Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH male and female disorders, and STIs > Flashcards

HLTH male and female disorders, and STIs Flashcards

1
Q

the scrotal sac

A

is continuous with the perineum and has a muscle layer and fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

semen volume

A

2-5 mL, containing 100-200 million sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

FSH role in males

A

initiates spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LH role in males

A

stimulates testosterone production by the interstitial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

roles of testosterone

A

maturation of sperm, development of secondary sex characteristics, protein metabolism, and skeletal muscle development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

epispadias

A

is a congenital defect in which there is an urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis, proximal to the glans; can lead to incontinence, infections, and exstrophy of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

exstrophy of the bladder

A

is a failure of the abdominal wall to form across the midline and is associated with epispadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hypospadias

A

is a congenital defect in which this is an urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis and is more severe than epispadias; can lead to chordee (ventral curvature of the penis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chordee

A

is a ventral curvature of the penis and is associated with hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

peyronie’s disease

A

is a condition resulting from the development of fibrous scar tissue on the penis that may cause pain and/or a bend, interfering with sex and causing erectile dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of peyronie’s disease

A

is often due to injury, but can also be disorders of the CT or hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cryptorchidism

A

occurs when one or both of the testes fail to descend into their normal position during the latter part of pregnancy; can be in the abdominal cavity or an abnormal position (called ectopic testis); in many cases spontaneous descent will happen during the first few years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

causes of cryptorchidism

A

hormonal abnormalities, a short spermatic cord, or a small inguinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

complication of cryptorchidism

A

the seminiferous tubules degenerate and spermatogenesis is impaired, causing infertility; can also lead to testicular cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hydrocele

A

occurs when excessive fluid accumulates in potential space between the layers of the tunica vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

causes of hydrocele

A

can be congenital when peritoneal fluid accumulates in the scrotum, when the processes of the tunica vaginalis remain open in an inguinal hernia, or can be from injury, infection, or a tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

spermatocele

A

is a cyst containing fluid and sperm that develops between the testis and the epididymis outside of the tunica vaginalis; this may be related to an abnormality of the tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

varicocele

A

is a dilated vein of the spermatic cord, usually on the left side and develops following puberty due to a lack of valves in the veins, causing backflow of blood and an increase in pressure; if serious, this can lead to infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

torsion of the testis

A

occurs when the testis rotate on the spermatic cord, compressing the vessels, causing ischemia to develop and the testis swell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

category 1 of prostatitis

A

acute bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

category 2 of prostatitis

A

chronic bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

category 3 of prostatitis

A

nonbacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

category 4 of prostatitis

A

asymptomatic inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

prostatitis

A

is an ascending infection and inflammation of the testis that has many causes (4 categories) and is associated with UTIs;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

prostatodynia

A

means painful prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute bacterial prostatitis apperance and urine characteristics

A

causes a tender, soft, and swollen gland, and urine often contains microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nonbacterial prostatitis apperance and urine characteristics

A

is confirmed by leukocytes in the urine and the prostate gland usually isn’t enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

chronic prostatitis apperance

A

prostate is slightly enlarged, irregular, and firm due to fibrosis tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

acute bacterial prostatitis cause

A

usually is an ascending infection from the urethra from E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

chronic bacterial prostatitis cause

A

recurrent infection from E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

risk factors for developing bacterial prostatitis

A

UTIs, benign prostatic hypertrophy, STDs like gonorrhea, and sometimes through systemic circulation spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

signs of prostatitis

A

dysuria, frequency, urgency, lower back pain, fever, chills, and obstruction of urine flow; in nonbacterial, the systemic signs are less marked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

balanitis

A

is a fungal infection of the glans penis that is transmitted during sex and common in uncircumcised men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

balanitis causative organsim

A

candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

signs of balanitis

A

vesicles that develop into patches, itching, and burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

epididymitis

A

is inflammation of the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

orchitis

A

is inflammation of the testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

epididymo-orchitis

A

is inflammation of both the epididymis and the testis and is caused by both bacteria and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

causative agents of epididymo-orchitis

A

before sexual activity it often is E coli and during sexual activity it is often gonorrhea or chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

is hyperplasia of the prostate with formation of nodules around the urethra and is present in 50% of men 65+, leading to compression of the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cause of benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

imbalance between estrogen and testosterone associated with aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

signs of benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

enlarged prostate, incomplete emptying (leads to frequency), reduced stream, frequent infections, and a distended bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

most common type of prostate cancer

A

adenocarcinomas arising from tissue near the surface of the gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

metastasis of prostatic cancer

A

regional lymph nodes, urethra, and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

causes of prostatic cancer

A

can be inherited from the HPC1 gene, increased insulin-like growth factor, high androgen levels, and recurrent prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

signs of prostatic cancer

A

a hard nodule, often on the posterior surface of the gland and urethral obstruction causing hesitancy, a decreased stream, frequency, and bladder infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

two serum markers in prostate cancer

A

prostate-specific antigen and prostatic acid phosphatase (elevated when it has spread)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3 factors for confirmation of prostate cancer

A

elevated PSA, rectal exam, and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where does testicular cancer often arise from?

A

germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

testicular cancer

A

is most often malignant and occurs primarily in the 15-35 age group; mixed tumors are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

teratoma

A

means mixed testicular tumor containing different types of germ cells; it is often combined with an embryonal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

seminoma

A

is a type of testicular cancer arising from only one type of cell; the spread is less aggressive than mixed cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

serum markers for testicular cancer

A

hCG and alpha-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

spread of testicular cancer

A

follows a pattern in which it first spreads to the common iliac and paraaortic lymph nodes and then in the mediastinal and supraclavicular lymph nodes; then it spreads to brain, bone, liver, and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cause of testicular cancer

A

is often genetic and inherited on chromosome 12, but also can be cryptorchidism, infection, or trauma related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

signs of testicular cancer

A

hard, firm, unilateral mass, enlarged and heavy feeling testis, dull aching pain in the abdomen, hydrocele, epididymitis, and gynecomastia (enlarged breasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

gynecomastia meaning

A

enlarged breasts in testicular cancer due to the tumor secreting hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

where are non-motile sperm stored until ejaculation?

A

the ampulla of the vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what male disorders are distinguished by transillumination?

A

hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

acquired hydrocele meaning

A

is from injury, trauma, or cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

type of testicular cancer that spreads early on

A

choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

coitus meaning

A

intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

leukorrhea

A

is vaginal discharge that is produced by the skene’s and bartholin’s glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

lactobacillus role for female reproductive anatomy

A

it contributes to the acidic pH of the vagina during reproductive years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

endocervical canal

A

is the passageway extending from the internal os (end of uterus) to the external os (at the vaginal end)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

squamous-columnar junction

A

where the epithelium changes from stratified squamous to simple columnar and is at the endocervical canal; this is a common location for cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

menarche

A

refers to the first period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is breast development stimulated by?

A

estrogen; estrogen and progesterone play a role in cyclic changes in the breast every month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

acini

A

are the functional units of the breasts and consist of cells that secrete milk and those that move the milk through the ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what converts the follicle to the corpus luteum?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

signs of a marked retroversion of the uterus?

A

back pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia (painful intercourse)

72
Q

uterine prolapse

A

is the descent of the uterus or cervix into the vagina and there are different degrees of this

73
Q

first degree prolapse

A

is when the cervix drops down into the vagina

74
Q

second degree prolapse

A

is when the cervix lies at the opening of the vagina and the uterus is in the vagina

75
Q

third degree prolapse

A

is when the cervix and uterus hang out of the vaginal orifice

76
Q

signs of prolapse

A

first and second degree are usually asymptomatic but third degree causes some mild discomfort and a feeling of heaviness

77
Q

cystocele

A

is the protrusion of the urinary bladder into the anterior wall of the vagina; this causes incomplete emptying and predisposes to cystitis

78
Q

rectocele

A

is the protrusion of the rectum into the posterior wall of the vagina; this can interfere with defecation

79
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

refers to never getting one’s first period and can be due to turner syndrome, hypothalamus/pituitary disorders, or the absence of the uterus

80
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

is the cessation of one’s period when they have already gotten it; can be due to tumors, stress, sudden weight loss, eating disorders, participation in competitive sports, chemo, or anemia

81
Q

NSAIDs and dysmenorrhea

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis thus relieve cramping and pain

82
Q

secondary dysmenorrhea

A

results form disorders like endometriosis, uterine polyps, tumors, or PID

83
Q

menorrhagia meaning

A

increased amount of flow

84
Q

polymenorrhea meaning

A

short cycles of < 3 weeks

85
Q

oligomenorrhea meaning

A

long cycles of >6 weeks

86
Q

metrorrhagia meaning

A

bleeding between cycles

87
Q

usual cause of menstrual abnormalities

A

is due to a lack of ovulation but can also be due to thyroid disorders or tumors

88
Q

premenstrual dysphoric syndrome

A

refers to more severe PMS

89
Q

endometriosis

A

refers to the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus, on structures like the tubes, ovaries, and in some cases, the lungs; the ectopic tissue responds to cyclic changes (growing, shedding, and bleeding), in which blood is irritating to these tissues

90
Q

cause of recurrent endometriosis

A

inflammation with each cycle eventually leads to the development of fibrous scar tissue, which can cause adhesions and obstructions

91
Q

endometriosis and infertility

A

can develop due to the adhesions or obstructions that block the uterus, tubes, or ovaries

92
Q

‘chocolate cyst’ meaning

A

occurs when endometrial tissue forms on the ovaries and contains a sac of old, brown blood

93
Q

primary symptom of endometriosis

A

dysmenorrhea which becomes more severe each month

94
Q

vaginitis

A

is an infection and inflammation of the vagina, often caused by changes in natural flora, but can also be yeast infection, protozoan infections, irritation due to feminine hygiene products, or atrophy due to menopause

95
Q

cervicitis

A

is inflammation of the cervix, often associated with STDs

96
Q

salpingitis

A

refers to inflammation of the tubes

97
Q

oophoritis

A

refers to inflammation of the ovaries

98
Q

mastitis

A

refers to inflammation of the mammary gland and is often caused by S aureus

99
Q

primary causative organism of toxic shock

A

S aureus

100
Q

candidiasis

A

aka yeast infection; this is not transmitted sexually and is caused by opportunistic flora

101
Q

causative organism of candidiasis

A

C. albicans

102
Q

causes of candidiasis

A

often follows antibiotic therapy, but also may occur when host resistance is decreased or when glycogen levels in the vaginal secretions decrease

103
Q

candidiasis signs

A

red, swollen, and itchy mucus membranes with a white, thick, curd like discharge; dysuria and dyspareunia may also occur

104
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease

A

is an infection of the female reproductive tract, particularly the tubes and ovaries

105
Q

complications of PID

A

acute problems like peritonitis and pelvic abscess, and long term problems like infertility or ectopic pregnancies due to scar tissue and adhesions forming in this area

106
Q

what does the PID infection begin as?

A

often is due to multiple pathogens and begins as vaginitis or cervicitis; the infection then ascends along the continuous mucus membrane

107
Q

how does PID spread to the peritoneum

A

the tubes become obstructed due to inflammation and purulent exudate, causing the infection to spread through the fimbriae to the peritoneal cavity

108
Q

common cause of death in PID

A

septic shock due to the infection spreading to the peritoneum

109
Q

causative organism of PID

A

is usually caused by STDs like gonorrhea or chlamydia, and past infections of vaginitis or cervicitis increase the chances

110
Q

signs of PID

A

lower abdominal pain that increases and is worse with walking, tenderness, purulent discharge, dysuria, and fever

111
Q

leiomyoma

A

is a benign tumor that is hormone dependent and is located in the myometrium; it is common during reproductive years and often shrinks following menopause; these may also undergo necrosis and form cysts

112
Q

intramural fibroids

A

develop in the uterine wall as polyps

113
Q

submucosal fibroids

A

develop beneath the endometrium and may present as a polyp that protrudes into the uterine cavity

114
Q

subserosal fibroids

A

develops under the serosa and may grow outward into the pelvic cavity

115
Q

fibroid signs

A

often are asymptomatic but may cause abnormal bleeding like menorrhagia or cause pressure on surrounding structures and interfere with emptying

116
Q

ovarian cysts

A

develop on ovaries usually underneath the serosa and usually disappear within 8-12 weeks without complications

117
Q

complications of large ovarian cysts

A

can cause discomfort, urinary retention, or menstrual irregularities, and if it ruptures it can cause abnormal bleeding

118
Q

stein–Leventhal syndrome

A

aka polycystic ovarian syndrome

119
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

is ovaries containing cysts covered with a thick capsule, causing abnormal hormone levels and cessation of ovulation

120
Q

cause of polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

is often due to a dysfunction in the hypothalamus-pituitary control system

121
Q

hormone levels in polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

elevated androgen, estrogen, and LH and decreased FSH levels; usual FSH/LH fluctuations are missing

122
Q

signs of polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

hiturism (abnormal hairiness), amenorrhea, and infertility

123
Q

fibrocystic breast disease

A

includes a broad range of benign breast lesions that change during the menstrual cycle, mainly due to estrogen; 3 categories

124
Q

how do the breasts change with fibrocystic breast disease throughout the cycle?

A

the CT is gradually replaced with dense fibrous tissue, fluid accumulates in cysts, and the epithelial cells in the ducts proliferate; the cysts enlarge over time and cause degeneration of normal tissue

125
Q

nonproliferative lesions in fibrocystic breast disease

A

include microcysts and fibroadenomas that are singular, moveable masses and are not cancerous

126
Q

proliferative lesions in fibrocystic breast disease

A

includes lesions, epithelial hypertrophy in the ducts, and typical cells, and is only cancerous if there is a genetic history

127
Q

proliferative changes with atypical cells in fibrocystic breast disease

A

atypical cells can differentiate from benign tumors into malignant tumors

128
Q

signs of fibrocystic breast disease

A

moveable cysts or nodules that change throughout the cycle

129
Q

where do most malignant breast tumors develop?

A

the upper outer quadrant of the breast or the central portion and most are unilateral

130
Q

where do most malignant breast tumors arise from?

A

the cells of the ductal epithelium

131
Q

where does malignant breast cancer often spread to?

A

regional lymph nodes like the axillary nodes; then to the brain, bone, liver, and lungs

132
Q

causes of breast cancer

A

often is genetic due to BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes; can also be high estrogen levels, no children, delayed first pregnancy, chest radiation, or fibrocystic disease with atypical cells

133
Q

signs of breast cancer

A

single, small, hard, painless nodule that is moveable early on but later becomes fixed; other signs are dimpling of the skin, discharge from the nipple, and a change in breast contour

134
Q

stages of developing cervical cancer

A

dysplasia of the epithelium that is mild, severe, then malignant; then carcinoma in situ which can last for ten years, followed by metastasize

135
Q

stage 0 of cervical cancer

A

refers to carcinoma in situ

136
Q

metastasis of cervical cancer

A

usually is localised, spreading to the the uterus, vagina, uterine wall, rectum, and ligaments; sometimes to lymph nodes but this is rare

137
Q

causes of cervical cancer

A

herpes simplex 2 and HPV 16, 18, 31, 34, or 45; the viral antibodies are known to cause dysplasia

138
Q

signs of cervical cancer

A

only develop after in situ and may be minor vaginal bleeding, watery discharge, anemia, and weight loss

139
Q

early sign of uterus cancer

A

vaginal bleeding which for menopausal women is obvious

140
Q

leiomyosarcomas

A

refers to uterine cancers that are derived from a CT or muscle

141
Q

uterine cancer

A

is common in 40+ women and often spreads to the lungs before diagnosis

142
Q

most common type of endometrium tumor

A

adenocarcinomas which arise from the glandular epithelium

143
Q

causes of uterine cancer

A

high levels of estrogen, oral contraceptives, and infertility

144
Q

ovarian cancer

A

is often a silent tumor and can be serous (most common), mucinous, and endometrioid tumors

145
Q

signs of ovarian cancer

A

feeling of fullness, indigestion, frequent urination, back pain, and dyspareunia

146
Q

cause of ovarian cancer

A

CA125 marker and talc (feminine hygiene product) combined with asbestos

147
Q

male problems causing infertility

A

changes in sperm or semen, hormonal abnormalities, and obstruction in ducts

148
Q

why are recurrent STDs common?

A

because immunity isn’t achieved after the first exposure

149
Q

what STD is asymptomatic in women?

A

gonorrhea

150
Q

leading cause of PID

A

chlamydia

151
Q

most common STD

A

chlamydia

152
Q

infective agent for chlamydia

A

C. trachomatis a gram-negative bacteria

153
Q

lymphogranuloma venereum

A

refers to chlamydia infecting the lymph nodes in some cases

154
Q

signs of chlamydia

A

dysuria, whitish discharge, itching, and swollen inguinal lymph nodes; in females it is not symptomatic until PID manifests

155
Q

newborns and chlamydia

A

can be infected during birth, causing conjunctivitis or pneumonia

156
Q

causative agent of gonorrhea

A

N. gonorrhoeae a gram-negative bacteria

157
Q

most common inflammation sites in males due to gonorrhea

A

the urethra and the epididymis; can also cause pharyngitis, tonsillitis, or lymphadenopathy through orogenital contact

158
Q

gonorrhea in females

A

often in asymptomatic but can cause a change in discharge to yellow/green; can also lead to PID

159
Q

newborns and gonorrhea

A

may be infected with ophthalmia neonatorum

160
Q

syphilis causative agent

A

treponema pallidum, an anaerobic spirochete

161
Q

syphilis primary stage

A

includes the development of a chancre at the point of contact about 3 weeks after infection, which heal spontaneously; swollen lymph nodes may also be present

162
Q

chancre

A

is a painless, firm, ulcerated nodule that develops at the point of contact following the first stage of syphilis infection

163
Q

syphilis secondary stage

A

manifests as a widespread systemic rash and systemic signs; rash is maculopapular and develops often on mucous membranes such as the palate of the mouth

164
Q

syphilis third stage

A

is the latent stage and is asymptomatic but the disease still remains and sometimes recurrence of lesions occurs

165
Q

syphilis fourth stage

A

is called tertiary stage and doesn’t develop in all individuals but is the development of the gumma (an area of fibrosis and necrosis), which can cause damage to the oral mucosa, the bone, the liver, and the brain

166
Q

when can the fetus be infected with syphilis?

A

after the fourth month, causing congenital issues in the bone, liver, teeth, and lungs

167
Q

mycoplasma genitalium

A

colonizes the urethra and genitals and often does not cause symptoms

168
Q

shigella flexneri

A

is transmitted via anal sex and can cause a GI tract infection and bacteremia, toxic megacolon, and reactive arthritis

169
Q

why are viral STDs dangerous?

A

antiviral agents can decrease reproduction during the acute stage but they do not eradicate the entire infection

170
Q

cause of genital herpes

A

HSV 2 or 1 (via orogenital sex)

171
Q

genital herpes signs

A

painful vesicles that rupture, creating an ulcerated area and systemic signs of fever, swollen lymph nodes, and headache

172
Q

herpes and newborns

A

can spread during vaginal delivery and frequently causes death of CNS damage

173
Q

HPV virus

A

is a double stranded DNA virus

174
Q

HPV lesions location

A

in men on the penis and in women on the cervix or vagina

175
Q

trichomoniasis

A

is a protozoan infection caused by T. vaginalis and usually is asymptomatic in men and in women it flares up when natural flora shifts

176
Q

signs of trichomoniasis

A

yellow, foul discharge, inflammation, and itching

177
Q

what STD is decreasing in incidence?

A

gonorrhea

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions