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Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH substance abuse and special senses > Flashcards

HLTH substance abuse and special senses Flashcards

1
Q

substance abuse meaning

A

is the inappropriate or unnecessary use of substances that impairs a person’s function in some way to some extent

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2
Q

habit meaning

A

refers to a regular practice of using substances at regular or frequent intervals

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3
Q

dependence meaning

A

refers to both psychological and physiological dependence and cravings for the substance

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4
Q

physiological dependence meaning

A

the body has adapted to the substance and if not taken, withdrawal symptoms will appear

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5
Q

psychological dependence meaning

A

refers to a continuing desire for the substance to be able to function

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6
Q

addiction meaning

A

more severe form of substance abuse in which the desire to use a substance is uncontrollable and may interfere with personal relationships and employment

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7
Q

4 modes of action of drugs

A

CNS depressants, narcotics, stimulants, and psychedelics

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8
Q

example of a CNS depressant

A

alcohol

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9
Q

example of a narcotic

A

painkillers

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10
Q

example of a stimulant

A

caffeine or amphetamines

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11
Q

speed/uppers meaning

A

amphetamines

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12
Q

angel dust meaning

A

phencyclidine

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13
Q

snow or powder meaning

A

cocaine

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14
Q

crank/ice/crystal meaning

A

meth

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15
Q

meth effect

A

it stimulates the body by increasing dopamine in the brain but damages dopamine producing receptors as an effect

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16
Q

effects of high doses of meth

A

high body temperatures and seizures

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17
Q

blow meaning

A

heroin

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18
Q

ecstasy/molly meaning

A

MDMA

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19
Q

special K/lady K meaning

A

ketamine

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20
Q

bath salts

A

are newer drugs and are cheaper substitutes for meth and coke but are dangerous and can cause cathinone intoxication

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21
Q

dronabinol (Marinol), or delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol

A

is a cannabinoid and can be used for nausea associated with cancer or AIDS

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22
Q

what percent of traffic-related death are caused by alcohol?

A

40%

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23
Q

causes of substance abuse

A

genetics, family history, disease, the availability of drugs, stress, and increased acceptance

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24
Q

M and M parties

A

are parties amongst youth in which their medicine cabinets are radided and combined at the party

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25
Q

date rape drugs

A

flunitrazepam (roofies), gamma-hydroxybutyrate, or lorazepam

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26
Q

lorazepam effect

A

depresses the CNS and causes a deep sleep

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27
Q

how can drugs impair neurological function?

A

decrease reflexes, reduce coordination and judgement, and impair sensitivity and perception

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28
Q

example of a synergistic combination of drugs causing overdose

A

barbiturates and morphine or heroin; this combination depresses the CNS and respiratory function

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29
Q

effect of naloxone

A

it stimulates the respiratory drive

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30
Q

side effect of ecstasy

A

elevates BP which can cause brain damage, increases body temperature, and increases basal metabolic rate; therefore can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

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31
Q

common signs of withdrawal

A

irritability, tremors, nausea, vomiting, high BP, psychotic episodes, and seizures

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32
Q

cocaine effect on the mother

A

hypertension, decreasing blood supply to the placenta and resulting in premature births

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33
Q

cocaine and barbiturates effect on the child

A

addiction and withdrawal

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34
Q

cocaine general effects

A

increased HR and BP, leading to MI, stoke, or heart failure; amphetamines have the same effect

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35
Q

physical effects of hallucinogens

A

increased BP, tremors, and nausea

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36
Q

effect of alcohol on the CNS

A

Wernicke syndrome which is confusion, disorientation, and a loss of motor control, as well as Korsakoff psychosis, which is altered personality and amnesia

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37
Q

methadone

A

is a synthetic opioid that reduces withdrawal symptoms, improves function, and decreases cravings

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38
Q

disulfiram

A

is a deterrent to alcohol use and causes adverse reactions when the individual ingests any alcohol (headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, and difficulty breathing)

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39
Q

common deficiencies for substance abuse

A

protein and vitamin B

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40
Q

muscle sense

A

refers to proprioceptors

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41
Q

protection for the eye

A

the bony orbit, the palpebrae, and the eyelashes

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42
Q

muscle of the eyelid

A

levator palpebrae superioris

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43
Q

what nerves are the recti muscles of the eye controlled by?

A

III, IV, and IV; levator palpebrae superioris is only controlled by III

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44
Q

what secretes aqueous humor into the eye?

A

the ciliary processes (in the posterior chamber)

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45
Q

why is repair of the lens difficult?

A

no vessels and no organelles in the cells

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46
Q

3 types of cones

A

red, blue, and green

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47
Q

colour blindness cause

A

is a deficit of one type of cone due to an abnormal gene on the X chromosome

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48
Q

anterior cavity

A

contains the anterior chamber and posterior chamber and is the space between the cornea and the lens

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49
Q

anterior chamber

A

extends from the cornea to the iris

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50
Q

posterior chamber

A

between the iris and the lens

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51
Q

where does aqueous humor exit the eye from?

A

the canal of schlemm (in the anterior chamber)

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52
Q

average pressure in the eye

A

15 mm Hg

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53
Q

where does the aqueous humor deliver nutrients to?

A

the lens and the cornea

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54
Q

purpose of having two eyes

A

provides a wider visual field

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55
Q

purpose of the overlap of the visual fields

A

depth perception

56
Q

Snellen chart

A

is the chart with progressively small letters

57
Q

tonometry

A

will asses intraocular pressure by checking the resistance of the cornea

58
Q

myopia

A

is nearsightedness and is fixed with concave lens

59
Q

hyperopia

A

is farsightedness and is fixed with convex lens

60
Q

presbyopia

A

is farsightedness associated with aging due to loss of elasticity in the eye

61
Q

astigmatism

A

is an irregular curvature in the cornea or lens

62
Q

strabismus

A

is cross eyed and results from a deviation in one eye, causing double vision

63
Q

cause of strabismus

A

a weak or hypertonic eye or a neurological deficit

64
Q

amblyopia

A

is the suppression by the brain of the visual images from the affected eye due to strabismus

65
Q

nystagmus

A

is an involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes, resulting in a back and forth, jerky movement

66
Q

causes of nystagmus

A

neurological causes like in the cerebellum or the inner ear, or from drug toxicity

67
Q

stye

A

is an infection of a hair follicle on the eyelid, usually caused by a staphylococci

68
Q

signs of conjunctivitis

A

redness, itching, and excessive teary discharge

69
Q

pink eye infective organsism

A

S aureus

70
Q

pink eye

A

is an infection of the sclera and eyelid, causing purulent discharge; is spread by fingers or contaminated towels

71
Q

what infections can contact lenses cause?

A

keratitis and conjunctivitis

72
Q

STDs and eye infections

A

chlamydia and gonorrhea can cause infection in the newborn’s eye and gonorrhea can be transferred to the adult eyes through the fingers

73
Q

trachoma

A

is an infection of the eye caused by chlamydia that causes follicles to develop on the inner surface of the eye and is very contagious

74
Q

complications of trachoma

A

can cause eyelashes to turn inwards towards the cornea, can cause scarring, and vision loss

75
Q

signs of trachoma

A

scratchy eye and pearl like follicles when turning the eye upwards

76
Q

keratitis

A

is the inflammation of the cornea that causes severe pain and photophobia; there is a risk of ulceration and scar tissue interfering with vision, and in severe cases it can cause vision loss

77
Q

what virus can often lead to keratitis?

A

herpes simplex

78
Q

glaucoma

A

is an increase in intraocular pressure due to an increase in aqueous humor

79
Q

narrow angle glaucoma

A

occurs when the angle between the cornea and the iris is decreased by factors like an abnormal insertion of the iris; this blocks the outflow of fluid, especially when the pupil is dilated; this is acute

80
Q

wide angle glacuoma

A

is the chronic type and occurs when the trabecular network and the canal of schlemm are obstructed and the outflow of fluid is decreased; pressure slowly increases, affecting the anterior eye first, then causing ischemia and damage to retinal cells, and eventually blindness

81
Q

causes of wide angle glaucoma

A

aging

82
Q

causes of narrow angle glaucoma

A

a developmental defect, aging, scar tissue, or trauma from infection

83
Q

signs of glaucoma

A

intraocular pressure, peripheral vision is diminished, blurred vision and appearance of halos, nausea, and headache

84
Q

what may stimulate acute glaucoma?

A

pupil dilation which may be caused by drugs such as those for hay fever, decongestants, stress, or prolonged periods in dark rooms

85
Q

cataract

A

occurs when the lens becomes cloudy, interfering with vision

86
Q

causes of cataracts

A

aging, exposure to sunlight, metabolic abnormalities like diabetes, trauma, or congenital (due to maternal viruses)

87
Q

signs of cataracts

A

progressive blurring vision of the visual field that gets darker over time

88
Q

how does cataract surgery work?

A

the damaged lens is broken up by phacoemulsification and removed by suction

89
Q

detached retina

A

is an acute problem and occurs when the retina detaches from the choroid and causes vitreous humor to leak behind tear, making the tear worse and interfering with retina function

90
Q

causes of a detached retina

A

myopia, aging, or scar tissue that create tension of the retina

91
Q

signs of a detached retina

A

dark spots that progress to area of blackness in the visual field (dark curtain) and no pain

92
Q

age-related macular degeneration

A

is both related to aging and genetic factors and is degeneration at the fovea centralis; this occurs in two types (wet and dry)

93
Q

dry macular degeneration

A

is the more common type and is when deposits form in retinal cells, gradullary destroying them

94
Q

wet macular degeneration

A

neovascularization occurs with the formation of abnormal, leaky vessels that destroy the retina

95
Q

signs of macular degeneration

A

is painless and central vision becomes blurred and depth perception is also affected

96
Q

dry macular degeneration treatment

A

ensuring that vitamin, mineral, and antioxidant intake is sufficient, including zinc

97
Q

wet macular degeneration treatment

A

photodynamic therapy that seals off the neovasculature and the drug pegaptanib

98
Q

suspensory ligament

A

connects the lens to the ciliary body

99
Q

visual field tests

A

check central and peripheral vision

100
Q

ophthalmoscope

A

is used to check the interior structures of the eye

101
Q

gonioscopy

A

measures the angle of the anterior chamber

102
Q

main feature of macular degeneration

A

the nutrients cannot pass from the choroid to the retina

103
Q

components of the outer ear

A

pinna and the external auditory canal

104
Q

components of the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane, ossicles, and the auditory canal

105
Q

function of the auditory canal

A

it equalizes pressure in the middle ear with the external ear

106
Q

another name for the inner ear

A

the labyrinth

107
Q

parts of the inner ear

A

the cochlea and the semicircular canals

108
Q

what does the height of a sound wave determine?

A

loudness

109
Q

what does the number of sound waves per minute/frequency determine?

A

the pitch

110
Q

where is balance and equilibrium focused in the semicircular canals?

A

the crista ampullaris

111
Q

what can vestibular damage cause?

A

vertigo

112
Q

2 types of hearing loss

A

conduction and sensorineural

113
Q

conduction hearing loss

A

occurs when sound is lost from the external or middle ear and can be due to wax or scar tissue

114
Q

2 types of sensorineural hearing loss

A

sensory and neural

115
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

occurs when there is damage to the organ of corti or the auditory nerve and can be due to viruses, certain drugs, loud sounds, aging, or congenital issues

116
Q

what viruses can cause sensorineural hearing loss

A

rubella, influenza, or herpes

117
Q

early sign from ototoxic drugs

A

tinnitus

118
Q

ototoxic drugs

A

are those that may cause sensorineural hearing loss and can be antibiotics like mycin drugs or other drugs like aspirin, ibuprofen, or furosemide (diuretic)

119
Q

presbycusis

A

refers to loss of hearing in older individuals due to a reduced number of hair cells

120
Q

how does an implant for hearing work?

A

sound is picked up by an external microphone and bypasses many structures to reach the auditory nerve; useful when the receptor cells are damaged but the nerve is still intact

121
Q

otitis media

A

is an inflammation or infection of the middle ear cavity, in which the accumulation of exudate causes pressure on the tympanic membrane and interferes with the ossicles, as well the auditory tube is often obstructed

122
Q

what can prolonged otitis media lead to?

A

scar tissue and adhesions which may cause hearing loss

123
Q

causes of otitis media

A

can be due to spread of infection from the respiratory tract (more common in children) and is more common in winter months

124
Q

otalgia

A

refers to an earache

125
Q

signs of otitis media

A

earache, red and swollen tympanic membrane, some mild hearing loss, purulent exudate, and fever and nausea in some cases

126
Q

cholesteatoma

A

is a cyst like mass of epithelial cells that may form during chronic otitis media and this may erode the ossicles and cause hearing loss

127
Q

otitis externa

A

commonly called swimmers ear and is commonly a bacterial infection of the pinnacle and external auditory canal

128
Q

causes of otitis externa

A

swimming, irritation when cleaning the ear, or headphones

129
Q

signs of otitis externa

A

pain, purulent discharge, and some hearing loss

130
Q

how to distunish otitis externa from media?

A

in externa, pain of the pinna is increased with movement

131
Q

otosclerosis

A

is an imbalance of bone formation and resorption in the middle ear, in which the ossicles become large, causing the stapes to be fixed to the oval window and block sound into the cochlea; is often genetic

132
Q

ménière syndrome

A

is an inner ear condition in which excessive endolymph develops, stretching the membranes and interfering with function in the cochlea and vestibule

133
Q

ménière syndrome attack cause

A

can be due to the rupture of the labyrinth membrane, causing perilymph to mix with endolymph, increasing volume

134
Q

ménière syndrome signs

A

vertigo, tinnitus, increased pressure, nausea, sweating, unilateral hearing loss, nystagmus, and inability to focus

135
Q

predisposing factor of ménière syndrome attacks

A

stress

136
Q

what can repeated attacks of ménière syndrome cause?

A

damage to the hair cells, vertigo, and hearing loss

137
Q

what is the auditory canal continuous with?

A

the mucosa of the respiratory system and the mastoid cells

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

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