Microbiology Of The Gut Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of GI infections?

A

Non-inflammatory
Inflammatory
Penetrating

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2
Q

Which pathogen uses the GI tract as a mode of entry but generates no GI symptoms?

A

Poliovirus which is transmitted by aerosols OR foecal contamination of hands and the mouth. It replicas in the oropharyngeal mucosa and lower gastrointestinal mucosa to invade the bloodstream and cause degradation of motor neurones.
There are three serotypes; PV1, PV2 and PV3 which are present in the saliva and faeces of infected people.

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3
Q

What causes non-inflammatory GI infection?

A

Infection occurs in the proximal small bowel, by the action of entero-toxins or mucosal adherence from pathogens.
E.g Vibrio cholerae, E.Coli and Baccilus cereus.

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4
Q

What causes inflammation of GI tract?

A

Colon is subject to mucosal invasion or cytotoxic damage from pathogens. These include Shigella, Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella and E.Coli.

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5
Q

What causes penetration of GI tract?

A

Distal small bowel is the target by pathogens for phagocytosis. These pathogens are salmonella, Yersinia and Listeria monocytogenes.

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6
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Acute infection that causes inflammation of the GI tract, which causes abdominal pain, diarrhoea and vomiting. Antibiotics rarely are useful and there is typically a travel history and can cause post-infection syndromes.

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7
Q

What is post-infection syndromes for gastroenteritis?

A

Can lead to damage to the bowels and create lactose intolerance.

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8
Q

What are enterotoxins?

A

Toxin produced by bacteria which acts on the intestines. It binds chronically to the Gs protein coupled receptor to increase cAMP levels for high Cl- efflux that leads to loss of water in the lumen and watery diarrhoea.

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9
Q

What are cytotoxins?

A

Toxin produced by bacteria which causes cell damage for replication.

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10
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Produced by gram ve+ bacteria which act as superantigens to cause dysregulated immune response and damage cells.

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11
Q

What are endotoxins?

A

Released from LPS in gram ve- bacteria death which elicit a strong immune response of sepsis and are heat stable.

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12
Q

What are the immune defences in the gut?

A

Low gastric pH

Mucus barrier containing lysosomes and IgA

Peristalsis to move contents of gut very fast

Bile salts and acids which target the fat in membranes to cause emulsification.

Presence of gut-associated lymphoid tissue called Peyer’s patches containing B and T cells

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13
Q

What are bile acids?

A

Synthesised by the liver and secreted into the bile. They promote absorption of fat in the small intestine.

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14
Q

What are bile salts?

A

Bile salts are bile acids that have been conjugated with glycine and taurine. Bile salts are important for fat emuslification.

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15
Q

What is the composition of the gut mucosa?

A

Epithelia lined with microvilli to promote reabsorption, and contain crypts filled with stem cells. The epithelia have a mucosal layer containing lysosomes and IgA. Below this is the lamina propia, dense connective tissue containing activated immune cells like lymphocytes.

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16
Q

Where do the Peyer’s patches drain?

A

They are lymphoid associated tissue which remove pathogens into the lymphatic circulation via the mesenteric lymph nodes.

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17
Q

What is the composition of Peyer’s patches?

A

The luminal side is lined with follicle associated epithelial cells containing M cells called micro fold cells which take up antigens to transport to the follicle of Peyer’s patches. The follicle is where B cells reside with T cells and dendritic cells in the surrounding area.

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18
Q

How do naive B and T cells enter the Peyer’s patches?

A

Peyer’s patches release chemokines in response to pathogens in the gut which attracts lymphocytes which are taken up by endothelial venules.

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19
Q

How are pathogens taken up from the gut contents?

A

The antigen is transported across the epithelial lumen to the peyer’s patches by M cells via transcytosis. This is then delivered to dendritic cells to present on MHC receptors for activation of lymphocytes. B cells will produce IgA antibodies to be delivered to the laminate propia for mucosal protection of the gut

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20
Q

How does the gut maintain colonisation resistance?

A

Commensal bacteria of the gut produce toxins called bacteriocins to inhibit the growth of pathogenic bacterial strains.
End products of food metabolism are toxic to pathogens.
There is stimulation of local immune system cells.

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21
Q

Where are the majority of the GI flora located?

A

In the colon, which contains mainly anaerobic bacteria. These include Lactobacillus, bifidobacteria, enterococcus and enterobacteria.

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22
Q

What is the apppendix?

A

Open-ended tube connected to the caecum which contains lymphoid tissue.
Its function is unknown but can become a target for infection by cholera or Clostridium difficile that leads to necrosis and bursting of faeces into abdominal cavity.

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23
Q

What is the micro biome?

A

Sum of all the species in the bowels, which composes majority of the stools. The bacteria in the micro biome are synergistic, and release energy such as sugars, nutrients and outcompete pathogens. When they are found extra-intestinally, it causes peritonitis and urinary tract infections.

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24
Q

Which nutrients does the micro biome release?

A

Iron, calcium and amino acids

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25
Q

What is clostridium dificile?

A

Gram positive bacilli bacteria which forms spores, and is part of the commensal bacteria of the microbiome. It can become pathogenic with the use of antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors and lead to complications such as pseudomembranous colitis and toxic megacolon.

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26
Q

What is pseduomembranous colitis?

A

Inflammation of the colon that leads to yellow cobblestone plaque formation, by infection with C.dificile.

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27
Q

Which group is at risk of C.dificile infection?

A

Elderly and those with a weakened immune system.

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28
Q

What are the common causative agents of C.difficle infection?

A

Antibiotics:
Clindamycin
Cephalosporin
Ciprofloxacin
Co-amoxiclav

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29
Q

How is C.difficile infection treated?

A

Foecal-oral transplant
Isolate patient until 48hrs after last diarrhoea, but there is a high recurrence rate
Hand washing and disinfection of patient contaminants is important
Use of vancomycin, findamycin and metronidazole.

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30
Q

How is clostridium difficle diagnosed?

A

Presence of toxin glutamate dehydrogenase.
Stool culture is not diagnostic.

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31
Q

What is the flora of the upper GI tract?

A

Gram positive bacteria such as lactobacilli and enterococci, which are managed at low levels by peristalsis and immune defences such as gastric acid and IgA. If these are impaired, it leads to bacteria overgrowth and causes diarrhoea.

32
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for bacterial overgrowth?

A

Hydrogen breath test
Increased total flora test

33
Q

What is bacterial overgrowth syndrome?

A

Overgrowth of commensal bacteria that is normally at low levels in the GI tract due to impaired immune defences.

These bacteria take up vitamins and lead to malabsorption, causing deficiency of fat soluble vitamins and macrocytic anaemia.

34
Q

What are the causes of bacterial overgrowth syndrome?

A

Hypochlorhydria: deficiency of stomach acid
Obstruction
High folate and low B12 levels
Disorders with stool motility in diabetes and scleroderma
Blind loop syndrome

35
Q

What is blind loop syndrome?

A

Food bypasses a section of intestine, which can occur due to IBD

36
Q

How is bacterial overgrowth syndrome managed?

A

Aspiration of the small bowel for diagnosis
Nutritional supplements and suppressive anti microbial therapy.

37
Q

What are high levels of clostridium boltae associated with?

A

Abundant in the guts of autistic children.

38
Q

What are high levels of gut actinobacteria associated with?

A

Obesity

39
Q

What are low levels of bifidobacteria associated with?

A

Atopy like asthma.

40
Q

What are low levels of bacteriodes associated with?

A

Commensal bacteria for pathogen protection and nutrient supply to other microbes. Associated with obesity.

41
Q

What are high levels of clostridia bacteria associated with?

A

Atopy such as asthma.

42
Q

What does iron deficiency cause?

A

Microcytic anaemia.

43
Q

What does folate and B12 deficiency cause?

A

Macrocytic anaemia

44
Q

What does Ca2+ deficiency cause?

A

Tetany.

45
Q

What does Vitamin A deficiency cause?

A

Visual acuity.

46
Q

What is selenium deficiency associated with?

A

Dermatitis

47
Q

What is protein deficiency associated with?

A

Weight loss and cachexia.

48
Q

What is fat deficiency associated with?

A

Haemorrhagic stroke, especially if there are low levels of circulating high HDL.

49
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

Chemicals that alter the microbiome such as promoting activity which occurs when ingesting food.

50
Q

What are probiotics?

A

Ingestion of bacteria which are used to indirectly stimulate immune production of IgA, used in conditions with a non-infective aetiology for treatment of established infection.

51
Q

What is the cause of watery diarrhoea?

A

Infection/damage to small intestine.

52
Q

What is the cause of bloody diarrhoea?

A

Infection/Damage to large colon.

53
Q

What is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus in adults
Norovirus in children

54
Q

What is the bacterial cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter jejuni
Salmonella
E.Coli
Vibrio cholerae
Shigella
Listeria
Vibrio cholerae

55
Q

What is rotavirus?

A

Most common viral cause of food posioning in adults, which is transmitted foeco-orally.

56
Q

What is norovirus?

A

Most common viral cause of food poisoning in children. It is a single stranded RNA virus transmitted foeco-orally.

57
Q

What is salmonella?

A

Gram negative bacilli which infects at the ileo-cecal junction to cause inflammation and lead to bloody diarrhoea, with watery diarrhoea in some cases.

Found in raw, undercooked meat or dairy with symptoms lasting 4-7days.

58
Q

What is E.Coli?

A

Gram negative bacilli which is common in traveller’s diarrhoea, through contaminated water or undercooked hamburger meat. It produces enterotoxins that can cause bloody or water diarrhoea, depending on the location. Also leads to haemolytic uraemia syndrome.

59
Q

What is Shigella?

A

Gram negative bacilli which produces endotoxins. It induces uptake by M cells and infects enterocytes laterally, by inhibiting 60s ribosome and depolarising actin and leads to inflammation and bloody diarrhoea. It is transmitted from the faeces of infected people

60
Q

What are parasitic causes of gastroenteritis?

A

Giardiasis
Emoeabasis histolytica
Cryptosporidium

61
Q

What is giardiasis?

A

Parasitic infection from ingestion of contaminated water through swimming or drinking containing cysts. These hatch into tropohozoites in the small intestine and undergo binary fission in enterocytesand cause damage, leading to watery diarrhoea. They form cysts in the large intestines to pass into stools.

62
Q

What is a entamoeba histolytica?

A

Ingestion of cysts from faeco-oral transmission that transforms into trophozoites. These produce proteases and disrupts the large intestine to cause bloody diarrhoea and liver abscess.

63
Q

What is cryptosporidium?

A

Parasitic infection that causes gastroenteritis, transmitted through contaminated water or foeca-oral transmission.

64
Q

Which pathogen is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter jejuni- it is a gram negative bacilli with a curved shape and is oxidase positive, working at high temperatures. It is usually transmitted through contaminated undercooked food, such as pasteurised milk.

65
Q

What are the features of vibrio cholerae?

A

Gram negative bacilli which is sensitive to stomach acid and requires high amounts to cause food posioning. It produces an enterotoxin that causes secretory diarrhoea, which is water due to small intestine targeting so oral hydration therapy is key. Transmitted through unclean water.

66
Q

What are the features of listeria?

A

Gram positive bacilli which is transmitted from contamined meat/dairy or faeco-oral route. It causes gastroenteritis, especially in immunocompromised people.

67
Q

What is the cause of peptic ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori which is caused by gram negative spiral shaped bacteria.

68
Q

What are osmotically active solutes?

A

Sodium, which increases the loss of water into the lumen, causing watery diarrhoea.

69
Q

What is secretory diarrhoea?

A

Increase in the secretion of water/ inhibition of the absorption of water by toxins. It is caused by cholera toxin which is caused by cholera toxin, that increases the loss of anions like chloride.

70
Q

What is exudative diarrhoea?

A

Diarrhoea that occurs due to damage/inflamation of the intestinal mucosa, which presents with blood and pus because of injury.

71
Q

What is osmotic diarrhoea?

A

Too much undigested food which is unabsorbed are in the intestines, which means water is drawn into the bowels and can’t be absorbed by enterocytes properly,

72
Q

What is inflammatory diarrhoea?

A

Damage to the mucosal lining that causes a loss of protein-rich fluid. This can be an autoimmune issue or caused by infection.

73
Q

What is dysentery?

A

Gastrointestinal infection that leads to bloody diarrhoea, caused by large intestine damage. Typically due to agents like shigella, salmonella and entamoeba histolytica.

74
Q

What is the impact of antibiotic use on the gut microbiota?

A

Both oral and systemic antibiotics promote antibiotic resistance strains in the gut microbiota, and enables the growth of Candida albicans and C.difficile infection.

Causes imbalance in the microbiota that leads to build up of toxic secondary metabolites and reduces the production of SCFA for bacterial fermentation of carbohydrates and have an anti-inflammatory effect.

Reduces production of anti-microbial peptides from gut bacteria mucosal immune defences

Increased risk of atopy with early antibiotic use

75
Q

How do cephalosporins affect the gut microbiota?

A

Promote C.difficile and inhibit the growth of bifidobacteria and lactobacillius.