Drugs In The Management Of Musculoskeletal Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What is an osteoclast?

A

Multinucleated cell for bone dissolution and absorption contained within Howship lacunae in bone

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2
Q

What is an osteoblasts?

A

Important for bone cell synthesis, derived from mesenchymal stem cell progenitors in the periosteum which require a blood supply to undergo differentiation.

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3
Q

What happens when there is insufficient blood supply in osteoblasts synthesis?

A

Mesenchymal stem cell progenitor will differentiate into —> chondroblast which will form cartilage rather than bone.

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4
Q

How do osteoclasts resorp bone?

A

Osteoclasts have an outer membrane called the ruffled border, lined with integrin receptors for binding to bone and create a sealing space. Osteoclasts first pump acidic H+ ions into the sealing space, disintegrating hydroxyapatite crystals and its contents are taken up by osteoclasts for distribution to capillaries. They also pump metalloproteases for cartilage degradation, collagenase, cathespin K protein and lysosomal enzymes. Osteoclasts use GTP proteins for vesicular trafficking of breakdown products.

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5
Q

How is osteogenesis regulated?

A

Osteoblasts will release RANK-L ligand to bind to osteoclasts and induce maturation. When bone density is low, osteoblasts produce OPG ligand to bind to RANKL and prevent binding for osteoclast activation.

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6
Q

How can MSK disorders be treated?

A

Diet and exercise: —> for nutrition and the exercise of stress for maintenance of bone density
Drugs:
Replacement of joints

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7
Q

Which factors increase osteoclast activity?

A

Hypoxia
Smoking
Alcohol intake
High cortisol levels
Low BMI
Hyperactive adrenal gland
Immobilisation

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8
Q

What are bisphosphates?

A

Analogue of pyrophosphate which binds to calcium ions in hydroxyapatite crystals which act on osteoclasts when they resorp bones to induce apoptosis. It contains 2 phosphate groups which increase its specificity for calcium to bind to bones and increase duration of action.

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9
Q

What are the side effects of bisphosphate?

A

May result in osteonecrosis of the jaw, hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. In the long term, results in atypical femoral fracture.

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10
Q

What is pyrophosphate?

A

An acid which prevents calcium mineralisation and increases calcium accumulation for regulation of osteogenesis.

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11
Q

Why are bisphosphates given?

A

For post-menopausal women
Glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis.

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12
Q

What are the classes of bisphosphates?

A

Nitrogen containing bisphosphates
Non-nitrogen containing bisphosphates

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13
Q

How do Non-nitrogen containing bisphosphates work?

A

They contain a nitrogen R group which is methyl compound and acts to inhibit osteoclast apoptosis and prevent osteoclast development.
When broken down, bisphosphate forms a non-hydrolysable ATP analogue which is non functional and competes with ATP for cellular metabolism, interfering with ATP dependent processes

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14
Q

What are isoprenoids?

A

Naturally occurring chemical compounds which contain isoprene. Examples of these include vitamin A and Vitamin E. They are important in post-transcriptional modification of small GTP binding proteins such as Rab, Rho and RAC.

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15
Q

What are GTP binding proteins?

A

AKA G proteins which are secondary messenger molecules

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16
Q

How do nitrogen containing bisphosphates work?

A

They contain an amine R group and important for osteoclast apoptosis to increase osteoblasts formation. It acts by inhibiting Farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase for biosynthesis of isoprenoid compounds. This inhibits post-transcriptional modification of GTP proteins for activity in the sealing space by osteoclasts.

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17
Q

What is the osteonecrosis of jaw?

A

Death of the mandible cells caused by use of bisphosphates. The risk factors include poor dental hygeine, prolonged exposure to high dose bisphosphates and invasive dental procedures.

18
Q

How can HRT be used to treat osteoporosis?

A

Supplementation of oestrogen and/or progesterone prevents bone resorption
Use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators which bind to oestrogen receptors with both agonist and antagonistic effects depending on target tissue. It avoids the adverse off target side effects.

19
Q

How does calcitonin work?

A

Released when calcium levels are high in the blood by C cells of the parathyroid gland to increase osteoblast activity and reduce Ca2+ re absorption.

20
Q

What is the hormonal control of Ca2+ levels?

A

Thyroid gland c cells produce calcitonin when Ca2+ levels are high to decreases osteoclast activity, reducing bone resorption.
Parathyroid gland produces PTH hormone when Ca2+ levels are low to increase osteoclast activity and increase bone resorption.

21
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDS
Disease modifying Antigens
Steroids
Biological therapies

22
Q

How do NSAIDS work?

A

Inhibit COX enzymes for the conversion of arachidionic acid -> prostaglandins/thromboxane/prostacyclin in inflammation. For rheumatoid arthritis, ideally the main NSAID should be COX-2 specific such as coxibs for inhibition of prostaglandin formation associated with pain.
** Used to treat the inflammatory manifestations of the disease.**

23
Q

What is the difference between COX-1 and COX-2?

A

COX-1: Arachidonic acid -> prostacyclin, thromboxane and prostaglandins which maintain stomach and intestine lining. COX-1 is found in most tissues
COX-2: Arachidionic acid -> prostaglandins associated with pain and inflammation. COX-2 is expressed only in inflammation

24
Q

What are DMARDS?

A

Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs which are used as a treatment for the underlying inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, typically alongside NSAIDs. There are two types of DMARDS which are small molecule DMARDS and biologic DMARDS. These can be used to achieve RA remission.

25
Q

What are small molecule DMARDs?

A

Chemical compounds synthetically produced which target specific proteins to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. It has immunosuppressive qualities and associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression.

26
Q

What are biologic DMARDS?

A

Antibodies which target specific proteins involved in inflammation such as cytokines. Due to their high specificity, there is a smaller range of side effects however it is more expensive so only used as an alternative when small molecule DMARDS are ineffective. They have a slower onset of action

27
Q

What are the side effects of NSAIDs?

A

NSAIDs can cause serious GIT side effects such as peptic ulcers and bleeding and ischaemic heart disease. It causes ischaemic heart disease because NSAIDs reduce inflammation and preventing renal prostaglandins acting for vasodilation, causing more salt and water retention and lower renal GFR.

28
Q

What is the first line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis

A

The small molecule DMARD methotrexate. This acts by inhibiting the ATIC enzyme which breaks down adenosine. Adenosine is a nucleoside consisting of adenine bound to ribose. Methotrexate increases levels of adenosine which binds to receptors to block the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as IL-2 by increasing cAMP production and block WBC activation.

29
Q

What are the examples of small molecule DMARDs?

A

Methotrexate
Chloroquinine
Sulfazaline
Azathriopine
Chloroquinine
Cyclophosphamide

30
Q

What is the side effect of methotrexate?

A

It has a high free concentration in the blood and typically causes mild symptoms such as rash and stomach pain. It can cause severe symptoms such as renal fibrosis, bone marrow suppression and folic acid deficiency because of its inhibition of DHF re-educates so requires folic acid supplementation alongside.

31
Q

How is sulphasalazine used as a treatment for RA?

A

Sulphasalazine is a small molecule DMARD that is a prodrug consisting of sulphapyramidine and 5-aminosalicylic acid. It acts to inhibits the lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase pathway for pro-inflammatory cytokines and reduces folate absorption so cannot be given in pregnancy.

32
Q

What is the side effect of sulphasalazine?

A

It reduces folate absorption and leads to megaloblastic anaemia. It has immunosuppressive qualities and reduces WBC count. It causes low sperm count.

33
Q

How does azathriopine treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A

It is an immunosuppressant which targets B and T cells and downregulates purine synthesis.

34
Q

How does Chloroquinine treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A

It has an unknown mechanism of action for rheumatoid arthritis and is a typical anti-malarial. However, it affects antigen presentation in the immune system and requires 2-4 months to assess its effectively.

35
Q

What is the synthetic DMARD triple therapy?

A

Use of Chloroquinine, sulphasalazine and methotrexate

36
Q

How do biological DMARDs work?

A

TNF inhibitors such as adalimumab and infliximumab and etanercept inhibit TNF which is a key inflammatory mediator produced by macrophages in rheumatoid arthritis. However, they increase the risk of re-infection with TB or varicella zoster and when used with azathriopine, there is a risk of lymphoma.

37
Q

What is the features of infliximumab?

A

Variable region which is chimeric because it is derived from a mouse and a constant region of human IgG to targets TNF alpha.

38
Q

How does etanercept work?

A

It is a biologic DMARD which inhibits TNF-alpha. It consists of IgG molecule with TNF receptor on variable region to collect out TNF present in body serum.

39
Q

What is rituximab?

A

Non-TNF biologic DMARD which targets the CD20 receptor on B lymphocytes to inhibit antibody production for inflammation.

40
Q

How does cyclophosphamide treat RA?

A

Alkylating drug which causes DNA fragmentation , used in severe rheumatoid arthritis.

41
Q

How does cyclophosphamide treat RA?

A

Non-selective alkylation agent which causes DNA damage via cross-linking and nucleotide mispairing. It is used in severe rheumatoid arthritis because it suppresses the immune system for inflammation however regular blood counts should be taken to monitor.

42
Q

How does cyclosporin treat RA?

A

Immunosuppressant which inhibits calcineurine for T cell activation that would typically produce pro-inflammatory cytokines like IL-2, IL-4 and TNF-alpha. It is used in severe rheumatoid arthritis. Should never be taken with grapefruit juice