Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IPAP > Micro Block 3 > Flashcards

Micro Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteriodes Fragilis has what type of air requirement?

A

Anaerobic, opportunistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most prevalent anaerobic bacteria?

A

Bacterio Fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bacterio Fragilis is a normal microbe found in what areas of the body?

A

Gut

Oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bacterio fragalis is an etiologic agent of what 4 things?

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Empyema
Lung abscess
Deep wound abscess w/ endogenous material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clostridium tetani causes tetanus due to ____

A

Neurotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What microbe is “lockjaw” associated with?

A

Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clostridium botulinum produces _ types of neurotoxin that have what type of temperature limitation

A

8
A-H
Heatlabile @ 100*C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clostridium botulinum toxin types A B and E cause ______

A

Food poisoning via ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clostridium botulinum is lethal at what dosages?

A

2ng by injection

13ng by inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What has been deemed as one of the most toxic substances?

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ingestion of Clostridium botulinum will present w/ what S/Sx?

A 
Blurred/double vision
Drooping eyelids
Slurred speech
Weakened facial/throat muscles
N/V
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is wound botulism most common with?

A

People who inject drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is infant botulism acquired?

A

Unpasteurized honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the beneficial factors of Clostridium botulinum?

A

Diluted toxin used for spasmodic dysphasia
Muscle paralysis/problems
Facial wrinkles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Antibiotic Associated Diarrhea associated with?

A

Clostridium difficle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a severe form Antibiotic Associated Diarrhea?

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

Formation of pseudomembrane of inflammatory cells, fibrin and necrotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Chlostridium difficle Toxin?

A

Person-person via fecal-oral route

Spores germinate after passing through stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How resistant are the Chlostridium difficle spores?

A

Germinate after passing through stomach acid

Can survive routine surface cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is Clostridium difficle a large problem?

A

Hospitals

Nursing homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the acquisition rates for Clostridium difficle?

A

Hospital stays up to 14 days: 13%

Hospital stays +28 days: 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clostridium perfringens is an etiologic agent of?

A

Food poisoning

Enterotoxin in under cooked meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What microbe is associated with Gas Gangrene?

A

Clostridium Perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clostridium species cause deep wound abscesses, especially when contaminated with _____ material

A

Exogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Clostridium species?

A

GPB, spore forming anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Bacillus Anthracis?

A

GPB, spore forming anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of media does Bacillus Anthracis grow on?

A

Blood agar w/out hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Wool-sorters Disease is associated with what microbe?

A

Pulmonary anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mortality rates of pulmonary and cutaneous anthrax?

A

Pulmonary- 60-100%

Cutaneous- 20-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many spores on average of anthrax to establish pulmonary anthrax infection?

A

8K-10K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What microbe is going to show on an X-ray as a widened mediastinum?

A

Pulmonary anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the toxins Pulmonary Anthrax produces?

A

Edema toxin

Lethal toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of anthrax has a papule->vesicle ->necrotic lesion and black eschar?

A

Cutaneous anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Bacillus cereus?

A

GPB, spore forming aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is Bacillus cereus a natural bacterium?

What types of food does is show up in during food poisoning?

A

Soil/environment

Rice or dried beans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If a PT present with emetic Bacillus cereus, what type of food did they eat?

A

Rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Coryn. Diphtheriae?

A

GPB, NSF, pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Etiologic agents of Coryn. Diphtheriae?

A

Pseudomembrane formation in throat

Necrotic surface epithelium meshed in fibrous exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Listeria Monocytogenes?

A

GPB, NSF aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What microbe grows at refrigerator temps?

A

Listeria Monocyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the source of Listeria Monocyte.?

A

Soil
Forage
Animal feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the etiologic agents of Listeria Monocyte.?

A

Food poisoning- cold cuts, unpasteurized cheeses
Encephalomeningitis
Miscarriage, stillbirth, neonate infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Acid fast bacili- lots of mycolic acid and lipids in cell wall that impairs staining w/ aqueous solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the world’s leading infectious disease?

A

Mycobacterium tuberclosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?

A

Highly communicable as an aerosol or dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is especially prevalent in what patient populations?

A

AIDS

Crowded locations- prisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What types of changes in America has changed Mycobacterium tuberculosis ability to infect populations?

A

Building codes

Social mores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Characteristics of Primary Tuberculosis

A

Mild/asymptomatic
Bacteria ingested by macrophages and multiply until they’re taken to lymph nodes and encounter CMI TCells
CMI slows disease and causes inflammation
TBST is pos, chest Xray shows growth patches
Bacteria are contained w/in tubercles- small granulomas of epithelioid/giant cells
Granuloma growth caused by cord factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Characteristics of Latent Phase TB

A

No S/Sx
No shedding of bacteria
Post TST, chest Xray neg
Not a true medical disease, just potential presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Characteristics of Secondary TB

A

CMI fails after time and TB centers become necrotic, forming acellular masses of cheesy debris- caseous material
Ghon comples- combo of tubercles in lung and caseation in lymph nodes
IL-1 mediator factor
TNF- cathectin interferes w/ lipid metabolism causing PT weight loss
Ghon complexes enlarge and tubercles rupture in airway/vessels
Major organ involvement and caseous material is coughed up
CMI fails rapidly leading to disseminated miliary TB- systemic and fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Secondary TB is AKA

A

Clinical Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the TB vaccine?

A

Bacillus Calmetter Guerin- prepared from bovine TB bacterium

Not given in US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the characteristics of the TST?

A

PPD from bacteria cell walls

Delayed hypersensitivity- 48-72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the lab diagnosis tests for all Mycobacterium?

A

Acid Fast microscopic

Fluorochrome stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Coxiella burnetti?

A

Atypical GNCB w/ poor staining

Obligate intracellular parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is Coxiella burnetti transmittable?

A

Body fluids and aerosol

Human and animal transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is Coxiella burnetti diagnosed?

A

Immunologic and nucleic acid tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Rickettsia and Orientia?

A

Atypical, CoccoBacilli

Obligate intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What microbe is associated with causing Spotted Fever of Typhys?

A

Rickettsia and Orientia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the vector carrier for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Tick

R. Rickettsii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the vector carrier of Typhus?

A

Epidemic- (classic) Louse
Murine- Flea
Scrub- Mite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are generally effective microbiotics against Rickettsia and Orientia?

A

Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

S/Sx PT will have if they’re suffering from Rickettsia and Orientia?

A

Fever x 2-3 wks
Severe deep muscle aches
Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Atypical w/ no cell wall

Poor staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the microbe that causes Primary Atypical Pneumonia?

What is this type of pneumonia aka?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Walking pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Walking pneumonia primarily occurs in what patient population?

A

School aged children

Young adults- especially military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What kinds of S/Sx will a PT w/ Walking Pneumonia present w/?

A

Headache
Malaise
Paroxysmal cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of microbe may infiltrate lungs more extensively than clinical findings would suggest?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the agents of Chlamydia Pneumoniae?

A

Pneumonias
Bronchitis
Sinusitis
Asymptomatic w/ mild cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What microbe is the probable agent of atherosclerosis?

A

Chlamydia Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Atypical GN

Obligate intracellular parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the two forms of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Elementary bodies: infectious form, metabolically inactive, moderately resistant to harsh environments

Reticulate Bodies: converted from elementary bodies, noninfectious, metabolically active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the cell structures of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Lipopolysaccharide- weak endotoxin activity

MOMP- structural component of cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the reproduction cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

EB enters host
EB converts to RB
RB replicates bacterial cells and produces EB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What microbe is referred to as Non-gonococcal urethritis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the leading cause, 50% of STDs?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where is the incubation/residence location of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Males- urethritis, can lead to epididymitis and infertility

Females- cervicitis, usually asymptomatic. Often leads to salpingitis, infertility or PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is usually transmitted with what other microbe?
Which one lasts longer?

A

Gonorrhea

Chlamydia trachomatis lasts longer after gonorrhea has been treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What microbe causes Inclusion Conjunctivitis disease?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What microbe causes Trachoma

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What microbe causes Lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Involvement of inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the typical treatment for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Doxy
Tetracycline
Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

A

GNC in pairs

Intra or Extracellular regarding phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where does Neisseria Gonorrhoeae reside and cause symptoms in the male and female body?

A 
Male- urethritis
Female- endocervix or PID
Pharyngitis
Rectal infections
Septic arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the virulence factors of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

A

Beta lactamase
Pili
Porin proteins- resist phagocytosis
Lipooligosaccharide w/ Lipid A endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Neisseria Meningitidis?

A

GNC paired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What microbe is the #2 cause of meningitis?

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

Often causes secondary invasive tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the Antigenic groups of Neisseria Meningitidis?

A

A B C W Y

B C Y- problomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What microbe predominates school aged/college aged students?

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Sub-Saharan Africa is noted for documenting/reporting thousands of cases per year of what microbe?

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the vaccines for Neisseria Meningitidis?

A

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine Groups ACWY

Group B meningococcal vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What was Moraxella catarrhalis formerly known as?

A

Branhamella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Moraxella catarrhalis??

A

GNC in pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the medical significance of Moraxella catarrhalis?

A

3rd most common cause of URIs w/ otitis media and sinusitis in children
Bronchitis/pneumonia in children/adults (top 3-4 cause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Haemohpilus ducreyi are visually identified by what unique shape?

A

School of fish arrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What microbe causes chancroid, primarily in Asia?

A

Haemohpilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

GN CB small short rod

Strict obligate parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is encapsulated strains are in _ antigenic types

A

6
A-F
B is most virulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Where can Haemophilus influenzae be found and considered normal flora?

A

URT

Mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What microbe is UNUSUAL in the first 2 months of life?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Almost all cases occur in children under 2y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What age range is epiglottitis usually present?

A

Children slightly older, 2-4y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the vaccine for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

HIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is Haemophilus influenzae a etiologic agent of?

A 
Fulminating meningitis 
Invades nasopharynx and spreads systemically
Top 5-6 causes of pneumonia
Exacerbates COPD
Conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Non-HIB can be an etiologic agent of what diagnosis?

A

Otits media

Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Type B polysaccharide capsule
Fimbriae (pili)
IgA protease
Ciliostatic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Bordatella pertussis?

A

GNB GNCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is Bordatella pertussis an etiologic agent of?

A

Pertussis
Whooping Cough
Bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which microbe is of concern due to it’s ability to re-emerg due to reduce imms rate or inadequate vaccine quality?

A

Bordatella pertussis

108
Q

Why does Bordatella pertussis have virulence?

A

Pertussis toxin
Thick capsule
Exudate

109
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Francisella tularensis?

A

Very small GNB

110
Q

What diseases can Francisella tularensis cause?

A

Tularemia
Ulcerations at site of entry
Typhoidal tularemia
Pneumonic tularemia

111
Q

Francisella tularensis ulcerations lead to involvement of what 3 things?

A

Glandular
Nodular
Lymph node

112
Q

What are the virulence factors of Francisella tularensis?

A

Intracellular pathogen, survives in macrophages
Antiphagocytic, protects from complement
Requires strong immune response to control replication

113
Q

How is Francisella tularensis transmitted?

A

Contact w/ infected tissues
Blood
Body fluids from ticks, deer flies, rabbits, cats, rodents, and dried body fluids in dust

114
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus?

A

Small GNCB

115
Q

What are Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus etiologic agents of?

A

Brucellosis (zoonotic disease)

Bangs disease

116
Q

What is the key sign/symptom of Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus?

A

Undulant fever

117
Q

What are the virulence factors of Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus?

A

Intracellular replication

Survives and replicates inside phagocytes

118
Q

How is Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortu transmitted?

A

Unpasteurized dairy products

Contact w/ contaminated blood/body fluids/tissue

119
Q

Gram stain, shape and air requirement for Acinetobacter baumannii?

120
Q

What type of media does Acinetobacter baumannii grow on?

A

MacConkey agar

121
Q

Where is Acinetobacter baumannii found naturally?

A

Soil

Water

122
Q

What does it mean when Acinetobacter baumannii is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Post-traumatic wound abscess

Septicemia

123
Q

What countries is Acinetobacter baumannii associated with?

A

Vietnam
Afghanistan
Iraq

124
Q

Gram stain and shape for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

125
Q

What is the medical significance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Nosocomial infections- especially compromised/debilitated PTs

126
Q

What type of microbe frequently colonize in respiratory tracts of CF PTs?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

127
Q

What are the virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Protein inhibitors
Exotoxins
Capsule in CF strains

128
Q

What is the recommended treatment route for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Resistant to most ABX

Aminoglycosides and broad spect penicililns

129
Q

Gram stain and shape for Legionella pneumophila?

A

GNB pleomorph

130
Q

What pneumonia microbe usually occurs in breakouts instead of single occurences?

A

Legionella pneumophila

131
Q

What are the virulence factors of Legionella pneumophila?

A 
Intracellular parasite- macrophages
Superoxide and hydroxyl radicals
Inhibs phagosome-lysosome activity
Flagella
Secretes proteins
132
Q

The leading cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

133
Q

What type of PT is Klebsiella pneumoniae likely to infect?

A

Intubated PT
Pneumonia
UTIs

134
Q

What microbes are likely to be found on/in burned PTs?

A

Enterobacter

Providencia

135
Q

What microbe is of the Enterobacteriaceae family and presents with S/Sx similar to Cholera and dysentery?

136
Q

Which microbe of the Enterobacteriaceae family presents similarly to Shigella?

A

Plesiomonas

137
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Yersinia Pestis?

138
Q

What is Yersinia Pestis an etiological agent of?

A

Bubonic plague

Pneumonic plague

139
Q

What microbe leads to the Black Death?

A

Yersinia Pestis necrotic factors

140
Q

What are the virulence factors of Yersinia Pestis?

A

Antiphagocytic
Capsule
Plasminogen activator protease

141
Q

How is Yersinia Pestis transmitted?

A

Fleas
Direct contact infected animals
Oral droplets coughed during pneumonia

142
Q

What microbe may be alive and contagious if coughed up by PT?

A

Yersinia Pestis

143
Q

How is Yersinia entercolitica transmitted?

A

Contaminated pork
Milk
Water

144
Q

What type of microbe invades Peyers patches and can present with bloody diarrhea?

A

Yersinia entercolitica

145
Q

What microbe may be present in stool eliminations for up to 90 days after treatment?

A

Yersinia entercolitica

146
Q

What microbe is predominant in cooler areas and exceeds Shigella and approaches Salmonella/Campylobacter?

A

Yersinia entercolitica

147
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Escherichia coli?

148
Q

Escherichia coli taxomony is based off of which antigen combinations?

149
Q

What microbe is a coliform and predominantly a normal flora in the guy?

A

Escherichia coli

150
Q

What are the 3 primary coliforms?

A

Escherichia
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

151
Q

What microbe cause nearly all UTIs in outpatient females?

A

Escherichia coli

152
Q

How does Escherichia coli attach itself to cells in the urinary tract?

153
Q

Number one cause of meningitis

Number two cause?

A

Strep pneumo

N. meningitidis

154
Q

What is the source of Escherichia coli infections?

A

Fecal contamination
Poor hygiene
Nosocomial

155
Q

What microbe causes Traveler’s Diarrhea due to cholera-like toxin?

A

Entertoxic E Coli

156
Q

How does Enterotoxic E Coli induce its effects on a patient?

A

Enter small intestine and release Heat-labile and/or heat-stable enterotoxins

157
Q

What does Entertoxic E Coli induce on the body’s ion balance?

A

Hypersecretion of water and Cl

Inhibits absorption of Na

158
Q

What is the S/Sx Entertoxic E Coli presents with that is different than cholera?

A

Water stools w/out mucus and blood

8-12 unformed stools per day x 4-5days

159
Q

What microbe causes Hemorrhagic colitis?

How does this microbe initiate it’s effects?

A

Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli

Produces verotoxin- aka Shiga Toxin causing shigella-like symptoms

160
Q

What type of microbe will invade and multiply inside epithelial cells?

A

Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli

161
Q

What are the S/Sx of Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli?

A

Severe abdominal cramps
Watery diarrhea w/ blood
Inflammation
NO FEVER

162
Q

What microbe causes Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

A

Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli

163
Q

What is the primary antigen group of Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli?

164
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli?

A

Ingestion of contaminated meat

Cattle, chickens carry microbe as fecal flora

165
Q

What form of E Coli utilizes adhesion proteins to bind and enter intestinal cells making it a highly invasive microbe?

A

Enteroinvasive E Coli

Shiga-like Toxin producing E Coli

166
Q

What form of E coli is a danger in Day Cares or Nursing Homes?

A

Enteropathogenic E Coli- EPEC

167
Q

What is the Gram-stain and shape of Shigella?

168
Q

What family does Shigella belong to?

A

Enterobacteriacease

169
Q

What are the 4 species of Shigella determines by Ag grouping?

A

S. dysenteriae- Ag A (least)
S. flexneri- Ag B (25%)
S. boydi- Ag C (rare)
S. sonnei- Ag D (most)

170
Q

Which Ag of Shigella is least frequently isolated in the US?

171
Q

What Ag of Shigella makes up 25% of Shigella isolated in the US?

172
Q

What Ag of Shigella is the most frequently isolated?

173
Q

How is Shigella transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

Food/water w/ fecal contaminants

174
Q

A Shigella infection can be established with as few as _____ bacteria

175
Q

What age population makes up 2/3 of all Shigella cases?

A

Children under 10 y/o

176
Q

What microbe causes enterocolitis syndrome?

A

Shigellosis

Bacillary Dysentary

177
Q

What microbe can colonize in the intestines and turn the a green color?

178
Q

How is the toxin producing effects of Shigella damaging to the body?

A

Shiga Toxin AB type- disrupts protein synthesis and damages the intestinal lining

179
Q

What Ag groups of Shigella produce which toxins?

A

Endotoxin present in all strains
S. dysenteriae Type I- neurotoxin and enterotoxin
S. glexneri produce enterotoxins

180
Q

What are the symptoms of a Shigella infection?

A

Diarrhea
Lesions on colon w/ pus and blood in feces
Fever

181
Q

How does Shigella progress through the body?

A

Attach and penetrates mucosal cells
Bacteria multiply intracellularly causing epithelial death and sloughing
Bacteria release endotoxin stimulating inflammatory response
Exotoxin stimulates fluid loss

182
Q

What is the recommended treatment plan for Shigella?

A

Rehydration and electrolyte replacement

3rd generation cephalosporin

183
Q

What microbe can cause/lead to a septic joint?

A

Gonorrhea

Staph Aureus

184
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Salmonella?

185
Q

What family does Salmonella belong to?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

186
Q

What is the one major species of Salmonella?

How many serotypes?

A

Salmonella enterica

2500 characterized by O or H Ags

187
Q

What microbe causes Typhoid fever?

A

Salmonella

Salmonella enterica, serovar Typhi

188
Q

95% of Salmonella isolates belong to which Ag groups?

Which ones are predominate in US?

A 
A B 
C1 C2
D-H
Vi
B and D predominant in USA
189
Q

What is the source and route of transmission for Salmonella?

A

Contaminated food or water
Eggs
Dairy
Contaminated surfaces

190
Q

What microbe is a normal and frequent flora of poultry?

A

Salmonella

191
Q

What microbe can be killed by stomach acids requiring a large amount of bacteria to be ingested to establish an infection?

A

Salmonella

192
Q

What are the pathogens and diseases of Salmonella?

A

Acute gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella Enteritidis

193
Q

What are the S/Sx of a PT with Salmonella enteritidis?

A

Bacteria invade mucous membrane and cause acute inflammatory response
V and Diar.
Fever

194
Q

What microbe causes Enteric Fever?

A

Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi

195
Q

What microbe invades the terminal portions of the small intestine and invade lymphoid follicles to multiply?

A

Salmonella typhi

196
Q

Where does the Salmonella typhi bacteria localize within the body?

A

Gallbladder
Spleen
Liver
Bones

197
Q

When a person is a carrier of Salmonella typhi, where are they carrying the microbe?

A

Gallbladder

198
Q

What is the treatment recommendation for Salmonella Typhi?

199
Q

When is the Salmonella typhi vaccine recommended for use?

A

High risk
Endemic regions
Household members are carriers

200
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Helicobacter pylori?

A

GNB curved

201
Q

What are the diagnostic tests needed for Helicobacter pylori?

A

Breath test to detect urease
Endoscopy and biopsy
Culture requires microaerophilic and special growth media
DNA probe

202
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

GNB, thin curved rod, S or gull shaped

203
Q

What is the transmission and epidemiology of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Ingestion of fecal contaminants in food- chicken
Raw milk
Non chlorinated water

204
Q

What is the number 1 or 2 cause of gastroenteritis in North America?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

205
Q

What are the virulence factors of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Grows in human bile
Flagella
Adhesive molecules
Cytolethal Distending toxin- AB type toin that has DNase activity (damages DNA)

206
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Camplobacter jejuni?

A

Rehydration

Electrolyte

207
Q

Where is Vibrio vulnificus found and what does it cause?

A 
Warm, coastal seawater
Acute gastroenteritis 
Primary septicemia
Severe cellulitis w/ hemorrhagic bullae
Ingestion of seafood, especially oysters
208
Q

What microbe is so rare that there are only 100 reported cases per year?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

209
Q

What are the sources and results of Vibrio parahemolyticus

A

Gastroenteritis from shellfish ingestion (oysters)

Common cause of gastroenteritis in Asian coasts

210
Q

What is the Gram stain and appearance of Vibrio Cholerae?

A

GNB curved

211
Q

Most pathogens of Vibrio Cholera belong to what Ag group?

A

O1 or O139

212
Q

What microbe is the cause of entercolitis syndrome aka gastroenteritis?

A

Vibrio cholera

213
Q

What areas of the world are especially susceptible to Vibrio cholera?

A

Tropical Asia
ESPECIALLY INDIA
Africa
South/Central America

214
Q

How is vibrio cholera transmitted?

A

Ingestion of contaminated water, food or bathing

215
Q

Where does the Vibrio cholera microbe localize to in the body?
What effect does it exert there?

A

Small intestine
Hypersecretion of water and Cl by reversing ion transport
16L per day of rice water stool

216
Q

What is the mortality rate of cholera if untreated?

217
Q

What are the treatment and control procedures for cholera?

A 
Good hygiene
Fluid/electrolyte replacement along w/ glucose/sucrose
IV w/ multi-electrolyte solution
ABX 
Vaccine not recommended by WHO
218
Q

What is the Cell Wall Antigen?
What is the Flagella Antigen?
What is the Capsule Antigen?

219
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Entercoccus Faecalis?

A

GPC in chains

220
Q

What is Enterococcus Faecalis an etiologic agent of?

A

Nosocomial infections- surgical and UTI
Bacteremia
MDR/VRE

221
Q

What are the Streptococci of human significance?

A

Beta hemolytics in Groups C F G: Primarily S. dysgalactiae and S. anginosus

Viridans Streptococci- an alpha-hemolytic w/ low disease frequency; abscess, bacteremia, endocarditis, dental caries

222
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Step Pneumoniae

223
Q

What type of colonies does Strep Pneumo make?

A

Large mucoid alpha hemolytic

224
Q

Of the 90+ Ag types of Strep Pneumo, how many are frequently recovered and infectious?

225
Q

Where is Strep Pneumo considered to be nomral flora?

A

Upper resp tract of 30-60% of population especially houses w/ children

226
Q

How does a Strep Pneumo infection start?

A

Transmission from normal flora to adjacent sites

227
Q

What is Strep Pneumo an etiologic agent of?

A

1 cause of lobar and bronchial pneumonia

Sinusitis
Otitis media
Meningities

228
Q

What are the virulence factors of Strep Pneumo?

A

Capsule
IgA protease
Some are invasive

229
Q

What does Group B Strep cause?

A

Pneumonitis

Neonate meningitis due to innoculation from vaginal flora

230
Q

When are expectant mothers screened for GBS?

231
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Strep Pyogenes Group A?

A

GPC chains

232
Q

What kind of colonies does Strep Pyogenes make?

A

Beta hemolytic

233
Q

What is Strep Pyogenes an etiologic agent of?

A 
Skin/tissue infections
May be accompanies w/ Scarlet Fever
Necrotizing Fascitis
Exudative pharyngitis
Post strep complications- rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis
234
Q

What two microbes account for 90% of skin infections?

A

Strep Pyogenes

Staph Aureus

235
Q

What are the virulence factors of Strep Pyogenes?

A

Culture
BioChem
Ag detection

236
Q

What is one of the CNS negative microbes?

A

Staph saprophyticus

237
Q

What does Staph Saprophyticus cause?

A

Second most frequent cause of UTIs in women of child bearing age

238
Q

The term Streptococcus give what info?

A

Genus
Species
Group
Ags

239
Q

What is the most common CNS negative staphylococcus?

A

Staph Epidermis

240
Q

What does Staph Epidermis cause?

A

Bacteremia

Endocarditis

241
Q

What microbe is the second most frequent recovered pathogen from blood cultures?

A

Staph Epidermis

242
Q

What are the Chains?

A

Strep Pyro

E. Faec.

243
Q

What are the Pairs?

A

Strep Pneumonia
Morax
N Meningitis
N Gonorrhea

244
Q

What are the Curved?

A

V. Cholera
Camp Jejuni
H. Pylori

245
Q

What are the Pleomorphs?

A

Legionella
Diphtheria
Bact. Fragalis

246
Q

What are the CoccoBacillus?

A 
B. Melitensis
B. Abortus
H. Influenza
Rickettsa
Orientia
Cox Burnetti
247
Q

What are the Spore Forming?

What are the Non-Spore Forming?

A

SF- Cereus, Anthracis, Clost Perfringis (clostridums)

NSF- Listeria, Diphtheria

248
Q

What are the A hemolytics?

What are the B hemolytics?

A 
A- Strep pneumonia, Viridain Streptococci
B- Staph A
Strep pyogenes
Anginosus
Dysgalactiae
C F G
249
Q

What are the Intracellular Reproduction?

250
Q

What are the Intracellular Parasites?

A 
Legionella
Chlamydia Trach.
Ricketts
Orientia
Cox Burnetti
251
Q

What microbes cause Otitis Media?

A

Strep Pneumonia
H. Influenzae
Morax. Catarr.

252
Q

What microbes cause meningitis?

A 
GBS- neonates
Strep pneumo- 10+y/o (#1)
H. Influenzae- Fulminating Meningitis
N. meningitidis- #2
Listeria- encephalomeningitis
253
Q

What is the only microbe with a connection to dental?

A

Viridans streptococci

Dental caries

254
Q

What is the Gram stain and shape of Staph Aureus

A

GBC clustered

255
Q

What type of colonies does Staph Aureus make?

A

Large yellow beta hemolytic

256
Q

What are the invasive tissue infections caused by Staph Aureus

A 
Pyogenic
Folliculitis
Furuncles
Cellulitis
Impetigo
Abscess-post surgical/trauma
257
Q

How does Staph Aureus cause food poisoning?

A

Pre formed heat stable enterotoxin

258
Q

What is the time and temp requirement for Staph Aureus to induce food poisoning?

A

28*C x 2-4hrs

259
Q

How does TSS infect men and women?

A

Men- Focal/surgical wounds and non-menstruating women)

Women- tampon

260
Q

What microbe causes Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis in children under 5 y/o?

A

Staph Aureus

261
Q

What microbe can infect bones/joints after device implantation?

A

Staph Aureus

262
Q

What is Staph Aureus resistant against?

A

Beta-lactamase
MRSA
VRSA
MDR

263
Q

What two microbes have their genes on plasmids?

A

Entertoxic E. coli

Staph Aureus

264
Q

Pneumonia causing microbes

A

Staph aureus- 2%
Strep pneumonia- #1, 50% in children and elderly
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophilia- top 5 causes
Francisella tularensis
Haemophilus influenzae- top 5-6 causes, especially in adults
Moraxella catarrhalis- top 3-4, children/adults
Chlyamydia pneumoniae
Stopped at mycoplasma

265
Q

What microbe is transmitted by cough during pneumonia?

A

Yersinia Pestis

266
Q

What microbe can causes asymptomatic pneumonia?

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

267
Q

What microbe causes erysipelas?

A

Strep Pyogenes GroupA

IPAP (212 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions