HLTH substance abuse and special senses Flashcards
1
Q
substance abuse meaning
A
is the inappropriate or unnecessary use of substances that impairs a person’s function in some way to some extent
2
Q
habit meaning
A
refers to a regular practice of using substances at regular or frequent intervals
3
Q
dependence meaning
A
refers to both psychological and physiological dependence and cravings for the substance
4
Q
physiological dependence meaning
A
the body has adapted to the substance and if not taken, withdrawal symptoms will appear
5
Q
psychological dependence meaning
A
refers to a continuing desire for the substance to be able to function
6
Q
addiction meaning
A
more severe form of substance abuse in which the desire to use a substance is uncontrollable and may interfere with personal relationships and employment
7
Q
4 modes of action of drugs
A
CNS depressants, narcotics, stimulants, and psychedelics
8
Q
example of a CNS depressant
A
alcohol
9
Q
example of a narcotic
A
painkillers
10
Q
example of a stimulant
A
caffeine or amphetamines
11
Q
speed/uppers meaning
A
amphetamines
12
Q
angel dust meaning
A
phencyclidine
13
Q
snow or powder meaning
A
cocaine
14
Q
crank/ice/crystal meaning
A
meth
15
Q
meth effect
A
it stimulates the body by increasing dopamine in the brain but damages dopamine producing receptors as an effect
16
Q
effects of high doses of meth
A
high body temperatures and seizures
17
Q
blow meaning
A
heroin
18
Q
ecstasy/molly meaning
A
MDMA
19
Q
special K/lady K meaning
A
ketamine
20
Q
bath salts
A
are newer drugs and are cheaper substitutes for meth and coke but are dangerous and can cause cathinone intoxication
21
Q
dronabinol (Marinol), or delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol
A
is a cannabinoid and can be used for nausea associated with cancer or AIDS
22
Q
what percent of traffic-related death are caused by alcohol?
A
40%
23
Q
causes of substance abuse
A
genetics, family history, disease, the availability of drugs, stress, and increased acceptance
24
Q
M and M parties
A
are parties amongst youth in which their medicine cabinets are radided and combined at the party
25
date rape drugs
flunitrazepam (roofies), gamma-hydroxybutyrate, or lorazepam
26
lorazepam effect
depresses the CNS and causes a deep sleep
27
how can drugs impair neurological function?
decrease reflexes, reduce coordination and judgement, and impair sensitivity and perception
28
example of a synergistic combination of drugs causing overdose
barbiturates and morphine or heroin; this combination depresses the CNS and respiratory function
29
effect of naloxone
it stimulates the respiratory drive
30
side effect of ecstasy
elevates BP which can cause brain damage, increases body temperature, and increases basal metabolic rate; therefore can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
31
common signs of withdrawal
irritability, tremors, nausea, vomiting, high BP, psychotic episodes, and seizures
32
cocaine effect on the mother
hypertension, decreasing blood supply to the placenta and resulting in premature births
33
cocaine and barbiturates effect on the child
addiction and withdrawal
34
cocaine general effects
increased HR and BP, leading to MI, stoke, or heart failure; amphetamines have the same effect
35
physical effects of hallucinogens
increased BP, tremors, and nausea
36
effect of alcohol on the CNS
Wernicke syndrome which is confusion, disorientation, and a loss of motor control, as well as Korsakoff psychosis, which is altered personality and amnesia
37
methadone
is a synthetic opioid that reduces withdrawal symptoms, improves function, and decreases cravings
38
disulfiram
is a deterrent to alcohol use and causes adverse reactions when the individual ingests any alcohol (headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, and difficulty breathing)
39
common deficiencies for substance abuse
protein and vitamin B
40
muscle sense
refers to proprioceptors
41
protection for the eye
the bony orbit, the palpebrae, and the eyelashes
42
muscle of the eyelid
levator palpebrae superioris
43
what nerves are the recti muscles of the eye controlled by?
III, IV, and IV; levator palpebrae superioris is only controlled by III
44
what secretes aqueous humor into the eye?
the ciliary processes (in the posterior chamber)
45
why is repair of the lens difficult?
no vessels and no organelles in the cells
46
3 types of cones
red, blue, and green
47
colour blindness cause
is a deficit of one type of cone due to an abnormal gene on the X chromosome
48
anterior cavity
contains the anterior chamber and posterior chamber and is the space between the cornea and the lens
49
anterior chamber
extends from the cornea to the iris
50
posterior chamber
between the iris and the lens
51
where does aqueous humor exit the eye from?
the canal of schlemm (in the anterior chamber)
52
average pressure in the eye
15 mm Hg
53
where does the aqueous humor deliver nutrients to?
the lens and the cornea
54
purpose of having two eyes
provides a wider visual field
55
purpose of the overlap of the visual fields
depth perception
56
Snellen chart
is the chart with progressively small letters
57
tonometry
will asses intraocular pressure by checking the resistance of the cornea
58
myopia
is nearsightedness and is fixed with concave lens
59
hyperopia
is farsightedness and is fixed with convex lens
60
presbyopia
is farsightedness associated with aging due to loss of elasticity in the eye
61
astigmatism
is an irregular curvature in the cornea or lens
62
strabismus
is cross eyed and results from a deviation in one eye, causing double vision
63
cause of strabismus
a weak or hypertonic eye or a neurological deficit
64
amblyopia
is the suppression by the brain of the visual images from the affected eye due to strabismus
65
nystagmus
is an involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes, resulting in a back and forth, jerky movement
66
causes of nystagmus
neurological causes like in the cerebellum or the inner ear, or from drug toxicity
67
stye
is an infection of a hair follicle on the eyelid, usually caused by a staphylococci
68
signs of conjunctivitis
redness, itching, and excessive teary discharge
69
pink eye infective organsism
S aureus
70
pink eye
is an infection of the sclera and eyelid, causing purulent discharge; is spread by fingers or contaminated towels
71
what infections can contact lenses cause?
keratitis and conjunctivitis
72
STDs and eye infections
chlamydia and gonorrhea can cause infection in the newborn's eye and gonorrhea can be transferred to the adult eyes through the fingers
73
trachoma
is an infection of the eye caused by chlamydia that causes follicles to develop on the inner surface of the eye and is very contagious
74
complications of trachoma
can cause eyelashes to turn inwards towards the cornea, can cause scarring, and vision loss
75
signs of trachoma
scratchy eye and pearl like follicles when turning the eye upwards
76
keratitis
is the inflammation of the cornea that causes severe pain and photophobia; there is a risk of ulceration and scar tissue interfering with vision, and in severe cases it can cause vision loss
77
what virus can often lead to keratitis?
herpes simplex
78
glaucoma
is an increase in intraocular pressure due to an increase in aqueous humor
79
narrow angle glaucoma
occurs when the angle between the cornea and the iris is decreased by factors like an abnormal insertion of the iris; this blocks the outflow of fluid, especially when the pupil is dilated; this is acute
80
wide angle glacuoma
is the chronic type and occurs when the trabecular network and the canal of schlemm are obstructed and the outflow of fluid is decreased; pressure slowly increases, affecting the anterior eye first, then causing ischemia and damage to retinal cells, and eventually blindness
81
causes of wide angle glaucoma
aging
82
causes of narrow angle glaucoma
a developmental defect, aging, scar tissue, or trauma from infection
83
signs of glaucoma
intraocular pressure, peripheral vision is diminished, blurred vision and appearance of halos, nausea, and headache
84
what may stimulate acute glaucoma?
pupil dilation which may be caused by drugs such as those for hay fever, decongestants, stress, or prolonged periods in dark rooms
85
cataract
occurs when the lens becomes cloudy, interfering with vision
86
causes of cataracts
aging, exposure to sunlight, metabolic abnormalities like diabetes, trauma, or congenital (due to maternal viruses)
87
signs of cataracts
progressive blurring vision of the visual field that gets darker over time
88
how does cataract surgery work?
the damaged lens is broken up by phacoemulsification and removed by suction
89
detached retina
is an acute problem and occurs when the retina detaches from the choroid and causes vitreous humor to leak behind tear, making the tear worse and interfering with retina function
90
causes of a detached retina
myopia, aging, or scar tissue that create tension of the retina
91
signs of a detached retina
dark spots that progress to area of blackness in the visual field (dark curtain) and no pain
92
age-related macular degeneration
is both related to aging and genetic factors and is degeneration at the fovea centralis; this occurs in two types (wet and dry)
93
dry macular degeneration
is the more common type and is when deposits form in retinal cells, gradullary destroying them
94
wet macular degeneration
neovascularization occurs with the formation of abnormal, leaky vessels that destroy the retina
95
signs of macular degeneration
is painless and central vision becomes blurred and depth perception is also affected
96
dry macular degeneration treatment
ensuring that vitamin, mineral, and antioxidant intake is sufficient, including zinc
97
wet macular degeneration treatment
photodynamic therapy that seals off the neovasculature and the drug pegaptanib
98
suspensory ligament
connects the lens to the ciliary body
99
visual field tests
check central and peripheral vision
100
ophthalmoscope
is used to check the interior structures of the eye
101
gonioscopy
measures the angle of the anterior chamber
102
main feature of macular degeneration
the nutrients cannot pass from the choroid to the retina
103
components of the outer ear
pinna and the external auditory canal
104
components of the middle ear
tympanic membrane, ossicles, and the auditory canal
105
function of the auditory canal
it equalizes pressure in the middle ear with the external ear
106
another name for the inner ear
the labyrinth
107
parts of the inner ear
the cochlea and the semicircular canals
108
what does the height of a sound wave determine?
loudness
109
what does the number of sound waves per minute/frequency determine?
the pitch
110
where is balance and equilibrium focused in the semicircular canals?
the crista ampullaris
111
what can vestibular damage cause?
vertigo
112
2 types of hearing loss
conduction and sensorineural
113
conduction hearing loss
occurs when sound is lost from the external or middle ear and can be due to wax or scar tissue
114
2 types of sensorineural hearing loss
sensory and neural
115
sensorineural hearing loss
occurs when there is damage to the organ of corti or the auditory nerve and can be due to viruses, certain drugs, loud sounds, aging, or congenital issues
116
what viruses can cause sensorineural hearing loss
rubella, influenza, or herpes
117
early sign from ototoxic drugs
tinnitus
118
ototoxic drugs
are those that may cause sensorineural hearing loss and can be antibiotics like mycin drugs or other drugs like aspirin, ibuprofen, or furosemide (diuretic)
119
presbycusis
refers to loss of hearing in older individuals due to a reduced number of hair cells
120
how does an implant for hearing work?
sound is picked up by an external microphone and bypasses many structures to reach the auditory nerve; useful when the receptor cells are damaged but the nerve is still intact
121
otitis media
is an inflammation or infection of the middle ear cavity, in which the accumulation of exudate causes pressure on the tympanic membrane and interferes with the ossicles, as well the auditory tube is often obstructed
122
what can prolonged otitis media lead to?
scar tissue and adhesions which may cause hearing loss
123
causes of otitis media
can be due to spread of infection from the respiratory tract (more common in children) and is more common in winter months
124
otalgia
refers to an earache
125
signs of otitis media
earache, red and swollen tympanic membrane, some mild hearing loss, purulent exudate, and fever and nausea in some cases
126
cholesteatoma
is a cyst like mass of epithelial cells that may form during chronic otitis media and this may erode the ossicles and cause hearing loss
127
otitis externa
commonly called swimmers ear and is commonly a bacterial infection of the pinnacle and external auditory canal
128
causes of otitis externa
swimming, irritation when cleaning the ear, or headphones
129
signs of otitis externa
pain, purulent discharge, and some hearing loss
130
how to distunish otitis externa from media?
in externa, pain of the pinna is increased with movement
131
otosclerosis
is an imbalance of bone formation and resorption in the middle ear, in which the ossicles become large, causing the stapes to be fixed to the oval window and block sound into the cochlea; is often genetic
132
ménière syndrome
is an inner ear condition in which excessive endolymph develops, stretching the membranes and interfering with function in the cochlea and vestibule
133
ménière syndrome attack cause
can be due to the rupture of the labyrinth membrane, causing perilymph to mix with endolymph, increasing volume
134
ménière syndrome signs
vertigo, tinnitus, increased pressure, nausea, sweating, unilateral hearing loss, nystagmus, and inability to focus
135
predisposing factor of ménière syndrome attacks
stress
136
what can repeated attacks of ménière syndrome cause?
damage to the hair cells, vertigo, and hearing loss
137
what is the auditory canal continuous with?
the mucosa of the respiratory system and the mastoid cells
