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Year 2 > Immune Cells > Flashcards

Immune Cells Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells release the majority of TNF?

A

Macrophages release TNF to co-activate other macrophages and T cells. It has an anti-tumour effect and mediates response to gram negative bacteria.

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2
Q

How does Achilles tendonitis present?

A

Pain on the posterior aspect of the ankle and issues with plantarflexion.

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3
Q

Which antibody provides infants with passive immunity?

A

IgA, which is found in mucus, breast milk and saliva secretions as a dimmer.

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4
Q

What is the role of IgA?

A

Activating the alternative complement pathway.

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5
Q

What is the most common immunodeficiency?

A

Severe IgA deficiency, caused by heterophile antibodies, which interact with multiple ligands and may cause positive BLOOD pregnancy test.

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6
Q

What is the most abundant antibody?

A

IgG, which is the only antibody that can cross the placenta and has the longest serum half life. It provides passive immunity to foetus during pregnancy.

However, this antibody can cause neonatal hypersensitivities.

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7
Q

What is the role of IgM?

A

First antibody to be produced in an infection and therefore used as a new infection marker. and is responsible for agglutination. It exists as a pen tamer.

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8
Q

How do type 1 hypersensitivity reactions develop?

A

Requires at least two exposures.
First exposure causes sensitisation and production of IgE.
Second exposure causes antigen to bind to IgE on mast cells.

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9
Q

What is vasculitis?

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity that causes inflammation of blood vessels

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10
Q

What type of reaction is granuloma formation?

A

Delayed type 4 hypersensitivity.

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11
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is an acute response to transfusion/transplant?

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

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12
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity, that causes glomerulonephritis due to immun eocmplex deposition.

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13
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease is a rare genetic condition that impairs the ability of neutrophils to produce reactive oxygen species

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14
Q

What is the role of the complement proteins?

A

Opsonisation of pathogens and phagocytosis.

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15
Q

What is Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Type II hypersensitivity caused by IgG mediated recognising type IV collagen in kidney glomerulus basement membrane

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16
Q

What is the role of IgD?

A

Bound to B cells and consists of delta chains, and may play a role in B cell activation.

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17
Q

Which WBC has the shortest lifespan?

A

Neutrophils, that live only 6-8 hours.

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18
Q

What is the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophils

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19
Q

Which immune cell is important for parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophils

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20
Q

What cell is responsible for fever?

A

Macrophages that produce IL-1 which is the major pyrogen

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21
Q

What is the role of NK cells?

A

Innate immune response, for destroying malignant or virally infected cells by acting on MHC class 1. It contains granules of protease and perfoin to induce apoptosis in cells.

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22
Q

Which cells express MHC Class 1?

A

All nucleotide cells, including platelets

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23
Q

What are the liver macrophages?

A

Kuppfer/Stellate cells

24
Q

Which antimicrobial compound is found in breast milk and saliva?

A

Lactoferrin which is present in breast milk, saliva and tears.

25
Q

What causes a raise in MCV?

A

MCV is the size of RBC, which is greater with Macrocytic anaemia such as B12 and folate.

26
Q

What is haematocrit?

A

Ratio of RBCs to the blood volume

27
Q

What is the role of granulocyte-colony stimulating factor?

A

Increases number of neutrophils.

28
Q

What are osteoclasts a progenitor of?

A

Monocytes

29
Q

How does previous exposure change antibody response?

A

The IgM response is the same in the primary and secondary immune responses, but the IgG response is much greater in the secondary immune response

30
Q

How do dendritic cells work?

A

Antigen presenting cells to lymphocytes.
Perform phagocytosis, and then mature to migrate to peripheral lymphoma organs.

31
Q

Which cells produce IFN-gamma?

A

T cells and NK cells which induce macrophage activation

32
Q

Which cells produce TNF-alpha?

A

Macrophages for cell necrosis or apopotosis. BCL-2 proteins are involved in apoptosis.

TNF-alpha is especially good against gram negative bacteria

33
Q

What are the live vaccines?

A

BCG vaccine
Varicella vaccine
M. Bovis vaccine
Yellow fever vaccine
INTRANASAL influenza vaccine
MMR

34
Q

Which vaccines are subunit?

A

Subunit vaccines contain a PORTION of the antigen.

Hep B vaccine
DTP vaccine
HPV vaccine
Men B
Men C
Haemophilius influenza vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccine

35
Q

What is the role of beta defensin?

A

Beta defensin along with fatty acids are a chemcical barrier in the skin.

36
Q

What is the role of lysozymes?

A

Chemical barrier in the eye, oral cavity and nose, present in tear and saliva.

37
Q

Which vaccine can never be used in HIV patients?

A

Intransal influenza vaccine
BCG vaccine for tuberculosis
Typhoid vaccine

38
Q

Which live vaccines are safe for HIV?

A

MMR
Varicella zoster
Yellow fever

39
Q

What is peripheral tolerance?

A

Self-reactive B and T cells are destroyed in secondary lymphoid organs or systemic circulation

40
Q

What is central tolerance?

A

Removing auto reactive B and T cells as they are being formed for the first time in the primary lymphoid organs.

41
Q

Which cytokine recruits neutrophils to infection site?

A

IL-8

42
Q

Which cells are agranulocytes?

A

Monocytes and lymphocytes

43
Q

What is the role of IL-4?

A

Increases IgE secretion from B cells

44
Q

What is the role of IL-5?

A

Chemotaxis of eosinophils and Increases IgA secretion from B cells

45
Q

What is the role of Th1 cells?

A

Intracelllar pathogen, such as viruses

46
Q

What is the role of Th2 cells?

A

Extracellular pathogens such as parasitic worms

47
Q

Where are T cells found in the lymph nodes?

A

Paracortex, middle section of lymph node where T cells are activated by dendritic cells.

48
Q

What is the medulla of the lymph node?

A

Innermost portion containing B cells and plasma cells

49
Q

Which inflammatory bowel condition increases infection risk?

A

Coeliac disease, due to hyposplenism that increases the risk of infection. Therefore booster vaccines are recommended.

50
Q

What is a sign of hyperacute graft rejection?

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity due to blood incompatibility, that causes widespread thrombosis.

51
Q

What is a sign of chronic graft rejection?

A

Arteriosclerosis
Interstitial fibrosis

52
Q

What is the role of chemokines?

A

Attract immune cells to infection site

53
Q

Which HLA is importantly for reducing graft rejection?

A

HLA-DR

54
Q

How do eosinophils act?

A

Respiratory burst

55
Q

Why is there increased infection risk in DDiGeorge syndrome?

A

Under development of thymus

Year 2 (247 decks)

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