Control of Communicable Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of communicable diseases?

A

Parasitic, fungal, bacterial and viral

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2
Q

What are susceptible groups to infection?

A

Infants, elderly, those receiving medical treatment such as chemotherapy and those who are immunosuppressed

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3
Q

What are the lifestyle factors which increase infection risk?

A

Excessive alcohol consumption, poor nutritional status, People who inject drugs (PWID) which increases risk of hepatitis C.

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4
Q

What is a reservoir for infection?

A

Habitat where pathogen lives and multiplies such as the environment, humans or animals.

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5
Q

How does infection occur?

A

Pathogen seeks path to reservoir, path from reservoir, mode of transmission and path of entry to susceptible host.

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6
Q

What are the types of mode of transmissions?

A

Direct, indirect and airborne

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7
Q

What is direct transmission?

A

Skin to skin contact such as faceo-oral or sexual contact. Conditions include viral GI and STIs,

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8
Q

What is indirect transmission?

A

Includes both vector and vehicle borne transmission.

Vector-borne transmission is through a living organism such as mosquito for malaria.

Vehicle-borne transmission is through an inanimate object such as hepatitis B via cups or injections.

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9
Q

What is airborne transmission?

A

Respiratory such as TB.

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10
Q

What affects the transmission of communicable diseases?

A

Population density
Sanitation
Access to healthcare
Vaccination coverage
Deprivation which reduces preventative action

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11
Q

What is surveillance?

A

Collection, analysis and interpretation of information in order to take action

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12
Q

Why is surveillance important in control of communicable disease?

A

Identify clusters or outbreaks by measuring incidence of disease,
Monitor vaccine uptake and the side effects.
Monitor effectiveness of vaccine and outbreak control measures and antimicrobial resistance

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13
Q

What is passive surveillance?

A

Routinely collected data from health facillities by healthcare services such as lab reports which are generally incomplete are used to gain information about disease.

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14
Q

What is active surveillance?

A

Specifically collected data which includes blood markers that are used for Rare or contagious diseases

This is to achieve completeness.

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15
Q

What is sentinel surveillance?

A

Using select groups or institutions to gain a rough estimate of disease incidence from a limited sample.

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16
Q

What is enhanced surveillance?

A

A type of active surveillance which collects patient data using a range of sources such as detailed questionaires limited to a time/place/purpose.

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17
Q

What is syndromic surveillance?

A

Based on symptoms of patients in clinical settings rather than a diagnosis which can serve as an early warning system.

18
Q

What are healthcare acquired infections?

A

Clostridium dificle, norovirus, MRSA, catheter associated UTI.

These can be from objects, staff, visitors or other patients.

19
Q

Why do infections occur in healthcare settings?

A

High density setting
High number of immmunocompromised people
Invasive procedures such as catheters, ventilators and surgery exposes the body.

20
Q

How can healthcare acquired infections be prevented?

A

Education
Screening
Isolation
Disinfection and decontamination
Learning from previous events through audits and root cause analyses
Hand hygeine.

21
Q

What is an outbreak?

A

—>2 or more people with infection in a particular time/place.
—>There is a higher rate than expected of infection compared to the usual background rate.
—> A single case of infection of a rare disease.

22
Q

What is the reproduction number?

A

Number of new individuals who will contract infection from a single person, in a population where all individuals are susceptible.

23
Q

What is R0?

A

The reproduction number which is highly suscpetible to infection. It varies for different pathogens depending on innate infectiousness and the measures to limit transmission.

24
Q

What is Re?

A

The reproduction number which has some level of immunity such as vaccination or isolation.

25
Q

How can outbreaks be identified?

A

Lab reports
Clinical notifications
Increased demand for certain NHS products or services
Clinical notifications.

26
Q

How can outbreaks be reduced from reservoirs?

A

Culling of birds/pings or using PPE when handling infected animals

27
Q

How can outbreaks be reduced from mode of transmission?

A

Disinfection and decontaimination.

28
Q

How can outbreaks be reduced from susceptible hosts?

A

Immunisation and adequate nutrition

29
Q

What assumptions are made with R0?

A

There is no pre-existing immunity or previous exposure to the disease, therefore everyone is susceptible
No one has been vaccinated against the disease

30
Q

Which factors affect the reproductive number?

A

Duration of infectiousness period
Likelihood of transmission occurring between infectious and susceptible person, which is greater in aerosol transmission
Average rate of contact between infectious and susceptible people

31
Q

What is the disease with the greatest R0?

A

Measles has the greatest reproductive number, followed by chicken pox.

32
Q

What is the order for disease R0?

A

Measles
Chickenpox
COVID-19
Ebola
Influenza

33
Q

What are NOIDs?

A

Notifications of infectious disease, which includes:
Measles
Mumps
Yellow fever
Food poisoning

34
Q

How are outbreaks managed?

A

Using surveillance to identify cases and confirm diagnosis, comparing to a baseline level for disease
Generating a hypotheses for the cause and testing it using analytical epidemiology
Determining a case definition
Communication to the public and organisations.

35
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

A disease outbreak in a large number of hosts within a certain geographical area.

36
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

Spread of disease across multiple areas.

37
Q

What is a case definition?

A

The clinical criteria for a case to be considered as part of an outbreak, which depends on time and place and lab results.

38
Q

How is an outbreak displayed graphically?

A

Epidemic curve, where cases on the y axis are plotted against time on the x axis. This can indicate the characteristic of the outbreak, divided into:
Point source outbreak
Propogate outbreak

39
Q

What is a point source outbreak?

A

Occurs due to a single exposure period, which all cases occur in one incubation period like a meal or an event. This is characterised on an epidemic curve by a singular peak.

40
Q

What is a propogated outbreak?

A

Outbreak has no common source and spreads from person to person, characterised on epidemic curve by separate peaks.

41
Q

Which bodies are responsible for managing HAI’s?

A

Infection prevention and control team
Public Health England
Local authority
Staff