Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH digestive system review > Flashcards

HLTH digestive system review Flashcards

1
Q

upper tract

A

mouth esophagus and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

lower tract

A

intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mesentery

A

is a double walled layer of peritoneum that supports the intestines; it attaches the jejunum and duodenum to the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

greater omentum

A

a layer of fatty peritoneum that hangs from the stomach like an apron over the anterior surface of the transverse colon and small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

lesser omentum

A

part of the peritoneum that suspends the stomach and duodenum from the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 salivary glands

A

sublingual, submandibular, and parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what enzyme is found in saliva?

A

amylase which breaks down carbs and is secreted by the parotid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are carbohydrates broken down to?

A

glycogen and disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are triglycerides broken down into?

A

fatty acids and monoglyceride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are proteins broken down to?

A

first peptides then amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pepsin

A

is secreted by chief cells and breaks down proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what splits proteins into peptides?

A

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase which are released by the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intestinal peptidase

A

converts peptides into amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what nerves are involved in swallowing?

A

V, IX, X, and XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

muscle in the esophagus

A

beginning in skeletal muscle but it is gradually replaced by smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do parietal cells secrete?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen which is later converted to pepsin by HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is pepsin converted to its active form?

A

by HCl secreted by parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gastrin

A

released when food enters the stomach and stimulates parietal and chief cells to release their substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

glycogenesis

A

is converting glucose to glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

glycogenolysis

A

is breaking down glycogen to glucose when blood glucose levels drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

is the formation of glucose from molecules that are not carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis?

A

cortisol and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the synthesis of cholesterol important for?

A

production of steroid hormones, sex hormones, and bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what produces bile?

A

the hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is bile?

A

a mixture of water, bile salts, cholesterol, conjugated bilirubin, and electrolytes (including HCO3-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

function of HCO3- in bile?

A

it neutralizes the acidic gastric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what part of the small intestine is the major site of absorption?

A

the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

intestinal crypts

A

are found deep in the villi of the small intestine and give rise to new epithelial cells, as well as secrete an acidic fluid, enzymes, and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

enterokinase

A

activates pancreatic proenzymes and is produced by intestinal crypts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Peyer patches

A

large masses of lymphoid tissue in the large intestine which prevent the spread of infection to the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cephalic phase

A

occurs before eating when the smell or sight of food affects PNS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cholecystokinin

A

increases gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic enzyme release, and stimulates release of bile; does not stimulate release HCO3 rich secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

secretin

A

stimulates bile and pancreatic enzyme secretions that are rich in HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what part of the mesentery is responsible for controlling inflammation?

A

the greater omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how are proteins broken down throughout the GI tract?

A

pepsin will initiate splitting of proteins; trypsin or chymotrypsin will split proteins into peptides; then intestinal peptidase will convert peptides into amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

sucrase, maltase, and lactase

A

will convert disaccharides into monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what materials are absorbed by hepatocytes?

A

minerals like iron and copper, folic acid, and vitamins A, B6, B12, D, and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what organs are considered blood reservoirs?

A

the liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is bile pigment?

A

coagulated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cranial nerves associated with saliva secretion

A

VII and IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

histamine and digestion

A

different than allergic reaction histamine as it is H2 receptors; causes increased secretion of HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

signs preceding vomiting and nausea

A

tachycardia, pallor, diapedesis, and increased salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

emesis

A

means vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

retching

A

may precede vomiting and is baby barf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hematemesis

A

blood in vomit which appears brown and coffee ground like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

deeper brown vomit colour

A

may indicate lower intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

negative effects of bulimia

A

damage to oral cavity due to HCl, constipation or diarrhea, tear of the esophagus, and electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

large volume diarrhea

A

is often associated with infections, lactose intolerance, or osmotic pressures causing water retention in the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

small volume diarrhea

A

is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease and often includes pus, blood, or mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

when is steatorrhea common?

A

in those with celiac or cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

frank stool

A

is red visible blood on the surface of stool ususally resulting from lesions in the rectum or anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

occult stool

A

refers to small, hidden amounts of blood in stool; may indicate bleeding in the stomach or small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

melena stool

A

refers to dark stool from significant bleeding higher in the digestive tract, in which bacteria have acted on it, changing the colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what can chronic constipation lead to?

A

diverticulitis and hemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what ion is lost in vomiting?

A

chloride due to HCl being lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what ion is lost in diarrhea?

A

potassium and HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

why may severe vomiting cause metabolic acidosis?

A

HCO3- is lost from the small intestines, and ketones and lactic acid develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

burning sensation pain meaning

A

often indicates inflammation and ulceration in the upper digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cramping pain meaning

A

inflammation, distention, or stretching of the intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

colicky or severe pain meaning

A

recurrent smooth muscle contraction due to inflammation or obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

somatic pain

A

is steady and well localized and can indicate inflammation of the parietal peritoneum due to pain receptors located here; can lead to abdominal guarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

why does referred pain occur?

A

when visceral and somatic nerves merge at a specific point at one spinal cord level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

wasting syndrome

A

is chronic diarrhea associated with AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

in what disorder may pancreatic and bile secretions be interfered with?

A

cystic fibrosis due to mucus plugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what conditions are stress reduction important for?

A

those with peptic ulcers or chronic inflammatory bowel disorders, in which exacerbations are stress related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how does stress affect digestion

A

the SNS is activated and vasoconstriction and ischemia of the mucosa can occur; high cortisol also inhibits regeneration of the mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

enterocolitis

A

refers to diarrheal diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

signs of malnutrition in a child

A

chronic fatigue, reduced resistance to infection, and impaired healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cleft lip

A

results when the maxillary processes does not fuse with the nasal elevations or failure of the upper lip to fuse; can be uni or bilateral; develops in the second or third month of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

cleft palate

A

is failure of the hard and the soft palates to fuse, creating an opening between the oral and nasal cavities; develops between 7-12 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

problems associated with cleft palate

A

feeding difficulties, speech problems, and potential aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

canker sores name

A

Aphthous ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

causes of aphthous ulcers

A

injury, toothpastes containing sodium lauryl sulfate, food sensitivities, allergic response, lack of vitamins, stress, hormones, H pylori, celiac, IBDs, and immune deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

aphthous ulcers appearance and location

A

small, shallow, painful lesions that are white surrounded by a red border and appear on the oral mucosa, buccal mucosa, floor of mouth, soft palate, and lateral borders of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

oral candidiasis

A

is an oral fungal infection common in immunosuppressed individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

oral candidiasis appearance

A

red, swollen, and curd like white areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

treatment for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin which is an antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

herpetic stomatitis

A

is caused by herpes simplex 1 virus and is transmitted by kissing or touching; virus stays dormant in the trigeminal nerve ganglion until activated by stress or infection; can be reactivated again in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

herpetic stomatitis appearance

A

shallow, painful ulcer which releases a clear fluid then crusts over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

herpetic stomatitis treatment

A

antivirals like acyclovir, valtrex, and famvir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

organism causing syphilis

A

spirochete treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

syphilis lesions

A

primary phase may form a painless ulcer in the oral cavity; secondary stage is red macules or papules similar to a skin rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

treatment of syphilis

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

name for cavities

A

dental caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

common causative organisms for dental caries

A

streptococcus mutans or lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how do dental caries develop?

A

bacteria act on sugar in ingested food to create large quantities of lactic acid that dissolve the tooth enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

predisposing factors to developing dental caries

A

high amounts of sugar and carbonic acid (found in soda)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the periodontium?

A

the gingiva, the bone (alveolar), the ligaments, and the cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

cementum

A

the outer covering of the root of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

periodontitis

A

is the infection and damage to the periodontal ligament and bone, causing the loosening of teeth through microorganisms causing inflammation around the root of the tooth; usually caused by gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

appearance of gingivitis

A

causes the gums to be red, soft, swollen, and bleed easy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

causes of gingivitis

A

accumulated plaque due to poor oral hygeine or trauma brushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

calculus/ tartar

A

refers to calcified plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

dark line of the gingiva meaning

A

can signify lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease

A

infection of the oral cavity caused by opportunistic pathogens when tissues are damaged by smoking, stress, or poor nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

leukoplakia

A

a whitish plaque or epidermal thickening of the mucosa in the oral cavity and is related to smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

common cancer of the oral cavity

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

risks for oral cancer

A

smoking, leukoplakia, or alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

common sites for oral cancer

A

floor or the mouth and lateral borders of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

spread of oral cancer

A

will first spread to lymph nodes then to the neck

102
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

common in AIDs patients and appears as a brownish or purple macular lesion usually on the palate

103
Q

sialadenitis

A

refers to inflammation of the salivary glands, infectious or non-infectious

104
Q

what salivary gland is most often inflamed?

A

the parotid

105
Q

mumps

A

is a viral infection that can lead to parotid gland bilateral inflammation

106
Q

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

the most common tumor of the salivary glands and affects the parotid gland

107
Q

what can dysphagia develop from?

A

a neurological disorder, muscle weakness, or an obstruction

108
Q

neurologic causes of dysphagia

A

are those causing failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to open and can stroke, brain damage, and achalasia

109
Q

congenital atresia

A

is a developmental disorder in which the lower and upper esophagus portions are separated

110
Q

esophagus stenosis

A

is narrowing of this passageway that may be caused by developmental issues, fibrosis, radiation, inflammation, or ulceration

111
Q

esophageal diverticula

A

are outpouchings of the esophageal wall that can be congenital or due to inflammation; food can accumulate here and cause obstruction and irritation

112
Q

signs of esophageal diverticula

A

dysphagia, foul breath, chronic cough, and hoarseness

113
Q

most common type of esophagus cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the distal esophagus

114
Q

causes of esophagus cancer

A

chronic irritation from smoking, alcohol abuse, or infections

115
Q

hiatal hernia

A

part of the stomach protrudes through the hiatus of the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity

116
Q

sliding hernia

A

is the more common type and occurs when a portion of the stomach and the gastroesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, often when supine and slides back when standing

117
Q

rolling/ paraesophageal hernia

A

part of the fundus of the stomach moves through an enlarged or weakened hiatus in the diaphragm and blood vessels may become compressed which can lead to ulceration

118
Q

complications of hiatus hernia

A

food may lodge in these areas, dysphagia, reflux, and obstruction

119
Q

causes leading to hiatus hernia

A

shortened esophagus, weakness of the diaphragm, or increased abdominal pressure (e.g. pregnancy)

120
Q

signs of a hiatus hernia

A

heartburn (brief burning followed by sour taste), frequent gas, dysphagia, discomfort lying down, and chest pain

121
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

involves the periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus and is often seen with hiatus hernias

122
Q

how does GERD occur

A

either due to a decrease in lower esophageal pressure or an increase in intra abdominal pressure

123
Q

complications of GERD

A

inflammation, ulceration, and eventually fibrosis of the esophagus

124
Q

acute gastritis

A

the gastric mucosa becomes inflamed and red, and ulcers or bleeding may develop

125
Q

causes of acute gastritis

A

can be a result of infection, allergies, spicy foods, alcohol, aspirin, chemo/radiation, or toxic substances

126
Q

signs of acute gastritis

A

nausea, vomiting, pain, cramps, ulcers, fever, and headache (no diarrhea)

127
Q

gastroenteritis

A

is inflammation of the stomach and the intestines and is caused by infection or allergies to food or drugs

128
Q

chronic gastritis

A

is characterized by atrophy of the mucosa of the stomach, with decreased secretions

129
Q

complication of chronic gastritis

A

parietal cells don’t produce HCl or intrinsic factor, and vitamin B12 is not absorbed

130
Q

who is chronic gastritis common in?

A

those with an H pylori infection, alcohol abuse, chronic peptic ulcers, the elders, and those with autoimmune diseases

131
Q

risks for those with chronic gastritis

A

peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma

132
Q

most common place for peptic ulcers

A

the proximal duodenum; can also be found in the antrum of the stomach of esophagus

133
Q

how do peptic ulcers appear?

A

as single, small, round cavities with smooth margins that penetrate the submucosa

134
Q

indicators of peptic ulcers

A

iron-deficiency anemia or occult stool

135
Q

common cause of gastric ulcers

A

impaired mucosal defences

136
Q

common cause of duodenal ulcers

A

increased acidic secretions

137
Q

H. pylori and peptic ulcers

A

the bacterium secretes cytotoxins and the enzymes protease, phospholipase, and urease which all damage the mucosa

138
Q

causes of peptic ulcers

A

H. pylori, inadequate blood supply, stress, excessive glucocorticoids, aspirin, NSAIDs, alcohol, increased gastrin and pepsin secretions, and reduced gastric emptying

139
Q

3 complications of peptic ulcers

A

hemorrhage, perforation, and obstruction

140
Q

perforation with peptic ulcers

A

occurs when the ulcer erodes completely through the wall, releasing chyme into the peritoneal cavity

141
Q

what blood group has peptic ulcers more commonly?

A

O

142
Q

signs of gastric ulcers

A

epigastric burning after meals and at night, weight loss (sometimes gain), vomiting, nausea, and heartburn

143
Q

stress ulcers

A

result from trauma (head injury or burns) or systemic causes (hemorrhage or sepsis); reduced blood supply causes damage to the mucosa, resulting in less secretions and regeneration

144
Q

cushing ulcer

A

refers to a stress ulcer caused by head injury; often involve increased vagal nerve stimulation

145
Q

curling ulcer

A

refers to a stress ulcer caused by burns

146
Q

first indicator of stress ulcers

A

hemorrhage

147
Q

where does gastric cancer occur?

A

in the mucus glands mainly in the antrum or pyloric area

148
Q

most common type of gastric cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

149
Q

early vs advanced gastric cancer

A

early is confined to the mucosa and submucosa but advanced effects the muscularis

150
Q

where does gastric cancer often spread to?

A

the liver and ovaries

151
Q

causes of gastric cancer

A

H pylori infection, food preservatives, smoked foods, type A blood, and diet

152
Q

signs of gastric cancer

A

anorexia, feelings of indigestion, weight loss, and fatigue

153
Q

dumping syndrome

A

occurs when loss of the pyloric sphincter causes dumping of chyme into the duodenum and often follows gastrectomy

154
Q

signs of dumping syndrome

A

the osmotic forces of chyme cause hypovolemia and hypoglycemia, causing dizziness, sweating, rapid pulse, nausea, and vomiting

155
Q

treatment for dumping syndrome

A

eating small, frequent meals high in protein and low in simple carbs, as well as having water between meals not with meals

156
Q

pyloric stenosis

A

is narrowing of the pyloric sphincter due to fibrous scar tissue or hypertrophy of the smooth muscle; can be congenital or acquired

157
Q

acquired pyloric stenosis

A

is due to fibrous scar tissue and causes fullness and vomiting

158
Q

congenital pyloric stenosis

A

is due to hypertrophy of the smooth muscle and leads to hunger, vomiting, dehydration, and small infrequent stools

159
Q

cholelithaias

A

is formation of gallstones

160
Q

cholecystitis

A

is inflammation of the gallbladder and cystic duct

161
Q

cholangitis

A

is inflammation of the bile ducts

162
Q

choledocholithiasis

A

is obstruction by gallstones of the biliary duct

163
Q

gallstones

A

consist of calcium, cholesterol, and bile pigment (coagulated bilirubin)

164
Q

cholesterol stones

A

appear white or crystal

165
Q

bilirubin stones

A

appear black

166
Q

gallstones causes

A

usually due to a deficiency is bile salts or an increase in cholesterol; also can be due to inflammation in the bile or cystic ducts, oral contraceptives, or giving birth to multiple children

167
Q

common infective organism causing gallstones

A

E coli

168
Q

biliary colic

A

refers to severe, colickly pain and spasms attempting to pass the gallstone

169
Q

signs of gallstones

A

usually are asymptomatic but may cause biliary colic, pain that radiates to the back and right shoulder, nausea, and sometimes jaundice

170
Q

who are bile gallstones common in?

A

those with hemolytic anemia, alcoholic cirrhosis, or biliary tract infection

171
Q

icterus

A

another word for jaundice

172
Q

jaundice

A

refers to the yellow colour of the skin due to high amounts of bilirubin in the blood which results from RBC breakdown or the breakdown of hemoglobin

173
Q

prehepatic jaundice

A

often follows hemolytic anemias or transfusion reactions; liver function is normal but the large amounts of bilirubin cannot be processed

174
Q

intrahepatic jaundice

A

is common in those with liver disease like hepatitis or cirrhosis; it is associated with impaired uptake of bilirubin and decreased coagulation of bilirubin by hepatocytes

175
Q

posthepatic jaundice

A

is caused by obstruction of bile flow and backup of bile in the blood; can be due to tumors, inflammation of the liver, or atresia of bile ducts

176
Q

what jaundices have unconjugated bilirubin what have conjugated?

A

pre has unconjugated, intra has both, and post has conjugated

177
Q

chronic liver inflammation

A

is inflammation for > 6 months and is associated with hep B, C, and D

178
Q

what hepatitis have a carrier state?

A

B, C, and D

179
Q

hep A

A

is transmitted by the oral-fecal route, often by contaminated water or shellfish; is acute and self-limiting

180
Q

hep B

A

is associated with HIV and transmitted by body or body secretions; has a long incubation period and can be asymptomatic

181
Q

hep C

A

is most common virus transmitted with blood transfusions and may increase the risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma

182
Q

hep D

A

is transmitted by blood and requires HBV to replicate and produce an active infection; it also increases the severity of HBV

183
Q

hep E

A

is transmitted by oral-fecal route and causing a high mortality rate in pregnant women

184
Q

preicteric

A

prodromal period of hepatitis infections and is characterized by fatigue, anorexia, nausea and general muscle aching; aminotransferase levels are elevated

185
Q

icteric

A

is second stage in hepatitis infection and includes signs of jaundice, light coloured stool, dark urine, itching skin, impaired blood clotting, and hepatomegaly; longer in hep B

186
Q

posticteric

A

is last stage of hepatitis and is recovery with marked reduction in signs

187
Q

hepatotoxins

A

chemicals or toxins that cause inflammation and necrosis in the liver, causing an immune response or direct effects of toxins

188
Q

examples of hepatotoxins

A

acetaminophen, tetracycline, and halothane

189
Q

cholestasis

A

refers to obstructed flow of bile and can occur as a result of hepatotoxins

190
Q

cirrhosis

A

refers to progressive destruction of liver tissue, leading to liver failure; liver undergoes fibrosis and lobular organisation is lost; it is initially larger then shrinks; 4 types

191
Q

biliary cirrhosis

A

is associated with immune disorders causing obstruction of bile flow like cystic fibrosis or stones

192
Q

postnecrotic cirrhosis

A

is associated with chronic hepatitis or long term exposure to toxins

193
Q

metabolic cirrhosis

A

is caused by storage disorders like hemochromatosis

194
Q

acetaldehyde

A

is a metabolite of alcohol which is toxic to the liver cells

195
Q

how does alcoholic liver fibrosis develop?

A

first the liver becomes fatty, then inflammation, necrosis, and fibrous tissue develop; this fibrous tissue eventually replaces normal tissue

196
Q

hepatic encephalopathy

A

refers to the nervous system being affected due to high levels ammonia and toxins in the blood

197
Q

ammonia

A

protein of protiein metabolism that is converted to urea in the liver

198
Q

3 factors causing ascites in cirrhosis

A

increased hepatic hypertension, increased inactivation of aldosterone, and decreased plasma proteins

199
Q

most common liver cancer

A

hepatocellular carcinoma which develops in cirrhotic livers

200
Q

liver cancer signs

A

general cancer signs, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, and paraneoplastic signs due to the tumor secreting substances similar to erythropoietin, insulin, and estrogen

201
Q

pancreatitis

A

is inflammation of the pancreas resulting from autodigestion of tissues to to pancreatic proenzymes being activated in the pancreas; can be acute or chronic

202
Q

what is the first enzyme to be activated in pancreatitis?

A

trypsin

203
Q

what does chemical peritonitis occur in pancreatitis?

A

the inflammatory response that causes increased vascular permeability and vasodilation

204
Q

complications of pancreatitis

A

chemical peritonitis which may develop into bacterial peritonitis, hypovolemia, septicemia, adult respiratory distress syndrome, and acute renal failure

205
Q

causes of pancreatitis

A

gallstones and alcohol abuse

206
Q

primary symptom of pancreatitis

A

severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back

207
Q

major risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

smoking

208
Q

early signs of pancreatic cancer

A

jaundice and weight loss

209
Q

most common type of pancreatic cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

210
Q

what type of jaundice has light coloured stool?

A

posthepatic

211
Q

what hepatitis has cell-mediated responses to the virus?

A

B

212
Q

what ion binds to fatty acids?

A

calcium; thus hypocalcemia is common in pancreatitis

213
Q

celiac disease

A

is a deficit in the enzyme gliadin which breaks down gluten which cause the villi of the intestine to atrophy, leading to malabsorption and malnutrition

214
Q

signs of celiac disease

A

steatorrhea, muscle wasting, failure to gain weight, and irritability

215
Q

risks associated with celiac disease

A

an increased risk for intestinal lymphoma

216
Q

what areas of the GI tract does crohn’s disease effect

A

the ileum and sometimes the ascending colon and affects all layers of the intestine

217
Q

skip lesions

A

present in Crohn’s disease and are affected segments separated by areas of normal tissue

218
Q

signs of crohn’s disease

A

diarrhea, abdominal cramping, melena bleeding, pain and tenderness in URQ, and malnutrition signs

219
Q

how does the intestine appear in crohn’s

A

narrow, granulomas develop, skin lesions, adhesions between loops of intestine, fistulas may form between adhesions, and abscesses develop in the intestinal wall

220
Q

what areas of the GI tract does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

the rectum and then progresses up the colon; only the mucosa is affected

221
Q

how does the intestine appear in ulcerative colitis?

A

red, friable, with ulcers, granulation tissue forms, and bridges of intact mucosa form over the ulcers

222
Q

toxic megacolon

A

occurs in acute episodes of ulcerative colitis when the transverse colon is totally obstructed

223
Q

risk with ulcerative colitis

A

colorectal cancer

224
Q

signs of ulcerative colitis

A

diarrhea with blood and mucus, tenesmus (spasms of the rectum), and rectal bleeding

225
Q

diet for chronic irritable bowel disease

A

high in protein and nutrients but low in fat

226
Q

causes of IBS

A

hypersensitivity reaction, the effect of serotonin on the GI tract, activated mast cells and T cells, overgrowth of flora, food allergies or intolerances, and emotional stress

227
Q

how does appendicitis develop?

A

fecalith is obstructed in the appendix, followed by fluid and microorganisms accumulating here; inflammation and purulent exudate form, and necrosis and ischemia occur; peritonitis may develop and rupture of the appendix

228
Q

diverticulum

A

is an outpouching or herniation of the mucosa through the muscularis wall, most often in the sigmoid colon

229
Q

diverticulosis

A

is asymptomatic but refers to the presence of multiple diverticulum

230
Q

diverticulitis

A

refers to inflammation of the diverticulum

231
Q

where do diverticulum form?

A

at gaps between longitudinal muscle that coincide with openings in the circular muscle

232
Q

what may lead to the formation of diverticula

A

low-residue diets, irregular bowel habits, aging, and muscle hypertrophy in the colon

233
Q

what do most colorectal cancers develop from?

A

adenomatous polyps which is a mass that protrudes into the lumen

234
Q

where are projecting polypoid masses common?

A

the right colon

235
Q

where are napkin ring growths common?

A

the left colon

236
Q

where does colorectal cancer spread to?

A

the liver

237
Q

CEA

A

carcinoembryonic antigen that is an indicator of colon cancer

238
Q

ascending colon cancer signs

A

occult stool and anemia

239
Q

transverse colon cancer signs

A

semi-solid feces, anemia, and occult stool

240
Q

descending colon cancer signs

A

solid stool, constipation, red or dark blood in stool

241
Q

rectum cancer signs

A

incomplete emptying, ribbon stool, and red blood on the surface of stool

242
Q

paralytic ileus

A

refers to obstructions of the intestines due to neurological impairment

243
Q

volvulus

A

means twisting of the intestine

244
Q

what can intestinal obstruction lead to?

A

peritonitis

245
Q

hirschsprung disease

A

is a condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the intestine, impairing motility and leading to constipation

246
Q

Borborygmi

A

refers to audible rumbling sounds

247
Q

chemicals irritants that may cause peritonitis

A

bile, chyme, or foreign objects

248
Q

what occurs initially with peritonitis?

A

a thick, sticky exudate is produced to seal the area

249
Q

why does rigid, boardlike abdomen occur with peritonitis?

A

as a reflex causing spasm of the abdominal muscles

250
Q

signs of peritonitis

A

generalized abdominal pain, vomiting, signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, decreased skin tugor, dry buccal mucosa, pallor, low BP, tachycardia, decreased bowel signs, and fever

251
Q

intussusceptions

A

refers to the telescoping of one section of bowel inside another

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions