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IPAP > Micro Block 4 > Flashcards

Micro Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What does Treponema pallidum cause?

A

Syphilis

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2
Q

How is Treponema pallidum transmitted?

A

Direct contact w/ infectious chancre/lesion

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3
Q

What happens during Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Syphilis?

A

Primary: 10-90 days later, Avg 21 days
Painless chancre, small and firm
Lasts 3-6 weeks and “heals”

Secondary: 1-6mon later, rash
Tertiary: Multi-organ infection

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4
Q

What does Borrelia burgdorferi cause?

A

Lyme disease

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5
Q

What is Borrelia burgdorferis transmission vector?

A

Prolonged bite from Deer Tick

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6
Q

What are the clinical S/Sx of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Early stages are asymptomatic
Skin- red macula/papula > 5cm
erythema migrans
Neuro/Cardio- Encephalitis, facial palsy

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7
Q

What is the transmission method of Leptospira interrogans?

A

Contact w/ contaminated urine, water or soil

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8
Q

What animals can carry Leptospira interrogans?

A 
Rats
Swine
Badgers
Rodents
Deer
Fox
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9
Q

What are the clinical S/Sx of Leptospira interrogans?

A 
Headache
Myalgia
Chills
Conjunctival stuff
Renal/liver failure
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10
Q

What is the Gram stain and cell shape of Burkholderi spp?

A

GNB

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11
Q

Where is B. pseudomallei an endemic?

A

Southeast Asia
N. Australia
South Pacific

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12
Q

How is B. pseudomallei transmitted?

A

Contaminated soil and surface water

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13
Q

What clinical S/Sx does B. pseudomallei cause?

A

Acute pulmonary infection
Acute localized infection (ulcer, nodule, abscess)
Septicemia
Multiple organ involvement

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14
Q

B. pseudomallei symptoms may lay dormant for how long? B. pseudomallei symptoms may show as early as?

A

Years

2-4wks

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15
Q

Burkholderia mallei is closely related to what microbe?

A

B. pseudomallei

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16
Q

What does B. mallei cause?

A

Glanders disease in horses

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17
Q

Where is B. mallei an endemic?

A 
Africa
Asia
Middle East
S America 
Eradicated from N America and Europe
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18
Q

Transmission of B. mallei to humans is rare but can occur through what transmission?

A

Contact w/ blood/body fluids into abrasion

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19
Q

What does B. mallei effect in humans?

What is it’s mortality rate?

A 
Lungs, airway
Septicemia
Cutaneous lesions
Liver
Spleen
Fever
95% untreated, 50% treated
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20
Q

What does B. cepacia cause?

A

Infrequent

Pneumonia in compromised/CF pts

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21
Q

What is the Gram stain, cell shape and air requirement of Peptostreptococcus?

A

GPC chains anaerobe

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22
Q

What does Peptostreptococcus cause if translocated?

A

Necrotizing soft tissue infections
PID
Bone/joint infections

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23
Q

What is the Gram stain, cell shape and air requirement of Fusobacterium?

A

GNB anaerobic

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24
Q

What kind of infections does Fusobacterium cause?

A

Peridontal

Skin

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25
Q

What is the Gram stain, cell shape and air requirement of Faecalibacterium?

A

GPB NSF Anaerobe

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26
Q

What microbe is an important component of probiotics?

A

Bifidobacterium

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27
Q

What is the Gram stain, cell shape and air requirement of Bifidobacterium?

A

GPB branch NSF anaerobe

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28
Q

Where is Bifidobacterium considered to be normal bacterium?

A

Gut
Vagina
Mouth

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29
Q

Myxovirus is an etiologic agent of what?

A

Influenza

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30
Q

What is the incubation and symptom times for Myxovirus?

A

Incubation: 1-2
Symptoms: 5-7 days (cough: 7-14 days)

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31
Q

Myxovirus cause what percentage of viral pneumonia admissions?

A

10% w/ high mortality

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32
Q

Secondary Bacterial Pneumonia can sometimes follow what type of infection?

A

Viral URT infection

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33
Q

How is Myxovirus transmitted?

A

Droplets
Contact
Inhalation of droplets

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34
Q

What is the structure of the Myxovirus?

A 
Enveloped RNA w/ 8 strands
Lipid bilayer from previous host
Hemagglutinin 
Neuraminidase- for attachment/virulence
Matrix protein- capsid
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35
Q

What are the antigenic types of Myxovirus?

A

A B C

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36
Q

Animal strains of Myxovirus are based on what?

A

Original source of viral envelope

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37
Q

What is Type A Myxovirus?

A

Human: H3N2, H1N1
Swine: H1N1

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38
Q

What is a characteristic of Myxovirus Antigen Types B and C

A

Antigenically stable

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39
Q

What are the virulence factors of Myxovirus?

A 
Gene recombination/mutation
Hemagglutinin
Neruaminidase
Animal specific envelope
Surface Ag changes
Viral Envelope adaptations to enter and replicate in human cells
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40
Q

What are the treatment/vaccine options for Myxovirus?

A

Antiviral meds avail and effective in first 48hrs
Vaccine for most common 3 Ags
Vaccine predicted by WHO, DoD and CDC

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41
Q

Rhino/Resp Syncytial Virus/Corona virus are all what type of nucleic acid virus?

A

RNA enveloped

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42
Q

What is the most primary cause of the common cold?

A

1 in infants- Syncytial Virus

#1- Rhino Virus
#2- Corona
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43
Q

Rhino virus has ___ Ag types?

Corona virus has __ Ag types?

A

160+

30

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44
Q

What does the Corona virus cause?

A

SARS- 30% mortality

MERS CoV- Middle East Resp Syndrome Corona Virus

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45
Q

Where is MERS-CoV predominantly located?

What animal is the carrier?

A

Jordan
Saudia Arabia
Camels

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46
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus is AKA ?

A

Human Orthopneumovirus- primary agent in infants/young children

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47
Q

How is the Resp Syncytial Virus transmitted?

A

Contact
Droplets
Inhalation of droplets

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48
Q

What type of viral particle is the Parainfluenza virus?

A

Enveloped RNA

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49
Q

What does Parainfluenza virus cause?

A

Croup
Bronchitis
Cold-like S/Sx
Especially in children

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50
Q

What is the virus type of the Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV)?

A

Enveloped RNA

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51
Q

What does Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV) cause?

A

Common cold
Bronchiolitis
Pneumonia
Croup

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52
Q

When do Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV) outbreaks usually occur throughout the year?

A

Late winter-early spring

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53
Q

What is the incubation/shedding period for Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV)?

A

Incubation: 3-5
Shedding: weeks

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54
Q

What PT population is Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV) more predominant in?

A

Young children

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55
Q 
Human Metapneumovirus (hMPV) S/Sx are similar to what other virus?
Why is there a similarity?
A

RSV, same taxonomic family

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56
Q

What type of virus is Adenovirus?

A

Non-enveloped DNA

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57
Q

What is Adenovirus an etiologic agent of?

A

5-10% of all viral infections

50% of all infections before 5y/o

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58
Q

What patient population is hit heavily by Adenovirus?

A

Military recruits

Acute Respiratory Disease

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59
Q

What is Adenovirus an etiologic agent of?

A 
Acute Respiratory Disease 
Conjunctivitis
Atypical Pneumonia
Cold-like disease
GI disease
Croup/bronchitis
Cystitis
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60
Q

What Ag types is the Adenovirus vaccine good for?

A

Types 4 and 7

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61
Q

What kind of virus is Herpes Virus?

A

Large Enveloped DNA

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62
Q

What are the S/Sx of Herpes simples Types 1 and 2

A 
Fever Blisters
Cold Sores
Gingivostomatitis
Keratoconjunctivitis- neonate/contact lens
Genital lesions
Meningitis
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63
Q

What is Herpes Zoster?

A

HZV, chicken pox and shingles

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64
Q

How is chicken pox acquired?

A

Respiratory tract

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65
Q

What is the difference in lesions between chicken pox and shingles?

A

CP- vesicle-type lesions, large

S- small, closely spaced

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66
Q

What does Epstein-Barr Virus cause?

How does it do this?

A

Mononucleosis

Transmitted by oral secretions and infects B cells

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67
Q

How is Epstein-Barr virus brought out of latency?

A

Reactivated (switched to lytic cycle) upon B cell stimulation for other, non-related infection

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68
Q

What does Cytomegalovirus cause?

A

Congenital Cytomegalic Inclusion Disease in children
Occasionally: CMV mononucleosis w/ microcephaly, jaundice and multiple organ involvement
CNS impairment= growth/mental retardation

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69
Q

CMV is a latent viral infection within what type of patient population?

A

Immunosuppressed
Immunocompromised
Transplant/cancer/AIDS

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70
Q

S/Sx of CMV infection in immunocompromised PT?

A 
Febrile mononucleosis
Pneumonitis
Hepatitis
GI ulcers
Encephalopathy
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71
Q

Severity of a CMV infection is directly related to what?

A

Strength of CMI

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72
Q

What type of virus is the Rotavirus?

A

RNA w/ 8 species (A-H)

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73
Q

Rotavirus is the most common cause of what illness in what population?

A

Severe epidemic diarrhea in infants/young children

Rotavirus A=90%

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74
Q

How is Rotavirus transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

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75
Q

What kind of virus is the Norwalk virus?

A

Non-enveloped RNA virus

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76
Q

Norwalk virus is the only species within what genus?

What is the appropriate nomenclature for this virus?

A

Genus Norovirus

Norwalk virus is preferred

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77
Q

What is Norwalk virus the major worldwide cause of?

A

Epidemic/sporadic viral gastroenteritis

Causes 90% of epidemic non-virall gastroenteritis

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78
Q

What populations/areas are susceptible to Norwalk virus?

A

Schools
Camps
Cruise ships

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79
Q

What is the incubation time for Norwalk?

How long do the S/Sx last?

A 
Incubation= 18-48hrs
S/Sx= 12-60hrs
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80
Q

How is Norwalk transmitted?

A

Food
Water
Vomit

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81
Q

What geographical locations are hot spots for HIV?

A

Southern Africa

South/SE Asia

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82
Q

What viral group does HIV belong too?

What kind of virus is it?

A

Retrovirus

Medium enveloped RNA

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83
Q

What are the characteristics/make up of the HIV envelope?

A

Glycoprotein 41
Glycoprotein 120
Ag variable

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84
Q

What kind of protein makes up the HIV capsid?

A

Protein 24

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85
Q

What is the core make up of the HIV particle?

A

2 RNA strands

Reverse transcriptase

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86
Q

What are the two Ag types of HIV?

What geographical locations are they predominantly found?

A

HIV 1- worldwide

HIV 2- West Africa

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87
Q

What are the steps of infection for HIV->cell?

A

1- GP120 attaches to CD4 marker, GP41 attaches to CXCR4
2- RNA enters host cell
3- Reverse transcriptase
4- New DNA incorporates with host DNA and alters CD$ ability to produce cytokinase
5- New virons released kill CD4 cells

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88
Q

How does HIV infect a cell if there are no CD4 markers present?

A

Co-infect w/ another retrovirus

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89
Q

What types of cells are infected by HIV?

A

CD4 helper T cells

Monocytes- macrophages

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90
Q

HIV virons have been isolated from what types of cells?

A

Sperm
Blood
Perinatally

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91
Q

What is Stage I of HIV infection?

A 
Primary HIV infection, lasts 1-4mon
Virus is replicated and shed
P24 Ag detectable, Abs for P24 present
Mononucleoside/flu-like S/Sx
Asymptomatic after 1-3wks
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92
Q

What is Stage II of HIV infection?

A

Latent/Asymptomatic Period
Virus replication/shed at low rate
HIV Abs detectable, CD4 levels decrease

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93
Q

What is Stage III of HIV infection?

A 
Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopaty/AIDS related Complex
Virus replication/shedding a  high rate
Lymphodenopathy
Kaposis Sarcoma
Opportunistic infections
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94
Q

What is Stage IV of HIV infection?

A

AIDS symptomatic period
Decreased CD4, moderate decrease in CD8 cells
Ag P24 appears, viral replication overwhelms CMI

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95
Q

What are the opportunistic infections seen during Stage IV of HIV infections?

A 
TB
Pneumocystitis carini
Fungal infections
Toxoplasmosis gondii
Herpes simplex
Cryptosporidium
Cytomegalovirus
Mycobacterium avian complex
CNS involvement- dementia
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96
Q

What are the S/Sx of a hepatitis infection?

A 
Anorexia
Weight loss
Hepatic tenderness
Jaundice
Dark urine
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97
Q

What is the viral structure of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)?

A

Enveloped DNA

Core- DNA and DNA polymerase

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98
Q

Which HBV Ag presence is associated with relatively high infectivity?

A

HBeAg

“e” antigen of the core

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99
Q

How is HBV transmitted?

A

Parenteral route is most predominant
Contact w/ blood
Needles/syringes

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100
Q

What PT population is at high risk for HBV?

A

IV drug users

Prison populations

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101
Q

What is the incubation time frame for HBV?

A

45-180 days

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102
Q

Define seroconversion

A

Immune response of convsersion from absence of a specific Ab to presence of specific Ab

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103
Q

What is the earliest marker of an acute/infectious state of HBV?

A

HBsAg

Hepatitis B surface Ag

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104
Q

Persistence of HBsAg over __ months implies chronic disease/failure to seroconvert?

A

6mon

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105
Q

What does HBeAg in HBV indicate?

A

Early indicator of acute infection
Active virus replication
Most infectious period
Persistence +10wks indicative of chronic carrier state/chronic liver damage

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106
Q

What does Anti-HBs surface Ag indicate?

A

Convalescence- recovery and immunity

Failure to seroconvert indicative of chronic infection

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107
Q

What type Ag in HBV PTs indicates recovery and immunity?

A

Anti-HBs
Antibody to Hepatitis B Surface Ag
Major protective Ab against HBV
Develops from Vaccine

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108
Q

What Ag in HBV patient is indicative of chronic infection?

A

Failure to seroconvert to Anti-HBs

109
Q

What are the two types of HBV infections?

A

Acute- resolves in 3-6mon

Chronic/chronic carrier- years or decades w/out S/Sx

110
Q

What type of virus particle is Hepatitis C (HCV)?

A

Small lipid enveloped RNA virus

111
Q

How is HCV transmitted?

A

Parenteral route

IV drug use

112
Q

What type of PT population is HCV common in?

A

15-40% of community acquired hepatitis

IV drug users

113
Q

Which type of Hepatitis is commonly transmitted with HIV?

A

HCV

114
Q

Which Hepatitis viruses have vaccines?

A

Hep B
Hep A

Not Hep C- too many Ag subtypes

115
Q

What type of virus particle is Hepatitis A?

A

Small non-enveloped RNA w/ Capsid protein HA Ag

116
Q

How is Hep A transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route- enteric route

Food/water contamination

117
Q

What PT population is Hep A common in?

A 
Institutionalized PTs
Day care children
World travelers
Military
Drug addicts
118
Q

What is Hep A’s incubation period?

A

15-45 days

119
Q

Where does Hep A replicate?

A

Liver AND small intestines

120
Q

How long after Hep A incubation period are PTs feces and blood considered infectious?

A

2-6wks

121
Q

Which form of hepatitis does not have a chronic state/carrier phase?

A

Hep A

122
Q

What type of particle are Hemorrhagic Fever Viruses?

A

Enveloped/filamentous RNA virus

123
Q

What is the contagious level, incubation, duration and mortality of Hemorrhagic Fever viruses?

A

Moderate
Incubation- 21 days
Duration- 5-16 days
Mortality- 10-90%

124
Q

Where is Hantavirus Renal Syndrom located?

Where is Hantavirus Cardiopulmonary located?

A

North Asia, Europe w/ 2-40% mortality rate

North America

125
Q

What type of Hantavirus is infrequent in North America?

A

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)

Sin Nombre virus

126
Q

How is Dengue Fever transmitted?

A

Mosquito

127
Q

S/Sx of Dengue Fever?

A 
Fever
Severe Joint pain (breakbone fever)
Conjunctivitis
Headache
Hemorrhagic form- lower frequency
128
Q

Where is Yellow Fever located in the world?

A

Tropical Afria

Amazon Basin

129
Q

How is Yellow Fever transmitted?

A

Mosquitoes

130
Q

Where is Chickungunya predominant?

A

Africa
SE Asia
South/Central America

131
Q

How is Chickungunya transmitted?

What S/Sx does it cause?

A

Mosquitoes

Dengue-like symptoms

132
Q

What does Rift Valley Fever virus cause?

How is it transmitted?

A

Zoonotic in Africa

Mosquitoes

133
Q

Where is Congo-Crimean Hemorrhagic Fever located?

How is it transmitted?

A

Africa
Middle East->West China
Ticks

134
Q

Where is Lassa Fever Virus located?

How is it transmitted?

A

West Africa

Rodent urine

135
Q

Where is Ebola located?

A

Africa w/ 35% mortality

136
Q

How is ebola carried/transmitted?

How can Ebola NOT be transmitted?

A

Fruit bat/bush meat
Direct contact w/ blood/body fluids (mucus tissues/eyes/open skin wounds)
Aerosol transmission to respiratory tract

137
Q

What is a superspreader?

What virus is spread?

A

3% of infected people spread Ebola to 60% of the victims

138
Q

What is Ebola’s incubation period?

When is the PT considered contagious?

A

Incubation- 21 days
Contagious from day of S/Sx until no virus is in the blood
Semen carries virus for 3mon

139
Q

What is the name of Ebola’s vaccine?

A

Vesicular Stomatitis w/ gene for Ebola’s surface protein

140
Q

What are the S/Sx of Ebola virus?

A 
Sudden fever
Intense weakness 
Muscle pain
Headache
Sore throat
Vomitting/diarrhea
141
Q

What are the long term medical effects of Ebola survivors?

A 
Chronic fatigue
Headaches
Muscle/joint pain
Memory loss
Eye pain/blurry
Hearing loss
142
Q

What kind of virus are the Encephalitis viruses?

A

RNA

143
Q

How is Encephalitis transmitted?

What s the exception?

A

Mosquito from animal to human
Zika- mosquito and semen
Tick borne- ticks

144
Q

What are the mortality rates of encephalitis?

A

20-40%

No vaccine

145
Q

What kind of virus is rabies?

A

RNA

146
Q

How long is rabies incubation period?

A

8 weeks

Replicates at bite site and travels to peripheral nervous system

147
Q

What does Rabies cause?

When is it considered fatal?

A

Infection of brain, eye, salivary gland and skin

Encephalomyelitis- almost always fatal

148
Q

What kind of virus is HPV?

How many types are there?

A

DNA

170 Ag types w/ 40 that are sexually transmitted

149
Q

What does HPV cause?

A

Warts

Types 6 and 11 cause genital warts

150
Q

What kind of virus is Measles?

A

RNA virus

151
Q

How is measles transmitted?

A

Person-to-person w/ respiratory secretions

152
Q

What does Measles cause?

A

Rubeola- red measles

153
Q

What are the S/Sx of measles?

How many days for these to show?

A

3-5: cough, fever, red eyes, macropapular rash
10-12 after exposure, symptoms show
Last for 7-10 days

154
Q

When is measles considered contagious?

A

4 days prior and 4 days after start of symptoms/rash

155
Q

What are the secondary complications of Measles?

A

Diarrhea
Blindness
Inflammation of brain
Pneumonia

156
Q

What kind of virus particle is Mumps?

A

Single stranded enveloped RNA

157
Q

How is Mumps transmitted?

A

Person to person by respiratory secretions

158
Q

What is the incubation and duration of mumps?

A

S/Sx 16-18 days after exposure

Lasts for 4-10 days

159
Q

When is a mumps PT considered contagious?

A

3 days prior and 4 days after S/Sx

160
Q

Post-mumps complications include what?

A

Meningitis
Pancreatitis
Deafness
Testicular/ovarian swelling

161
Q

What kind of viral particle is Molluscum Contagiosum virus?

A

DNA poxvirus

162
Q

What does Molluscum Contagiosum cause?

A

Water warts on face, trunk and extremities

163
Q

What kind of virus is Variola virus?

A

DNA

164
Q

What is the synchronous progression of smallpox?

A

Rash macule vesicles pustules scabs

165
Q

Where does smallpox start and spread?

A

Face, hands and arms, spreads to lower extremeties in 7-16 days
Lesions on palms, soles and mouth

166
Q

How is smallpox spread?

What is it’s mortality percentage?

A

Aerolized virus in droplets or powdered scabs

30%

167
Q

How is smallpox quickly inactivated?

A

UV light

Disinfectants

168
Q

Where is Candida Albicans considered normal flora?

A 
Mouth
Throat
Large Intestine
Vagina
Skin
169
Q

What kind of PT does Candid Albicans cause mild opportunistic infections in?

A 
Mild metabolic/hormonal disorders
Diabetes
Pregnancy
Prolonged ABX 
Chronic alcoholism
Extreme moist skin conditions
170
Q

How does Candida Albicans become an issue?

A

Overgrowth of Albicans due to reduction of normal flora from ABX, hormones or metabolic disorders

171
Q

What kind of issues does Candida Albicans cause?

A 
Oral thrush
Vaginitis
Cutaneous
Nails
Chronic oropharyngeal/esophageal candidasis
Systemic
172
Q

Vaginitis from Candida Albicans is common in what type of PT?

A

Diabetic

Pregnant

173
Q

Define Onychomycosis

A

Candida Albicans under the nail

Hard/thick/brown/striated/grooved nail plate

174
Q

Onychomycosis mimics what other type of infection?

A

Tinea unguim

Ringworm caused by dermatophytes

175
Q

What is typically the first sign of clinical AIDS?

A

Chronic Oropharyngeal and Esophageal Candidiasis

176
Q

What type of systemic infections of Candida Albicans occur in almost all immunocompromised/debilitated PTs?

A

Bronchi/pulmonary
Septicemia
Meningitis
Endocarditis

177
Q

What type of infections does Candida Auris cause?

Why is their treatment difficult?

A 
Blood
heart
Brain
Eyes 
Bone
MDR
178
Q

Where does Candida Auris outbreaks occur?

A

Healthcare settings

179
Q

Infections of Cryptococcus Neoformans in humans is almost always what type of infection?

A

Pulmonary

180
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans affinity for brain and meninges is commonly seen in what compromised PT?

A

AIDS

181
Q

What are the dermatophytic molds?

A

Microsporum
Trichophyton
Epidermophyton

182
Q

What do Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton cause?

A 
Tinea capitis
Tinea pedis
Tinea corporis- 
Tinea cruis- jock itch
Toenail infections
183
Q

What type of mold infects skin and subcutaneous tissue without dissemination to internal organs?

A

Sporothrix schenkii

184
Q

What is the source of Sporothrix schenkii?

How does it enter the body?

A

Soil, wood, vegetation

Trauma

185
Q

Sporothrix schenkii is AKA ?

What type of PT populations is it seen in?

A

Rose gardeners disease

Farmers, nursery workers, florists, forest rangers, mine workers

186
Q

How does Sporothrix schenkii present clinically?

A

Primary lesion- 3 wks after injury
small non-tender nodule that ulcerates causing tissue necrosis and infection of nearby lymph channels

Secondary Lesion- multiple subcutaneous nodules along lymph channels, may ulcerate
Untreated may become chronic

187
Q

What does Histoplasma Capsulatum cause?

A

Systemic mold pathogen from inhalation of spores from bird droppings

188
Q

Where is Histoplasma Capsulatum endemic?

A

Ohio River valley
Mississippi River valley
Africa
Asia

189
Q

How does Histoplasma Capsulatum travel through the body?

What does it cause inside?

A

Inside macrophages

Lung lesions and flu-like S/Sx

190
Q

How do lesions develop with Histoplasma Capsulatum infections?

A 
CMI response too weak, lesions develop on major organs
Pneumonia
Hepatitis
Meningitis
Fatal w/out treatment
191
Q

How does Coccidioides Immitis enter the body?

A

Inhalation, especially after dusty event

192
Q

Where is Coccidioides Immitis an endemic?

A

Southwestern USA
Northern Mexico
South America
Hot, dry, alkaline soil

193
Q

What are the 3 clinical presentations of Coccidioides Immitis?

A

San Joaquin Valley Fever
Valley Fever
Desert Fever

194
Q

What does Coccidioides Immitis do to the body?

A

Pulmonary lesions
Flu-like S/Sx
Disseminates to CNS, bone, cutaneous tissue if CMI is weak

195
Q

What fungus is not considered a pathogen unless it invades an immunocompromised PT?

A

Aspergillus Fumigatus

196
Q

How does Aspergillus Fumigatus enter the body?

A

Inhalation of spores

197
Q

How does Aspergillus Fumigatus present clinically?

A

Sinus infection
Pulmonary/broncial mass
Invasive causing multi-organ disease

198
Q

Where does Aspergillus Flavus toxin develop?

A

Improperly stored/damp nuts, grains, seeds

199
Q

How does Aspergillus Flavus present clinically?

A

Liver damage, severe

200
Q

What does Pneumocystis Jirovecci Pneumonia cause?

A

Pneumonia in compromised PTs
Cancer
Chemo
HIV/AIDS

201
Q

What type of tissues does Pneumocystis Jirovecci Pneumonia attack?

A 
Interstitial/fibrous tissue of lungs causing hypoxia
Non-productive cough
SOB
Night sweats
Fever
202
Q

Pneumocystis Jirovecci Pneumonia risk increases when CD4 numbers are below what amount?

A

Below 200/mm3

203
Q

What type of mold is found growing in buildings and called “Black Mold”?

A

Stachybotyrs chartarum

204
Q

What type of mold can not be proven to link it’s presence with any type of health decrease?

A

Stachybotyrs chartarum

205
Q

What microbe causes Tinea pedis/Tinea Captitis?

A

Microsporum/Trichophyton/Epdiermophyton

206
Q

What microbe causes thrush?

A

Candid Albicans

207
Q

What microbe causes Desert Fever?

A

Coccidiodes Cammitis

208
Q

What microbe causes meningitis due to it’s thick capsule?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

209
Q

What microbe causes vaginitis

A

Candida albicans

210
Q

What microbe causes subcutaneous lesions after wood splinter trauma?

A

Sporothrix schenkii

211
Q

What microbe causes pulmonary lesions after inhalation of spores in MIssissippi/Ohio?

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum

212
Q

What microbe is an opportunistic infection of fingernails?

A

Candida albicans

213
Q

What microbes cause diarrhea?

A

Rotavirus

Norwalk virus

214
Q

What microbe causes myocarditis and pleurodynia?

A

Coxsackie

215
Q

What microbe causes infectious monocucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr

216
Q

What microbe causes conjunctivitis?

A

Adenovirus
Dengue
Zika
Herpes Simplex

217
Q

What microbe is passed congenitally and leads to CNS impairment?

A

Cytomegalovirus

218
Q

What microbes predominantly infect infants?

A

RSV

Rotavirus

219
Q

What microbe causes Acute Respiratory Disease in military recruits?

A

Adenovirus types 4 and 7

220
Q

What microbes cause cold-like S/Sx?

A

Parainfluenza

Adenovirus

221
Q

What microbes cause flu-like S/Sx?

A

HIV- primary
Ebola
Histoplasmosa

222
Q

What microbe causes croup and bronchitis in children?

A

Parainfluenza

223
Q

PT with severe joint pain after traveling to SE Asia but is Negative for dengue has?

A

Chikungunya

224
Q

Which microbe enters the body by inhalation of spores and causes serious CNS infections after disseminating to pulmonary sites?

A

Cryptococcal

225
Q

What makes aflotoxin?

A

Aspergillus flavus

226
Q

Define symbiosis

A

two different organisms of different species living together

227
Q

What are the two types of symbiosis and their definitiions?

A

Commensalism- one organism is benefited, other neither benefits or is harmed
Mutualism- both organisms benefit

228
Q

Define parasitism and the 3 types

A

Symbiotic relationship where parasite is metabolically dependent on host who is adversely affected
Facultative- normally free living but can become opportunistic parasite
Obligate- cannot survive in free living state
Incidental- establishes in host that it doesn’t normally occupy

229
Q

Define Host

A

Living organism, animal or plant that harbors/nourishes another organism

230
Q

Define definitive host

A

Host that harbors adult/sexually reproducing stages of parasite

231
Q

Define intermediate host

A

Host that harbors immature/larva/asexual reproducing forms of parasite

232
Q

Define Reservoir host

A

Host which replaces man in parasite’s life cycle

233
Q

Define Paratenic host

A

Host that transports parasite as it doesn’t undergo development, only passage to final host

234
Q

Define Life cycle

A

Parasite’s growth, development, reproduction

235
Q

Define Infective stage

A

Stage that a parasite can invade and live in a human body

236
Q

Define Infective route

A

Entry point for a parasite to invade human body

237
Q

Define Infective mode

A

How the parasite invades the human body

238
Q

Define vector

A

Carrier, usually arthropod, which transmits infective form of parasite from one host to another

239
Q

Define autoinfection

A

Reinfetion by host due to it’s own source of infection

240
Q

What are the 5 forms of parasites studied?

A 
Adult
Larva
Egg/Ova
Trophozite
Cysts
241
Q

Ingestion of what 4 things may alter/invalidate a sample?

A

Antacids
Antidiarrheal
Mineral oil
ABX

242
Q

Stool samples are taken to test for parasites in what form?

A

Ova

Parasitic

243
Q

Helminth eggs are passed ____ while protozoa eggs are passed _____

A

Continuously

Intermittently

244
Q

What is the best way to for protozoan detection?

A

3 stool samples collected within 6-10days

245
Q

Liquid/diarrhea stool samples need to be examined within what time frame?

A

30min

246
Q

Soft stool samples need to be examined within what time frame?

A

1hr

247
Q

Formed stool samples need to be examined within what time frame?

A

Can be delayed, examined same day

248
Q

What are the 4 types of fecal preservatives?

A

10% Formalin- no stain, yes EIA
Polyvinyl Alcohol- yes stain, no EIA
Merthiolate-Iodine
Sodium Acetate

249
Q

Stool specimens are stored at what temp?

A

4*C

250
Q

Scotch tape test is used for testing for what parasite?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

251
Q

Enterotest-String test is used for detecting what parasites?

A

Protozoa

Helminths

252
Q

Nucleic Acid testing is used for detecting what parasites?

A

Giardia
Cryptosporidium
Entamoeba

253
Q

What parasite can be tested for with blood?

A

Plasmodium

254
Q

What is the best method of controlling parasitic life cycle?

A

Proper disposal of human/animal waste

255
Q

Cooking/freezing foods at what temps for how long interrupts parasitic life cycle?

A

Heating @ 55*C x 1hr

Freezing @ -10*C x 20 days

256
Q

What are the antimalarials?
What are the antihelminthics?
What are the antiprotozoal?

A

Chloroquine phosphate
Praziquantel
Metronidazole

257
Q

Where is Dengue virus found in the world?

A

Tropical/Sub-tropical SE Asia
Africa
Caribbean
Coastal South/Central America

258
Q

Where is Chickungunya found in the world?

A

Africa
SE Asia
Rarely in Americas

259
Q

Where is Marburg Fever virus found in the world?

A

Sub-Saharan Africa

260
Q

Where is West Nile virus found in the world?

A 
Africa
India
Middle East
Europe
USA
261
Q

When is West Nile season?

A

Late summer - early fall

262
Q

Where is Zika found in the world?

A 
Africa
Asia
South Pacific
Brazil
Americas
263
Q

S/Sx of Zika

A 
Fever
Rash 
Joint Pain
Conjunctivitis
Headeache
264
Q

Zika virus is differential/ruled out with what other disease?

A

Guillian Barre Syndrome

265
Q

Where is St Louis and La Crosse Encephalitis viruses found in the world?

A

North, Central, South America

266
Q

Where is East/West/Venezuelan encephalitis virus found?

A

SE USA
Central America
Northern South America

267
Q

Where is Japanese Encephalitis Virus found in the world?

A

Japan

East/SE Asia- China, Korea, India

268
Q

Where is Tick Borne Encephalitis found in the world?

A

Eastern/Central Europe

269
Q

Where is Murray Valley Virus found in the world?

A

Australia

IPAP (212 decks)

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