emotion
Ar/music appreciation

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139
Q

Define hemispheric lateralization

A

functional asymmetry of R/L hemisphere control

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140
Q

Sequence of events in Alzheimers

A 
Difficulty remembering recent events
Confusion/forgetful- repeating questions or getting lost in familiar areas
Disorientation and loss of memories
Loss ability to read, walk, eat, talk
Death attributed to complications
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141
Q

What 3 findings in autopsy of Alzheimers

A

Loss of neurons that secrete Ach
Destruction of neurons in nucleus basalis (hallmark)
Beta-amyloid plaques- protein deposits outside of neurons
Neurofibrillary tangles- abnormal bundles of protein filaments inside neurons

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142
Q

Define concussion

A

brain injury characteried by abrupt/temporary loss of consciousness, vision disturbances, equilibrium problems
MOST COMMON brain injury

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143
Q

Define contusion

A

Bruising of the brain from trauma

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144
Q

Define free radical

A

charged molecule w/ unpaired valence e-

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145
Q

Define hematoma

A

localized pool of blood, clotted

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146
Q

Define hypoxia

A

O2 deprivation

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147
Q

Define Ischemia

A

localized reduction of blood flow

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148
Q

Define laceration

A

Tear of the brain, bleeding follows

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149
Q

Define necrosis/necrotic

A

Pathologic death of living tissue

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150
Q

Define cerebrovascular accident

A

Loss of brain function characterized by abrupt onset of neurological symptoms due to destruction of brain tissue

Common cause: intracerebral hemorrhage, emboli and atherosclerosis of cerebral arteries
AKA stroke

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151
Q

Define Transient Ischemic Attack

A

temporary cerebral dysfunction caused by impaired blood to brain

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152
Q

Define brain tumor

A

Abnormal growth of tissue in brain

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153
Q

Define ADHD

A

Learning disorder characterized by poor or short attention span
Hyperactivity
Age inappropriate impulsiveness

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154
Q

Define agnosia

A

inability to recognize significance of sensory stimuli

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155
Q

Define apraxia

A

inability to carry out purposeful movements in absence of paralysis

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156
Q

Define lethargy

A

Functional sluggishness

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157
Q

Define Reyes Syndrome

A

Potentially fatal
Brain and liver involvement after viral infection (chicken pox or influenza) usually in teens/kids who have taken aspirin

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158
Q

Define stupor

A

unresponsiveness from PT w/ only brief arousal after vigorous and repeated stimulation

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159
Q

What are the two cranial nerves that only contain sensory neurons?

A

1 and 2

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160
Q

What cranial nerve is predominantly sensory?

A

7 vestibulocochlear

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161
Q

What are the 3 sensory nerves?

A

1 2 7

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162
Q

What are the cranial nerves that are called motor nerves?

A

3 4 6 12

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163
Q

Since cranial nerves can be exclusively motor, so the general principle is that the sensory functions of the motor nerves is ?

A

Proprioception of muscles

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164
Q

What are the mixed nerves?

A

5 7 9 10

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165
Q

What 2 cranial nerves innervate a single muscle only?

A

4- superior oblique

6- lateral rectus

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166
Q

All motor cranial nerves have neurons that innervate _____ muscles

A

somatic (skeletal)

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167
Q

What motor cranial nerves also have autonomic motor axons?? What part of the NS do these axons belong to and what is their function?

A

3 7 9 10

PNS, innervate glands, smooth and cardiac muscles

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168
Q

What does in-situ mean?

A

as they are “in place”

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169
Q

How do olfactory axon receptors reach into the brain?

A

Through the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

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170
Q

What is the loss of smell called?

A

Anosmia

171
Q

How are impulses conveyed from the eye?

A

Rods/cones to bipolar cells to ganglion cells in retina

172
Q

What is the sequence of anatomical structures behind the eye?

A

Axons of ganglion to optic nerves to optic chiasm to optic tract

173
Q

What movements does CN 3 control?

A

Ciliary muscles in lens
Sphincter pupillae (iris)
Levator palpebrae

174
Q

What are the unique facts of CN 4

A

Smallest CN

Only nerve to arise from posterior aspect of brainstem

175
Q

What muscle does CN 4 control and what type of movement does the allow?

A

Superior oblique

Inferior and lateral

176
Q

Having a PT follow a moving object w/ eyes tests which of the CN?

A

3 4 6

177
Q

What is the origin and unique fact of CN 5?

A

Pons

Largest CN

178
Q

What does CN 5 provide?

A

Sensory to face, head and anterior 2/3 of tongue

Mastication

179
Q

What are the two roots of CN 5

A

Smallest- motor, mastication

Largest- sensory, ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular nerves (dermatome)

180
Q

Which nerve is targeted by dentists for procedures?

A

Maxillary nerve of CN 5

181
Q

What CN is tested with the corneal reflex?

A

Ophthalmic nerve of CN 5

182
Q

What does CN 6 control and what type of movement does this allow?

A

Lateral rectus muscle

abduction away from midline

183
Q

What does CN 7 control?

A

Somatic: Facial expression, Stylohyoid, Posterior belly of digastric, Stapedius muscle

PNS: lacrimal, nasal and saliva glands, taste of anterior 2/3 of tongue

184
Q

What are the branches of CN 7

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Mandibular
Cervical
185
Q

What are the two functions of CN 8

A

Vestibular- equilibrium

Cochlear- hearing impulses

186
Q

What function does CN 9 provide?

A

Sensory to posterior 1/3 of tongue for taste and sensation
Baroreceptors in carotid sinus
Chemoreceptors in carotid bodies
Motor fibers to parotid gland

187
Q

Having PT open mouth, protrude tongue and say AAHHH tests what CNs?

A

9 and 10

188
Q

Functions of CN 10

A 
Sensory: 
taste
touch
pain
temp
proprioception of epiglottis and pharynx
BP
O2/CO2

Somatic:
swallow
cough
voice production

Autonomic:
GI contract/relax
Slowing heart rate
Digestive fluid secretion

189
Q

Hyperactivity of what nerve can lead to stomach ulcers/GURD? How is this fixed?

A 
CN 10, vagus
Selective vagotomy (r/l gastric nerve severed)
190
Q

Where does CN 11 originate from?

A

Both brain stem and spinal cord
Called spinal accessory
Only CN w/ spinal cord component

191
Q

What functions does CN 11 control?

A

Swallowing

Trapezius/sternocleidomastoid usage

192
Q

Function of CN 12

A

Innervate all intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles, EXCEPT palatoglossus, during speech and swallowing

193
Q

What muscles are used for protruding the tongue?

A

Genioglossi muscles

194
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and end?

A

Continuation of medulla oblongata

Ends as the Conus Medullaris between L1 and L2

195
Q

What is the singular term for meninges?

A

Meninx

196
Q

What are the 3 meninges of the spinal cord?

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia Mater

197
Q

How far does the spine’s dura mater extend?

A

Sac from foramen magnum to second sacral vertebrae

198
Q

Where does the epidural space exist?

What does it contain?

A

Between dura mater and wall of vertebral canal

Fat and CT

199
Q

Where is the subdural space?

What does it contain?

A

Between dura mater and arachnoid mater

Contains interstitial fluid

200
Q

Where is the subarachnoid space?

What is it filled with?

A

Between arachnoid and pia mater

Filled w/ CSF

201
Q

What does the pia mater contain?

A

Blood vessels for O2 and nutrient supply

202
Q

What protects the spinal cord from sudden displacement and suspends it within it’s dural sheath?

A

Denticulate ligaments- membranous extensions of pia mater that fuse w/ arachnoid mater and inner surface of dura mater

203
Q

How is the arachnoid mater connected to the pia mater?

A

Arachnoid trabeculae

204
Q

What is the conus medullaris

A

Where the spine tapers into a conical shape

Occurs inferior to lumbar enlargement at L1/L2

205
Q

How does the spinal cord get anchored to the coccyx

A

Filum terminale

Extension of pia mater from conus medullaris to the coccyx

206
Q

Define cauda equina

How far does it extend

A

horse’s tail
Fine strands of nerves that branch from column and are before leaving the column

Lumbar
Sacral
Coccygeal

207
Q

Where is a spinal tap done?

A

L3/L4 or L4/L5

Into subarachnoid space

208
Q

What are the reasons for doing a spinal tap?

A 
Withdraw CSF
Introduce ABX
Introduce contrast 
Introduce anesthetics
Administer chemo
Measure CSF pressure
209
Q

How many axon bundles connect each spinal nerve?

A

2 bundles connect each nerve to a cord segment

210
Q

When in the spine, bundles are called ____ and axons are called ____

A 
bundles= roots
axons= rootlets
211
Q

What are the two spinal roots

A

Posterior (dorsal)

Anterior (ventral)

212
Q

What are the posterior/anterior roots containing?

A

Post root ganglion- sensory

Anterior root and rootlets- motor neurons

213
Q

What shape does the gray matter in the spinal cord make?

A

H for butterfly, surrounded by white matter

Gray commissure forms crossbar of the H

214
Q

What are the make up of the parts of the gray H in the spinal cord?

A

Anterior horns- somatic motor neurons and motor nuclei for skeletal muscle contraction

Posterior horns- Somatic and autonomic sensory nuclei

215
Q

The central canal within the spinal cord extends how far?

A

Continuous w/ 4th ventricle of medulla oblongata of the brain

216
Q

What do the lateral gray horns of the spinal column contain?

A

Cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons for regulation activity of smooth and cardiac muscles and glands

217
Q

Where/how far down are gray horns present in the spine?

A

Only in thoracic and upper lumber

T1-L3 and S2-4

218
Q

What is the overall functional aspect of the spinal cord gray matter?

A

Receives and integrates incoming/outgoing information

219
Q

What are the purposes of the cervical and lumbar enlargements?

A

Accommodate nerves to/from upper and lower limbs

220
Q

What are the S/Sx of polio onset?

A

Fever
Stiff neck/back
Severe headache
Deep muscle pain/weakness

221
Q

How does the Polio virus effect the body?

How can this cause death?

A

Destroys cell bodies of motor neuron in anterior horns of spinal cord and nuclei of cranial nerves
Respiratory/heart failure

222
Q

The anterior/posterior gray horns of the spine divide the white matter into what 3 broad columns?

A

Anterior
Posterior
Lateral

223
Q

What are bundles of myelinated axons called?

A

tracts

Common origin or destination and carry similar info

224
Q

Spinal nerves and nerves branching from it are a part of what nervous system?

A

PNS

225
Q

What connects the CNS to PNS?

A

Spinal nerves (31 pairs)

226
Q

Where does the first cervical pair of spinal nerves emerge from?

A

Between occipital bone and atlas

All other emerge from intervertebral foramina

227
Q

How are spinal nerves named?

A 
C1-8
T1-12
L1-5
S1-5
Co1
228
Q

Most spinal nerves exit the cord where with what exception?

A

Inferior to the vertebra of the same number

C1- exits superior to atlas

229
Q

Spinal cord growth occurs until what age?

A

4-5y/o

230
Q

How do spinal nerves emerge, join and extend?

A

Emerge from dorsal/ventral surfaces of cord
Converge to form dorsal/vetral roots
Nerve roots unite at points of exit from vertebral canal to form spinal nerve
Spinal nerve splits into dorsal/ventral primary ramus

231
Q

What are the layers of CT coverings in the spinal nerves?

A

Endoneurium- individual axon covering
Perineurium- covers fascicles
Epineurium covers entire nerve

232
Q

Define ramus

A

Branches of nerves after passing through intervertebral foramen

233
Q

The ___ are the terminal branches of the spinal nerves

A

Rami

234
Q

The posterior ramus innervates what parts of the body?

Anterior ramus?

A

Post: Deep muscles and skin of dorsal surface of the trunk
Ant: muscles and structures of upper/lower limbs, skin of lateral and ventral surfaces of trunk

235
Q

What is the function of the meningeal branch of each spinal nerve?

A

Reenters the vertebral canal to supply vertebrae and structures

236
Q

What is the function of the rami communicantes

A

Contribute to trunk ganglia of autonomic NS

237
Q

Define plexus

What region of the spine does not have a plexus?

A

Network of axons of paired anterior rami

Thoracic

238
Q

What composes the intercostal nerves?

A

Anterior rami of T2-12

239
Q

Anterior rami of thoracic nerves connect/supply where?

A

Intercostal muscles
Abdominal muscles
Skin above previously mentioned muscles

240
Q

Posterior rami of the intercostal nerves supply what/where?

A

Deep back muscles and skin posterior to thorax

241
Q

Plexuses contain what types of neurons?

A

Motor and sensory

242
Q

Plexus roots come from where?

What forms trunks of plexuses?

A

Roots- arise from spinal cord

Trunks- formed by union of roots (only in brachial plexus)

243
Q

What are the 3 trunks plexuses in the brachial plexus?

How are they further subdivided?

A

Superior
Middle
Inferior

Anterior and posterior

244
Q

Function of the cervical plexus?

A

Supplies skin and muscles of head, neck, superior shoulders/chest and diaphragm

245
Q

Where do the phrenic nerves arise from?

What do they supply?

A

Cervical plexuses

Supply motor fibers of diaphragm

246
Q

What does the brachial plexus supply?

A

Shoulder and upper limbs

247
Q

Where does the radial nerve arise and what is it’s function?

A

Brachial plexus

Supplies muscles to posterior arm/forearm

248
Q

How do you know if the radial nerve is injured?

How does this occur?

A

Wrist drop- inability to extend wrist and fingers

Can occur from improperly administered IM injection in deltoid or from cast applied too tightly on mid-humerus

249
Q

What does the lumbar plexus supply?

A

Anterolateral abdominal wall
External genitals
Lower limbs

250
Q

What does the sacral plexus supply?

A

Buttocks
Perineum
Lower limbs

251
Q

What happens during sciatic nerve injury?

A

Largest nerve in the body
2 nerves connected by CT arising from sacral plexus

Injury causes sciatica- pain down buttock to posterior and lateral leg and foot

252
Q

What does the sciatic nerve supply?

A

Muscles of leg, foot and toes

253
Q

What types of injuries can cause sciatica?

A

Disc herniation
Dislocated hip
Pregnancy
Improperly administered IM injection

254
Q

Define cutaneous sensations

A

Sensation that arises in skin

Includes tactile sensations (touch, pressure, vibration, ticking) thermal (warm, cold) and pain sensations

255
Q

What are the two maps of conveying cutaneous sensations towards the CNS?

A

Dermatomes
Peripheral nerve fields (cutaneous nerves)

Map difference due to plexuses

256
Q

Adjacent dermatomes typically overlap except for where?

A

Axial line

257
Q

What causes shingles?

A

Acute infection of PNS caused by herpes zoster virus (chicken pox)

258
Q

Where does shingles remain dormant in the body?

Where does it travel when it emerges?

A

Posterior root ganglion

Along sensory neurons by fast axonal transport

259
Q

What are the two principal functions of the spinal cord in maintenance of homeostasis?

A

Nerve impulse propagation

Information integration

260
Q

What does gray and white matter doe with impulses during homeostasis maintenance?

A

Gray- receives and integrates incoming/outgoing info

White- carry sensory impulses towards brain and motor impulses away from brain

261
Q

How are tracts named?

A

By 3 things:
the position within the white matter
Beginning and end
Extension, direction of flow

262
Q

Define discriminative touch

A

Ability to feel exactly what part of the body is being touched

263
Q

Define 2 point discrimination

A

Ability to distinguish between touch of two different points on skin that are close together

264
Q

Motor output to skeletal muscles travels down the cord in what two types of descending pathways

A

Direct

Indirect

265
Q

Define direct pathways
What do they carry
What tracts are included?

A

Originate in cerebral cortex
Precise, voluntary movement of skeletal muscles

Includes lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

266
Q

Define indirect pathways

A

Originate in brain stem or part of brain with autonomic control
Coordinate movement w/ visual stimuli, maintain skeletal tone and contraction of postural muscles, regulate tone in response to head movements

Includes: 
Rubrospinal
Tectospinal
Vestibulospinal
Lateral reticulospinal
Medial reticulospinal tracts
267
Q

Define reflex

A

fast, involuntary, unplanned sequence of actions in response to stimuli

268
Q

What are the 2 types of reflexes

A

Innate (inborn)

learned

269
Q

The type of a reflex is based on the site of integration, what are the two sites?

A

Spinal- gray matter

Cranial- brain stem

270
Q

Somatic reflexes involve contraction of ___ muscles compared to a visceral reflex what involves what type of muscles

A

Skeletal

Smooth, cardiac and glands

271
Q

Dermatomes are only associated with what sense?

A

sensory

272
Q

Reflex arc aka ?

A

Reflex circuit

273
Q

What are the five functional components of the reflex arcs?

A 
Sensory receptor
Sensory neuron
Integrating center
Motor neuron
Effector
274
Q

Sensory receptor responds to a specific stimulus by producing what?

A

Graded potential called generator (receptor) potential

275
Q

The integrating center is comprised of what type of matter?

A

Gray spinal cord matter

276
Q

Define monosynaptic arc

A

integrating center of one synapse between sensory neuron and motor neuron, simplest refelx

277
Q

What type of reflex arc is the stretch reflex (patellar reflex)
What is the opposite reflex?

A

Monosynaptic, ipsilateral

Polysynaptic, interneuron of reciprocal innervation

278
Q

Define Westphal’s Sign

A

Correlation of the absence or decrease of patellar reflex/knee jerk

Sign of receptor damage or lesion of dorsal column of spinal cod or cerebellum
Lesion on motor cortex of pyramid tracts
Motor impulse transmission in femoral nerve

279
Q

What kind of reflex is the tendon reflex?

A

Polysynaptic, ipsilateral reflex

280
Q

Where are tension receptors located?

A

Golgi tendon organs located in tendons at the MSJ of skeletal muscles

281
Q

What are the 3 phases of the tendon reflex?

A

Tendon stretches and activates tension receptors

Inhibitory neuron stimulated

Motor neuron is hyperpolarized and muscle relaxes

282
Q

Stretch reflex involves muscle spindles which are ________ located in ___ muscles

A

proprioceptors

skeletal

283
Q

Tendon reflex involves ____ organs which are located where?

A

tendon

tendons at the junction of the tendon and the muscle

284
Q

What does the tendon reflex prevent

A

Application of excessive force to muscle/tendon by causing relaxation

285
Q

What does the stretch reflex prevent?

A

Prevents over stretching of a muscle by causing contraction

286
Q

Define flexor (withdrawal) reflex

A

Ipsilateral

Protective withdrawal reflex that moves a limb to avoid pain (aka nociceptive withdrawal reflex)

287
Q

Stretch reflex is ____innvervation

A

reciprocal

288
Q

Define crossed extensor reflex

A

Contralateral
Maintains balance during flexor reflex by causing synchronized extension of joints of one limb and flexion of joints in the opposite limb

289
Q

Example sequence of events fo flexor (withdrawal) reflex

A

Pain fibers send signal to spine
Interneurons branch to different spine segments
Motor fibers in several segments activated
Multiple muscle groups activated to lift foot

290
Q

Example sequence of events during crossed extensor reflex

A

Lifting R foot req’s extension of L leg to maintain balance
Pain signals cross to opposite side of spinal cord
Contralateral extensors stimulated by interneurons to hold up body weight
Reciprocal innervation occurs

291
Q

Define reciprocal innervation

A

when extensors contract,

flexors relax

292
Q

Define Babinski sign

A

Dorsiflexion of great toe w/ or w/out fanning of other toes

293
Q

When is Babinski’s sign normal and abnormal

A

Normal- Children under 18mon due to incomplete myelination of fibers in corticospinal tract

Abnormal- present after 18mon
Indicates interruption of corticospinal tract due to lesion

294
Q

What is a “normal” Babinski response after 18mon of age?

A

Curling of toes

295
Q

Define Clasp Knife reflex

A

Stretch reflex w/ rapid decrease in resistance when attempting to flex joint
Characteristic response of upper motor neuron lesion, indicating damage to a pyramidal tract

Spastic limb resists passive motion then suddenly gives way

296
Q

What happens to muscles with presence of an upper motor neuron lesion

A

Muscle tonus increased
Resistance of muscle to stretch increase
With enough applied force, limb resistance suddenly decreases

297
Q

Hyperactive reflexes suggest ?

Decreased reflexes are found ?

A

CNS disease

Damage to relevant spine segments
Muscle diseases
NMJ diseases
Loss of sensation

298
Q

Define monoplegia

A

Paralysis of one limb only

299
Q

Define diplegia

A

Paralysis of both upper/lower limbs

300
Q

Define paraplegia

A

Paralysis of both lower limbs

301
Q

Define hemiplegia

A

Paralysis of both upper limbs, trunk and lower limb on one body side

302
Q

Define hemisection

A

Partial transection of spinal cord on either side

303
Q

Define areflexia

A

loss of reflex function

304
Q

Define myelitis

A

inflammation of spinal cord

305
Q

Define myelography

A

CT or Xray of spine taken after injection of radiopaque dye to diagnose tumors/herniations

306
Q

Define neuralgia

A

attacks of pain along entire/branch of sensory nerve

307
Q

Define neuritis

A

inflammation of one or several nerves

308
Q

Define parasthesia

A

Abnormal sensation resulting from disorder of sensory nerve

309
Q

Most input to ANS comes from what type of receptors?

A

Interoceptors
Chemoreceptors
Mechanoreptors

310
Q

How does the ANS regulate visceral activities?

A

Excite or inhibit activities of effector tissues

311
Q

What is the difference between skeletal and ANS tissues?

A

Unlike skeletal, ANS tissues have intrinsic function that enables them to continue to operate with damaged nerve supply

312
Q

ANS motor pathways consists of __ motor neurons in series

A

2

313
Q

Define ANS pre-ganglionic neuron

A

First neuron with cell body in CNS and myelinated axon extending from CNS to autonomic ganglion

2nd- cell body in ganglion, unmelinated axon extends from ganglion to effector= post-ganglionic neuron

314
Q

All pre ganglionic neurons are

All post ganglionic neuron are

A

myelinated

unmyelinated

315
Q

Somatic motor neurons only release ___

Autonomic motor neurons release ___ or ____

A

AcH

AcH or NorEpi

316
Q

What are the two parts of the motor part of the ANS

A

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

317
Q

What does it mean for an organ to have dual innervation

A

Receive impulses from both para/symp

318
Q

Autonomic motor pathways consist of what two neurons?

A

Preganglionic

Postganglionic

319
Q

Where are preganglionic neuron cell body’s located?

Where do their axons exist?

A

Body: Brain and Spinal cord
Axon: CNS in cranial or spinal nerves

320
Q

Where do preganglionic nuerons convey impulses to/from?

A

From CNS to autonomic ganglia

321
Q

What is the first and secondary motor motor neuron

A

First: preganglionic neuron
Second: postganglionic

322
Q

Where are postganglionic neuron body and dendrite located?

A

Body and dendrite located in autonomic ganglion

323
Q

Where do postganglionic neurons relay impulses to/from

A

From autonomic ganglia to visceral effectors

324
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division have their cell bodies located where?

A

Lateral gray horns of the 12 thoracic and first 2 lumbar segments

325
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division have their cell bodies located where?

A

Nuclei of CN 3 7 9 10

Lateral gray horns of 2-4 sacral segments

326
Q

Sympathetic ganglia are the sites of synapses between what two neurons

A

Between sympathetic pre and postganglion neurons

327
Q

What are the two major types of sympathetic ganglia

A

Sympathetic trunk ganglia

Prevertebral ganglia

328
Q

Sypathetic trunk ganglia are aka?

A

Vertebral Chain Ganglia

Paravertebral Ganglia

329
Q

Sympathetic trunk preganglionic axons are how long?

A

Short

Same as prevertebral axons

330
Q

Sympathetic trunk postganglionic axons mostly innervate organs above _____

A

Diaphragm

331
Q

Sympathetic trunk postganglionic axons are how long?

A

Fairly long

Same as preganglionic axons

332
Q

Prevertebral ganglia are ___ to the vertebral column and lie close to ______

A

anterior

large abdominal arteries

333
Q

Prevertebral postganglionic axons mostly innervate organs below ____

A

Diaphragm

334
Q

What are the 5 major prevertebral ganglia

A 
Celiac
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric
Aorticorenal
Renal
335
Q

Most terminal ganglia of parasympathetic ganglia are located close to or within where?

A

Wall of visceral organ

336
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic axons are typically ____ and postganglionic axons are _____

A

Long

Short

337
Q

Parasympathetic ganglia of the head have what four specific names?

A

Ciliary
Pterygopalatine
Submandibular
Otic

338
Q

Parasympathetic spanchnic nerves extend to _____

A

viscera

339
Q

How and where do axons of parasympathetic neurons extend to parasympathetic postganglionic neurons in terminal ganglia?

A

Colon walls
Bladder
Reproductive organs
Via splanchnic nerves

340
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons arriving at sympathetic trunk ganglia connect w/ postganglionic neurons by what 4 ways?

A

Synapsing in first ganglion it reaches
A/descending before synapsing
Continuing to prevertebral ganglion and synapsing
Extend to chromaffin cells of adrenal meudllae

341
Q

Parasympathetic ganglia are often called ___ ganglia

A

Terminal

342
Q

Define divergent projection pattern and what does this phenomenon explain

A

Sympathetic pregangionic fibers w/ many axon collaterals that synapse with 20 or more postganglionic neurons

Explains why sympathetic responses affect most of body simultaneously

343
Q

Postganglionic axons of the sympathetic division usually terminate where?

A

In several effectors after leaving ganglia

344
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons have ___ axon collaterals while sympathetic preganglionic fibers have ___ axon collaterals

A

Symp. Pre- many

Para. Pre- few

345
Q

What explains why parasympathetic responses are localized to a single effector?

A

Few axon collaterals and synapse with limited postganglionic neurons in the same visceral effector

346
Q

Where do parasympathetic postganglion axons terminate?

A

Same effector after leaving ganglia

347
Q

What two systems for to make an autonomic plexus?

A

Symp and Parasymp NS

348
Q

Where are autonomic plexuses present?

A

Thorax- cardiac/pulmonayr
Abdomen- celicac, sup/inf mesenteric
Pelvis- hypogastric and renal
Lie along major arteries

349
Q

Visceral afferent fibers are commonly present where?

A

Autonomic plexuses

350
Q

Characteristics of cardiac plexus

A

Base of heart surrounding large blood vessels that emerge from heart

Contributed by BOTH pre and post ganglionic parasym. nerves

351
Q

Characteristics of pulmonary plexus

A

Posterior to lungs
Symp= bronchi dilation
Para= constriction and secretion

352
Q

Characteristics of celiac plexus

A

AKA solar plexus
Largest autonomic plexus surrounding celiac and superior mesenteric arteries
Located at last thoracic/first lumbar vertebrae

353
Q

Characteristics of Sup/Inf mesenteric plexus

A

Sup- small and large intestine

Inf- large intestine

354
Q

Characteristics of hypogastric plexus

A

Supplies pelvic viscera- bladder and genitals

355
Q

Characteristics of renal plexus

A

Supplies renal arteries in kidneys and ureters

356
Q

Where are sympathetic preganglionic neurons located?

A

Lateral horns of all thoracic and first 2 or 3 lumbar vertebrae

357
Q

How do the myelinated axons of the symp. preganglions enter an adjoining paravertebral ganglion

A

Through white ramus communicans

358
Q

Where does sympathetic outflow only occur?

A

All of thoracic and first 2 lumbar vertebrae

359
Q

Describe cervical ganglia

A

Symp preganglion fibers serving head and neck
Emerge from T1-6 and synapse w/ postganglion nerves in cervical ganglia (superior, middle and inferior cervical ganglion)

360
Q

Where do superior cervical ganglion postganglionic sympathetic fiber supply?

A

Head
Heart

Sweat, salivary, pineal, lacrimal glands
Eye smooth muscle
Heart
Facial vessels

361
Q

What region receives the most of the sympathetic preganglionic axons

A

Thoracic

362
Q

What do thoracic postganglia fibers supply?

A 
Heart
Lungs
Bronchi
Sweat glands
Blood vessels
Arrectores muscles
363
Q

Axons leave sympathetic trunk in 4 ways

A

Enter spinal nerves
Cephalic periarterial nerves
Sympathetic nerves
Splanchnic nerves

364
Q

How do unmyelinated postganglionic axons connect to ganglia of sympathetic trunk to spinal nerves

A

gray ramus communications

365
Q

Gray ramus communications are associated with all ______ nerves

A

Spinal

White only associated with thoracic and first 3 lumbar

366
Q

Where do cephalic periarterial nerves supply sympathetic innervation to?

A

Skin of the face(sweat, vessels, arrectores pilorum muscles)

Visceral effectors of head (eye muscles, lacrimal/pineal/salivary glands, nasal mucosa)

367
Q

Postganglionic neurons form sympathetic nerves that extend to visceral effector in thoracic cavity to provide ?

A

Heart
Sup, middle, inf cervical ganglia
1-4th thoracic ganglia
Lung/bronchi smooth muscles

368
Q

What happens to the sympathetic preganglionic neurons that pass through the trunk without terminating?

A

For splanchnic nerves that generally extend to prevertebral ganglia

369
Q

Postganglionic neurons of the greater splanchnic nerve supply ?
What does the lesser splanchnic nerve supply?

A 
Liver
Stomach
Spleen 
Small intestine
Kidney

Lesser: Small intestine and colon

370
Q

What does the lumbar splanchnic nerve innervate?

A

Colon
Rectum
Genitals
Bladder

371
Q

Where are paraymp. pregang. neuron cell bodies found?

A

Nuclei in brain stem

Lateral horns of 2-4 sacral segments

372
Q

What does the parasympathetic outflow consist of?

A

Preganglionic axons from brain stem in 4 cranial nerves

373
Q

What does the sacral parasympathetic outflow consist of?

A

Preganglionic axons in anterior roots of the 2-4 sacral spinal nerves

374
Q

How do aparasymp. pregang. neuron axons end?

A

Myelinated and end in terminal ganglia near the organ they innervate

375
Q

Where doe the ciliary ganglia associate with?

A

CN3

376
Q

What does the pterygopalatine ganglia associate with?

A

CN 7

377
Q

What does the submandibular ganglia associate with?

A

CN 7

378
Q

What does the otic ganglia associate with?

A

CN 9

379
Q

80% of total craniosacral outflow is carried by what axons?

A

Preganglionic axons part of CN 10

380
Q

What forms the pelvic splanchnic nerves

A

Preganglionic neurons of sacral parasympathetic outflow

381
Q

Autonomic neurons are classified into what two groups based on what?

A

Neurotransmitter released
Cholinergic- releases ACh
Adrenergic- norepi (aka noradrenalin)

382
Q

Cholinergic neurons includes what neurons?

A

All para/sympathetic preganglionic neurons
All Parasympathetic prostaglandin nuerons
Symp. postgang. that innervate sweat glands
Somatic nervous system motor neurons

383
Q

Sympathetic postgangleon neurons release

A

norepi

384
Q

Sympathetic sweat glands that innervate sweat glands releases ?

A

ACh

385
Q

Adrenergic neurons are most ____ _____ neurons

A

sympathetic postganglionic neurons

386
Q

Receptors for neurotransmitters are what type of proteins?

A

Integral membrane proteins located in plasma membrane of post-synaptic neuron/effector cell

387
Q

All cholinergic receptor bind to ____

A

ACh

388
Q

What are the two types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic- nicotine mimics action of ACh by binding to this receptor

Muscarinic- muschroom poison muscarine binds and mimics ACh

No cross activation, both activated by ACh

389
Q

What happens when a nicotinic receptor is activated?

A

ACh causes depolarization (excitation) of post-synaptic cell

Postganglionic neuron
Skeletal muscle fibers

390
Q

What happens when muscarinic receptors are activated?

A

Depolarization and sometime hyperpolarization (inhibition)

Smooth muscle sphincters of GI tract- relax
ACh in eye sphincters- contraction

391
Q

Activation of muscarinic receptors causes ____ syndrome

A 
Defecation
Urination
Miosis
Bronchoconstriction
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
392
Q

All adrenergic receptors bind to ____ and _____

A

norepi

epi

393
Q

How are adrenergic receptors activated?

A

Norepi- symp. postgang neuron

Epi- hormones in blood by adrenal medulla

394
Q

What are the two types of adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha (1, 2)

Beta (1, 2)

395
Q

Activation of subscript 1 receptors (a1 and b1) is what type of response?
What is activation by subscript 2?

A 
1= excitatory
2= inhibitory
396
Q

Where is B3 receptors found?

A

Only in cells of brown adipose tissue where activation causes thermogenesis

397
Q

When/how does norepi activity end?

A

Reuptake

Enzyme incativation: COMT or MAO

398
Q

How/why does norepi effects remainin action longer?

A

linger in synaptic cleft longer than ACh

399
Q

Define agonist

A

substance that binds to receptor and triggers a response

400
Q

Define antagonist

A

binds to receptor and blocks receptor from activation by agonist

401
Q

Define partial agonist

A

activates receptor but does not cause physiological change

402
Q

Where are B1 receptors found?

A

Heart

403
Q

Why are Beta blockers used?

A

Adrenergic blockers that attach to B1 receptors

404
Q

Where are A1 receptors located?

A

blood vessels of all sympathetic target organs EXCEPT heart

405
Q

What happens when adrenalin binds w/ A1 receptors?

A

Vessels and visceral sphincters contract

Pupils dilate

406
Q

When/why are alpha blockers used?

A

Block A1 receptors, relaxing muscles that constrict vessles

407
Q

Define autonomic tone

What regulates it

A

balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic activity

Regulated by hypothalamus

408
Q

What are some structures that receive ONLY sympathetic innervation?

A 
Sweat glands
Adrenal glands
Arrector muscles
Kidneys
Spleen
Blood vessels
409
Q

Why is the sympathetic division called the E division?

A

Exercise
Excitement
Emergency
Embarrassment

410
Q

Sympathetic activation has what impact on metabolic processes?

A

Constrict abdominal viscera

Glycogenolysis

411
Q

What is the acronym to sum up the parasympathetic responses?

A 
SLUDD
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Digestion
Defecation
412
Q

Overall components of an autonomic reflex arc are the same as _________

A 
Somatic reflex arc
Sensory receptor
Sensory neuron
Integrating center
Motor Neuron
Effector
413
Q

Where is the receptor in an autonomic reflex?

A

Distal end of a sensory neuron

414
Q

Autonomic sensory receptors are generally what type of receptor?

A

Interoceptor

415
Q

Cell bodies of visceral sensory organs are located where?

A

Sensory ganglia of associated cranial nerves or in dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord

416
Q

What is the main integrating center for most autonomic reflexes?

A

Hypothalamus and brain stem

Some in spinal cord

417
Q

What are the two motor neurons that connect the CNS to an effector?

A

Pregang.: From CNS to autonomic ganglion, myelinated

Postgang: from ganglion to effector, unmelinated

418
Q

What are the 3 effectors in an autonomic reflex?

A

Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Glands

419
Q

Define Raynaud disease

A

digits become ischemic after exposure to cold or with emotional stress

Due to excessive sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscles in the arterioles

420
Q

Effect of atropine?

A

Anticholinergic that blocks parasympathetic effects

Suppresses salivation and respiratory secretions
Dilutes pupils (mydriatic agent)
Antidote to inactivate acetylcholinesterase
421
Q

Effect of Neostigmine

A

anticholinesterase druge
Inhibits AChesterase allowing ACh to accumulate in synapse

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

422
Q

Function of Trycyclic antidepressants

A

Antidepressants that help relieve depression
Prolongs activity of Norepi on postsynaptic membrane

Brand names Elavil and Sinequan

423
Q

What are MAO inhibitors

A

Monoamine oxidase
Inactivates norepi
Relieve depression

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