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Year 2 > Block 9 Week 1 > Flashcards

Block 9 Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which virulence factor of streptococcus pnuemoniae allows it to attach to the respiratory linings?

A

Surface adhesins

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2
Q

What are the causes of cardiogenic shock?

A

Myocardial infarction, arrythmia, pulmonary embolism with outflow obstruction

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3
Q

What is infarction?

A

Obstruction of blood supply to organ/tissue

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4
Q

What is the site of infection for streptococcus?

A

Nose, skin, pharynx

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5
Q

What happens following necrosis?

A

Classified based on 3 morphologies:
1)Liquefactive/colliquative necrosis
2) Coagulative necrosis
3) Necrosis

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6
Q

What is Liquefactive/ Collequative necrosis?

A

Digestion of necrotic cells by hydrolytic enzymes and activity of neutrophils, creating an abscess with liquid creamy tissue containing pus. This is associated with infection or brain infarction, with many cellular debris.

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7
Q

What is the gross morphology of liquefactive necrosis?

A

Liquid and creamy yellow pus

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8
Q

What is the micromorphology of liquefactive necrosis?

A

Neutrophils and debris

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9
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Necrotic cavity containing yellow pus.

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10
Q

What is pus?

A

Formed of necrotic cells and primarily dead neutrophils

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11
Q

What is coagulative necrosis?

A

Occurs due to infarction. Cells maintain their architecture initially during necrosis for first few days, but become dry/firm, hard and white with a preserved outline. May result in gangrenous necrosis if it progresses to entire limb.

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12
Q

Dermal papillae

A

Upward projections of dermis into epidermis

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13
Q

What is fibrinoid necrosis?

A

Necrosis in small blood vessels, resulting in immune complexes forming with fibrin, causing thickening of vessel walls.

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14
Q

What is gangrenous necrosis?

A

Loss of blood supply to entire limb due to coagulative nec

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15
Q

What is caesating necrosis?

A

Cell death that causes cheese like appearance, commonly found in tuberculosis with the formation of lung granulomas.

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16
Q

DNA of bacteria

A

Single circular chromosome and contains extracellular DNA in form of plasmid

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17
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

Small strand of circular DNA which replicates independently from the chromosome

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18
Q

Types of prokaryotes

A

Archae and bacteria

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19
Q

What is congestion?

A

Passive process where there is excess blood accummulation or reduced blood outflow

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20
Q

What causes congestion?

A

issue with heart pumping blood away from the area., venous obstruction such as mechanical compression.

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21
Q

No blood supply to the region of body

A

Infarction, associated with necrosis

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22
Q

Decreased/inadequate blood supply causing hypoxia

A

Ischaemia

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23
Q

Scaling

A

Shedding of cornified layer of skin

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24
Q

Saccular aneurysm

A

Aneurysm that bulges only on one side

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25
Q

What is purpura?

A

Intermediate sized haemhorrage under the skin caused by trauma or vasculitis. May be underlying cause for thrombocytopenia

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26
Q

What is petechia?

A

Smallest haemorrhage size caused by thrombocytopenia.

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27
Q

What is stenosis?

A

Narrowing of blood vessels

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28
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Subcutaneous haematoma due to breakdown of Hb -> Bilirubin and haemosiderin

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29
Q

Chronic pulmonary congestion

A

Excessive accumulation of blood in pulmonary artery. There is increased pressure on vessels which allow erythrocytes to leak out and macrophages to engulf erythrocytes and form a brownish haemosiderin

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30
Q

Neoplasia

A

Uncontrolled abnormal growth of cells associated with a tumour

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31
Q

Metaplasia

A

Environmental stimuli triggers benign change of replacement of mature cell type by different differentiated cell

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32
Q

Which stains react with anionic components?

A

Basic stains

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33
Q

ANeurysm

A

Enlargmeent of blood vessel caused by weakness in wall

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34
Q

Natural break down of blood clot

A

Fibrinolysis

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35
Q

Difference between fibrinolysis and thrombolysis

A

Fibrinolysis occurs in the body during healing process where fibrin in the clot is dissolved. Thrombolysis is the term for a group of medications to break down a clot

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36
Q

Using medication to break down clots

A

Thrombolysis

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37
Q

Sublethal changes to cell

A

Pale cyptoplasm, vacuolar degeneration, fatty changes

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38
Q

Conversion of one cell type to another

A

Transdifferentiation occurs in metaplasia

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39
Q

Serotyping

A

Identifiying antibodies based on their specificy

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40
Q

Acid fast bacteria

A

Kiehls- Neelsen stain is used because they resist decolourisation during typical staining due to presence of mycolic acid

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41
Q

Which sensation receptors are present in the skin?

A

Thermoreceptors, nociceptors, mechanoreceptors

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42
Q

Erosion

A

Loss of epidermis and papillary dermis

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43
Q

Infectioous eukaryotes

A

Fungi and parasites

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44
Q

Which glands secrete periodically?

A

Appocrine glands such as mamillry glands, axillae glands and groin glands. THey release via apocrine secretion into upper hair follicle, mixing with sebaceous secretion

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45
Q

Which glands secrete continuouslty?

A

Eccrine glands, releasing secretions of Na+ and H20.

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46
Q

Merocrine secretion

A

Eccrine glands- simple coiled tubular

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47
Q

Apocrine secretion

A

Apocrine glands - compound coiled tubular/ alveolar

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48
Q

Glands in mamillary, axillae and groin region

A

Apocrine gland

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49
Q

Antigenic variation

A

Bacteria change immunogenicity at high frequency

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50
Q

Which layer of the dermis does thermoregulation occur?

A

Papillary dermis

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51
Q

Desquamation

A

Shedding of dead corneoycytes

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52
Q

Which stage of wound healing is bacteria and damaged tissue removed?

A

Inflammation

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53
Q

Physical protection of skin

A

Against chemicals, water, infectious agents, mechanical damage

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54
Q

Superficial wound healing

A

Regenerate from basal layer

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55
Q

Action of lysozymes

A

Dissolve bacterial cell wall

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56
Q

Karyorrhexis

A

Fragmentation of cell nucleus due to cell necrosis

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57
Q

Pykyonosis

A

Shrinking/condensation of chromatin during cell necrosis

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58
Q

Lipid extrusion in epidermis

A

Occurs in stratum granulosum with the formation of lamellar bodies via enzymatic processing

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59
Q

which laer of epidermis do keratinocytes stop dividing?

A

Stratum spinosum, where they exit cell cycle and become tonofilaments

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60
Q

Late differentiation marker of keratinocytes in epidermal layer

A

Stratum granulosum

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61
Q

Thick skin

A

Contains more undulations in epidermal- dermal junction for attachment.

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62
Q

Cell type of stratum basale

A

Simple cuboidal

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63
Q

Decrease in number/size of cells

A

Atrophy

64
Q

Dysplasia

A

Abnormal development of cells which is progressive, loss of cell polarity and nuclear hyperchromasia.

65
Q

Site of hair regeneration

A

Hair papilla at the base of the follicle

66
Q

Which dyes react with cationic components?

A

Acidic dyes

67
Q

Composition of subcutis layer?

A

Loose connective tissue,

68
Q

Hair cuticle

A

Plauqes which join together

69
Q

LD50

A

Lethal does of bacteria which causes 50% animal mortaility

70
Q

Toxin that is heat labile, produced by gram + and gram -

A

Exotoxin that has a specific target

71
Q

Infarct

A

Area of necrosis caused by occlusion of arterial supply or venous drainage

72
Q

What is the consequence of pulmonary embolism?

A

Cardiogenic shock

73
Q

Bacterial cell envelope

A

Cell wall and cyptoplasmic membrane

74
Q

What are the complication of aneurysm?

A

May rupture which causes internal bleeding. It is also a major site for clot formation or emoblisation which can lead to occlusion

75
Q

What is a mural thrombi?

A

Arterial thrombi attached to the vessel wall

76
Q

Thrombus formed under low shear-flow

A

Venous thrombi which is fibrin and erythrocyte rich

77
Q

Role of peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria

A

Forms periplasm to mantain bacterial shape

78
Q

Which cell synthesises Vitamin D?

A

Keratinocytes in the presence of UV

79
Q

Causes of thrombus formation

A

Endothelial injury, changes in intravascular pressure, hypercoagubility

80
Q

Present of cell surface of peptidoglycan

A

Teichoic acid with phosphodiester bonds

81
Q

Callus

A

Hyperplasia of peidermis due to pressure/friction

82
Q

Peripheral arterial disease

A

Atheroma plaques in the arms and legs

83
Q

Agar

A

Used as a preparation agent

84
Q

Macconkey agar?

A

Differential agar to determine if bacteria can use lactose

85
Q

Which bacteria are lactose positive?

A

Salmonella

86
Q

Which bacteria are lactose negative?

A

E.coli

87
Q

Karyorrhexis

A

Degeneration of the cell nucleus

88
Q

Cauaes of decreased colloid oncotic pressure

A

Loss of protein through burns, urine due to issue with kidneys or faces in bowel disease

89
Q

Athersoclerosis formation

A

Endothelial cell damage releases ROS and allows entry of LDL into tunica intima which become oxidised. This causes activation of macrophage receptors on LDL. Macrophages engulf oxidised LDL and become foam cells. These release chemokines to attract more LDL. They initiate smooth muscle migration via IgF-1 from tunica media which increases collagen generation and forms plaque. This plaque can rupture and result in coagulation and formation of clotl

90
Q

Causes of haemhorrage?

A

Trauma
Atherosclerosis
Inflammation
Erosion of tumour

91
Q

Obligate intracellular

A

Cannot reproduce outside the host cell and uses IC resources.

92
Q

Extracellular

A

Can reproduce outside host cell

93
Q

Ploidy

A

Number of sets of chromosomes

94
Q

Hyperaemia?

A

Adaptive change where blood volume in tissues increases

95
Q

Virulence

A

Ability to cause disease/degree of disease caused

96
Q

Steatosis

A

Fatty liver

97
Q

Which organ does metaplasia occur?

A

Pancreas from acinar -> duct cells

98
Q

Which bacteria uses lactose as carbon source?

A

E.coli bacteria

99
Q

Sepsis

A

Systemic release of IgF-1 causes vasodilation, activation of complement system of C3a and C5a with dysregulation of immune system

100
Q

Virulence factors for salmonella

A

Endotoxins in LPS layer, exotoxin enterotxin that cause diarrhoea, O antigen, fibriae for adhesion

101
Q

O antigen

A

Present in gram negative bacteria which prevents destruction by phagocytes

102
Q

Cytotoxin

A

Inhibits host cell protein sysnthesis, causing calcium influx

103
Q

Touch sensation of Merkel cells

A

DIscriminative fine touch

104
Q

Type 3 molecules

A

Secreted by bacterium directly into host cell

105
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

Gram negative bacteria which increases adenylyate cyclase activitiy in the small intestine, affecting Na+ and CL- influx. Releases the enterotoxin

106
Q

Free DNA taken up from environment

A

Transformation

107
Q

Overload indicates irreversible cell damage

A

Ca2+

108
Q

Where does energy production occur in bacteria?

A

Cyptoplasmic membrane

109
Q

Types of acid fast bacterium

A

Mycobacterium, tuberculosis

110
Q

Rete ridges

A

Downward projections of epidermis into dermis

111
Q

Types of metaplsia

A

Squamous metaplasia in endocervix from cubodial, acinar-ductal in the pancreas and intestinal

112
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Heart does not pump enough due to myocardial damage

113
Q

Local congestion

A

Compression of blood vessels due to tumour or venous obstruction

114
Q

Macule, patch, erythema

A

Lesion with skin colour issue due to melanocyte or blood flow

115
Q

Precursor to dysplasia

A

Metaplasia

116
Q

Cause of pulmonary embolus

A

DVT

117
Q

Pathogens only associated with human disease

A

Overt/strict pathogens

118
Q

Spores

A

Single celled reproductive bodies resistant to cell damage

119
Q

Cause of sepsis

A

Bacteraemia (bacteria in bloodstream)

120
Q

THromboembolsim

A

Blood clot which becomes stuck and occludes vessel

121
Q

Nuclear atypia

A

Abnormal appearance of cell nuclei

122
Q

Example of obligate intracellular parasite

A

Viruses

123
Q

Shock caused by obstructive blood flow to heart or pulmonary artery

A

Obstructive shock

124
Q

Cause of pitting oedema

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure

125
Q

Most common infarct

A

Arterial occlusion

126
Q

Vomiting, coughing, angina

A

Coronary artery blockage

127
Q

Weakness, dysphea, facial numbness

A

Carotid artery blockage

128
Q

What are the burn zones?

A

Coagulation zone, stasis zone, zone of hyperaemia

129
Q

Coagulation zone

A

Region of burn where cell necrosis occurs which is irreversible

130
Q

Stasis zone

A

Reduction in blood flow and perfusion which is reversible if oxygen supply is increased and nutrition

131
Q

Zone of hyperaemia

A

Most external area which is inflammatory and has increased perfusion. Full recovery unless there is sepsis or ischaemia

132
Q

What are the causes of lobar pneumonia?

A

Infection with streptoccus pneumonia that causes lung consolidation

133
Q

What are the stages of lobar pneumonia?

A

Consolidation
Red hepatisization
Grey hepatization
Resolution

134
Q

What is red hepatisation?

A

Lung becomes dry, airless with a liver-like consistency.RBC, WBC and debris clog the airways.

135
Q

What is grey hepatization?

A

Fibrin, RBC and haemosiderin are broken down to fluid-like exudate, macrophages form and lungs turn grey.

136
Q

Resolution in lobar pneumonia

A

Macrophages clear debris and leftover WBC and breakdown products are re-absorbed.

137
Q

Alpha-haemolysin

A

Partial breakdown of Hb

138
Q

Beta-haemolysin

A

Complete breakdown of Hb

139
Q

What is immortalisation?

A

Cancer cells become immortalised and do not age due to increasing telomere production which prevents chromosomal shortening.

140
Q

Dysplasia

A

Development of abnormal cell architecture, nuclear atypia and loss of cell polarity due to cytoskeletal changes. Occurs in HPV infection

141
Q

What are the precursors to mast cells?

A

Basophils

142
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

Contains tight intracellular junctions of desmosomes to attach to the cytoskeleton of cells

143
Q

Downward projections in dermis

A

Rete ridges

144
Q

Upward projections in dermis

A

Dermal papillae

145
Q

Where do hair cells divide?

A

Papilla

146
Q

What are the solid lesions?

A

Papule, plaque, nodule and wheal

147
Q

What are the causes of decreased colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Liver cirrhosis and malnutrition

148
Q

How can protein be lost?

A

Urine due to haemolytic disease
Faeces due to bowel disease
Skin due to burns

149
Q

Which bacteria do not take up the gram stain?

A

Acid fast bacteria. Mycobacterium tuberculosis which has a thick waxy coat that prevents uptake

150
Q

Conjugation

A

Transport of plasmid from one bacterium to another

151
Q

Transduction

A

Use of bacteriophage to transmit genetic information

152
Q

What are the stages of bacterial growth?

A

Lag
Exponential
Stationary
Death

153
Q

Type 3 secreted molecule

A

Protein used by gram negative bacteria to inject effector proteins directly into the host cell cyptoplasm.

154
Q

Endotoxins

A

Part of the LPS of gram negative bacteria which have weak toxic effects, released via cytolysis. It is generally heat labile.

155
Q

Exotoxins

A

Highly toxic heat senstivie released extracellularly by gram positive and gram negative

156
Q

What promotes the growth of clostridium dificile?

A

Primary bile acids promote germination of the spores. Secondary suppress growth.

157
Q
A

Year 2 (247 decks)

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