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Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH digestive system review > Flashcards

HLTH digestive system review Flashcards

1
Q

upper tract

A

mouth esophagus and stomach

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2
Q

lower tract

A

intestines

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3
Q

mesentery

A

is a double walled layer of peritoneum that supports the intestines; it attaches the jejunum and duodenum to the posterior abdominal wall

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4
Q

greater omentum

A

a layer of fatty peritoneum that hangs from the stomach like an apron over the anterior surface of the transverse colon and small intestine

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5
Q

lesser omentum

A

part of the peritoneum that suspends the stomach and duodenum from the liver

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6
Q

3 salivary glands

A

sublingual, submandibular, and parotid

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7
Q

what enzyme is found in saliva?

A

amylase which breaks down carbs and is secreted by the parotid gland

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8
Q

what are carbohydrates broken down to?

A

glycogen and disaccharides

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9
Q

what are triglycerides broken down into?

A

fatty acids and monoglyceride

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10
Q

what are proteins broken down to?

A

first peptides then amino acids

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11
Q

pepsin

A

is secreted by chief cells and breaks down proteins

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12
Q

what splits proteins into peptides?

A

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase which are released by the pancreas

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13
Q

Intestinal peptidase

A

converts peptides into amino acids

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14
Q

what nerves are involved in swallowing?

A

V, IX, X, and XII

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15
Q

muscle in the esophagus

A

beginning in skeletal muscle but it is gradually replaced by smooth muscle

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16
Q

what do parietal cells secrete?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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17
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen which is later converted to pepsin by HCl

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18
Q

how is pepsin converted to its active form?

A

by HCl secreted by parietal cells

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19
Q

gastrin

A

released when food enters the stomach and stimulates parietal and chief cells to release their substances

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20
Q

glycogenesis

A

is converting glucose to glycogen

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21
Q

glycogenolysis

A

is breaking down glycogen to glucose when blood glucose levels drop

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22
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

is the formation of glucose from molecules that are not carbohydrates

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23
Q

what hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis?

A

cortisol and epinephrine

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24
Q

what is the synthesis of cholesterol important for?

A

production of steroid hormones, sex hormones, and bile salts

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25
Q

what produces bile?

A

the hepatocytes

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26
Q

what is bile?

A

a mixture of water, bile salts, cholesterol, conjugated bilirubin, and electrolytes (including HCO3-)

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27
Q

function of HCO3- in bile?

A

it neutralizes the acidic gastric acid

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28
Q

what part of the small intestine is the major site of absorption?

A

the ileum

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29
Q

intestinal crypts

A

are found deep in the villi of the small intestine and give rise to new epithelial cells, as well as secrete an acidic fluid, enzymes, and hormones

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30
Q

enterokinase

A

activates pancreatic proenzymes and is produced by intestinal crypts

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31
Q

Peyer patches

A

large masses of lymphoid tissue in the large intestine which prevent the spread of infection to the small intestine

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32
Q

cephalic phase

A

occurs before eating when the smell or sight of food affects PNS stimulation

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33
Q

cholecystokinin

A

increases gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic enzyme release, and stimulates release of bile; does not stimulate release HCO3 rich secretions

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34
Q

secretin

A

stimulates bile and pancreatic enzyme secretions that are rich in HCO3-

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35
Q

what part of the mesentery is responsible for controlling inflammation?

A

the greater omentum

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36
Q

how are proteins broken down throughout the GI tract?

A

pepsin will initiate splitting of proteins; trypsin or chymotrypsin will split proteins into peptides; then intestinal peptidase will convert peptides into amino acids

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37
Q

sucrase, maltase, and lactase

A

will convert disaccharides into monosaccharides

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38
Q

what materials are absorbed by hepatocytes?

A

minerals like iron and copper, folic acid, and vitamins A, B6, B12, D, and K

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39
Q

what organs are considered blood reservoirs?

A

the liver and spleen

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40
Q

what is bile pigment?

A

coagulated bilirubin

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41
Q

cranial nerves associated with saliva secretion

A

VII and IX

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42
Q

histamine and digestion

A

different than allergic reaction histamine as it is H2 receptors; causes increased secretion of HCl

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43
Q

signs preceding vomiting and nausea

A

tachycardia, pallor, diapedesis, and increased salivation

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44
Q

emesis

A

means vomiting

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45
Q

retching

A

may precede vomiting and is baby barf

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46
Q

hematemesis

A

blood in vomit which appears brown and coffee ground like

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47
Q

deeper brown vomit colour

A

may indicate lower intestinal obstruction

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48
Q

negative effects of bulimia

A

damage to oral cavity due to HCl, constipation or diarrhea, tear of the esophagus, and electrolyte imbalances

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49
Q

large volume diarrhea

A

is often associated with infections, lactose intolerance, or osmotic pressures causing water retention in the intestine

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50
Q

small volume diarrhea

A

is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease and often includes pus, blood, or mucus

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51
Q

when is steatorrhea common?

A

in those with celiac or cystic fibrosis

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52
Q

frank stool

A

is red visible blood on the surface of stool ususally resulting from lesions in the rectum or anal canal

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53
Q

occult stool

A

refers to small, hidden amounts of blood in stool; may indicate bleeding in the stomach or small intestine

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54
Q

melena stool

A

refers to dark stool from significant bleeding higher in the digestive tract, in which bacteria have acted on it, changing the colour

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55
Q

what can chronic constipation lead to?

A

diverticulitis and hemorrhoids

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56
Q

what ion is lost in vomiting?

A

chloride due to HCl being lost

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57
Q

what ion is lost in diarrhea?

A

potassium and HCO3-

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58
Q

why may severe vomiting cause metabolic acidosis?

A

HCO3- is lost from the small intestines, and ketones and lactic acid develop

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59
Q

burning sensation pain meaning

A

often indicates inflammation and ulceration in the upper digestive tract

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60
Q

cramping pain meaning

A

inflammation, distention, or stretching of the intestines

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61
Q

colicky or severe pain meaning

A

recurrent smooth muscle contraction due to inflammation or obstruction

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62
Q

somatic pain

A

is steady and well localized and can indicate inflammation of the parietal peritoneum due to pain receptors located here; can lead to abdominal guarding

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63
Q

why does referred pain occur?

A

when visceral and somatic nerves merge at a specific point at one spinal cord level

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64
Q

wasting syndrome

A

is chronic diarrhea associated with AIDS

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65
Q

in what disorder may pancreatic and bile secretions be interfered with?

A

cystic fibrosis due to mucus plugs

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66
Q

what conditions are stress reduction important for?

A

those with peptic ulcers or chronic inflammatory bowel disorders, in which exacerbations are stress related

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67
Q

how does stress affect digestion

A

the SNS is activated and vasoconstriction and ischemia of the mucosa can occur; high cortisol also inhibits regeneration of the mucosa

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68
Q

enterocolitis

A

refers to diarrheal diseases

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69
Q

signs of malnutrition in a child

A

chronic fatigue, reduced resistance to infection, and impaired healing

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70
Q

cleft lip

A

results when the maxillary processes does not fuse with the nasal elevations or failure of the upper lip to fuse; can be uni or bilateral; develops in the second or third month of gestation

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71
Q

cleft palate

A

is failure of the hard and the soft palates to fuse, creating an opening between the oral and nasal cavities; develops between 7-12 weeks of gestation

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72
Q

problems associated with cleft palate

A

feeding difficulties, speech problems, and potential aspiration

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73
Q

canker sores name

A

Aphthous ulcers

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74
Q

causes of aphthous ulcers

A

injury, toothpastes containing sodium lauryl sulfate, food sensitivities, allergic response, lack of vitamins, stress, hormones, H pylori, celiac, IBDs, and immune deficiency

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75
Q

aphthous ulcers appearance and location

A

small, shallow, painful lesions that are white surrounded by a red border and appear on the oral mucosa, buccal mucosa, floor of mouth, soft palate, and lateral borders of the tongue

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76
Q

oral candidiasis

A

is an oral fungal infection common in immunosuppressed individuals

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77
Q

oral candidiasis appearance

A

red, swollen, and curd like white areas

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78
Q

treatment for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin which is an antifungal

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79
Q

herpetic stomatitis

A

is caused by herpes simplex 1 virus and is transmitted by kissing or touching; virus stays dormant in the trigeminal nerve ganglion until activated by stress or infection; can be reactivated again in the future

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80
Q

herpetic stomatitis appearance

A

shallow, painful ulcer which releases a clear fluid then crusts over

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81
Q

herpetic stomatitis treatment

A

antivirals like acyclovir, valtrex, and famvir

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82
Q

organism causing syphilis

A

spirochete treponema pallidum

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83
Q

syphilis lesions

A

primary phase may form a painless ulcer in the oral cavity; secondary stage is red macules or papules similar to a skin rash

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84
Q

treatment of syphilis

A

penicillin

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85
Q

name for cavities

A

dental caries

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86
Q

common causative organisms for dental caries

A

streptococcus mutans or lactobacillus

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87
Q

how do dental caries develop?

A

bacteria act on sugar in ingested food to create large quantities of lactic acid that dissolve the tooth enamel

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88
Q

predisposing factors to developing dental caries

A

high amounts of sugar and carbonic acid (found in soda)

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89
Q

what is the periodontium?

A

the gingiva, the bone (alveolar), the ligaments, and the cementum

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90
Q

cementum

A

the outer covering of the root of the tooth

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91
Q

periodontitis

A

is the infection and damage to the periodontal ligament and bone, causing the loosening of teeth through microorganisms causing inflammation around the root of the tooth; usually caused by gram-negative bacteria

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92
Q

appearance of gingivitis

A

causes the gums to be red, soft, swollen, and bleed easy

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93
Q

causes of gingivitis

A

accumulated plaque due to poor oral hygeine or trauma brushing

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94
Q

calculus/ tartar

A

refers to calcified plaque

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95
Q

dark line of the gingiva meaning

A

can signify lead poisoning

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96
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease

A

infection of the oral cavity caused by opportunistic pathogens when tissues are damaged by smoking, stress, or poor nutrition

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97
Q

leukoplakia

A

a whitish plaque or epidermal thickening of the mucosa in the oral cavity and is related to smoking

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98
Q

common cancer of the oral cavity

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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99
Q

risks for oral cancer

A

smoking, leukoplakia, or alcohol

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100
Q

common sites for oral cancer

A

floor or the mouth and lateral borders of the tongue

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101
Q

spread of oral cancer

A

will first spread to lymph nodes then to the neck

102
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

common in AIDs patients and appears as a brownish or purple macular lesion usually on the palate

103
Q

sialadenitis

A

refers to inflammation of the salivary glands, infectious or non-infectious

104
Q

what salivary gland is most often inflamed?

A

the parotid

105
Q

mumps

A

is a viral infection that can lead to parotid gland bilateral inflammation

106
Q

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

the most common tumor of the salivary glands and affects the parotid gland

107
Q

what can dysphagia develop from?

A

a neurological disorder, muscle weakness, or an obstruction

108
Q

neurologic causes of dysphagia

A

are those causing failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to open and can stroke, brain damage, and achalasia

109
Q

congenital atresia

A

is a developmental disorder in which the lower and upper esophagus portions are separated

110
Q

esophagus stenosis

A

is narrowing of this passageway that may be caused by developmental issues, fibrosis, radiation, inflammation, or ulceration

111
Q

esophageal diverticula

A

are outpouchings of the esophageal wall that can be congenital or due to inflammation; food can accumulate here and cause obstruction and irritation

112
Q

signs of esophageal diverticula

A

dysphagia, foul breath, chronic cough, and hoarseness

113
Q

most common type of esophagus cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the distal esophagus

114
Q

causes of esophagus cancer

A

chronic irritation from smoking, alcohol abuse, or infections

115
Q

hiatal hernia

A

part of the stomach protrudes through the hiatus of the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity

116
Q

sliding hernia

A

is the more common type and occurs when a portion of the stomach and the gastroesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, often when supine and slides back when standing

117
Q

rolling/ paraesophageal hernia

A

part of the fundus of the stomach moves through an enlarged or weakened hiatus in the diaphragm and blood vessels may become compressed which can lead to ulceration

118
Q

complications of hiatus hernia

A

food may lodge in these areas, dysphagia, reflux, and obstruction

119
Q

causes leading to hiatus hernia

A

shortened esophagus, weakness of the diaphragm, or increased abdominal pressure (e.g. pregnancy)

120
Q

signs of a hiatus hernia

A

heartburn (brief burning followed by sour taste), frequent gas, dysphagia, discomfort lying down, and chest pain

121
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

involves the periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus and is often seen with hiatus hernias

122
Q

how does GERD occur

A

either due to a decrease in lower esophageal pressure or an increase in intra abdominal pressure

123
Q

complications of GERD

A

inflammation, ulceration, and eventually fibrosis of the esophagus

124
Q

acute gastritis

A

the gastric mucosa becomes inflamed and red, and ulcers or bleeding may develop

125
Q

causes of acute gastritis

A

can be a result of infection, allergies, spicy foods, alcohol, aspirin, chemo/radiation, or toxic substances

126
Q

signs of acute gastritis

A

nausea, vomiting, pain, cramps, ulcers, fever, and headache (no diarrhea)

127
Q

gastroenteritis

A

is inflammation of the stomach and the intestines and is caused by infection or allergies to food or drugs

128
Q

chronic gastritis

A

is characterized by atrophy of the mucosa of the stomach, with decreased secretions

129
Q

complication of chronic gastritis

A

parietal cells don’t produce HCl or intrinsic factor, and vitamin B12 is not absorbed

130
Q

who is chronic gastritis common in?

A

those with an H pylori infection, alcohol abuse, chronic peptic ulcers, the elders, and those with autoimmune diseases

131
Q

risks for those with chronic gastritis

A

peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma

132
Q

most common place for peptic ulcers

A

the proximal duodenum; can also be found in the antrum of the stomach of esophagus

133
Q

how do peptic ulcers appear?

A

as single, small, round cavities with smooth margins that penetrate the submucosa

134
Q

indicators of peptic ulcers

A

iron-deficiency anemia or occult stool

135
Q

common cause of gastric ulcers

A

impaired mucosal defences

136
Q

common cause of duodenal ulcers

A

increased acidic secretions

137
Q

H. pylori and peptic ulcers

A

the bacterium secretes cytotoxins and the enzymes protease, phospholipase, and urease which all damage the mucosa

138
Q

causes of peptic ulcers

A

H. pylori, inadequate blood supply, stress, excessive glucocorticoids, aspirin, NSAIDs, alcohol, increased gastrin and pepsin secretions, and reduced gastric emptying

139
Q

3 complications of peptic ulcers

A

hemorrhage, perforation, and obstruction

140
Q

perforation with peptic ulcers

A

occurs when the ulcer erodes completely through the wall, releasing chyme into the peritoneal cavity

141
Q

what blood group has peptic ulcers more commonly?

A

O

142
Q

signs of gastric ulcers

A

epigastric burning after meals and at night, weight loss (sometimes gain), vomiting, nausea, and heartburn

143
Q

stress ulcers

A

result from trauma (head injury or burns) or systemic causes (hemorrhage or sepsis); reduced blood supply causes damage to the mucosa, resulting in less secretions and regeneration

144
Q

cushing ulcer

A

refers to a stress ulcer caused by head injury; often involve increased vagal nerve stimulation

145
Q

curling ulcer

A

refers to a stress ulcer caused by burns

146
Q

first indicator of stress ulcers

A

hemorrhage

147
Q

where does gastric cancer occur?

A

in the mucus glands mainly in the antrum or pyloric area

148
Q

most common type of gastric cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

149
Q

early vs advanced gastric cancer

A

early is confined to the mucosa and submucosa but advanced effects the muscularis

150
Q

where does gastric cancer often spread to?

A

the liver and ovaries

151
Q

causes of gastric cancer

A

H pylori infection, food preservatives, smoked foods, type A blood, and diet

152
Q

signs of gastric cancer

A

anorexia, feelings of indigestion, weight loss, and fatigue

153
Q

dumping syndrome

A

occurs when loss of the pyloric sphincter causes dumping of chyme into the duodenum and often follows gastrectomy

154
Q

signs of dumping syndrome

A

the osmotic forces of chyme cause hypovolemia and hypoglycemia, causing dizziness, sweating, rapid pulse, nausea, and vomiting

155
Q

treatment for dumping syndrome

A

eating small, frequent meals high in protein and low in simple carbs, as well as having water between meals not with meals

156
Q

pyloric stenosis

A

is narrowing of the pyloric sphincter due to fibrous scar tissue or hypertrophy of the smooth muscle; can be congenital or acquired

157
Q

acquired pyloric stenosis

A

is due to fibrous scar tissue and causes fullness and vomiting

158
Q

congenital pyloric stenosis

A

is due to hypertrophy of the smooth muscle and leads to hunger, vomiting, dehydration, and small infrequent stools

159
Q

cholelithaias

A

is formation of gallstones

160
Q

cholecystitis

A

is inflammation of the gallbladder and cystic duct

161
Q

cholangitis

A

is inflammation of the bile ducts

162
Q

choledocholithiasis

A

is obstruction by gallstones of the biliary duct

163
Q

gallstones

A

consist of calcium, cholesterol, and bile pigment (coagulated bilirubin)

164
Q

cholesterol stones

A

appear white or crystal

165
Q

bilirubin stones

A

appear black

166
Q

gallstones causes

A

usually due to a deficiency is bile salts or an increase in cholesterol; also can be due to inflammation in the bile or cystic ducts, oral contraceptives, or giving birth to multiple children

167
Q

common infective organism causing gallstones

A

E coli

168
Q

biliary colic

A

refers to severe, colickly pain and spasms attempting to pass the gallstone

169
Q

signs of gallstones

A

usually are asymptomatic but may cause biliary colic, pain that radiates to the back and right shoulder, nausea, and sometimes jaundice

170
Q

who are bile gallstones common in?

A

those with hemolytic anemia, alcoholic cirrhosis, or biliary tract infection

171
Q

icterus

A

another word for jaundice

172
Q

jaundice

A

refers to the yellow colour of the skin due to high amounts of bilirubin in the blood which results from RBC breakdown or the breakdown of hemoglobin

173
Q

prehepatic jaundice

A

often follows hemolytic anemias or transfusion reactions; liver function is normal but the large amounts of bilirubin cannot be processed

174
Q

intrahepatic jaundice

A

is common in those with liver disease like hepatitis or cirrhosis; it is associated with impaired uptake of bilirubin and decreased coagulation of bilirubin by hepatocytes

175
Q

posthepatic jaundice

A

is caused by obstruction of bile flow and backup of bile in the blood; can be due to tumors, inflammation of the liver, or atresia of bile ducts

176
Q

what jaundices have unconjugated bilirubin what have conjugated?

A

pre has unconjugated, intra has both, and post has conjugated

177
Q

chronic liver inflammation

A

is inflammation for > 6 months and is associated with hep B, C, and D

178
Q

what hepatitis have a carrier state?

A

B, C, and D

179
Q

hep A

A

is transmitted by the oral-fecal route, often by contaminated water or shellfish; is acute and self-limiting

180
Q

hep B

A

is associated with HIV and transmitted by body or body secretions; has a long incubation period and can be asymptomatic

181
Q

hep C

A

is most common virus transmitted with blood transfusions and may increase the risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma

182
Q

hep D

A

is transmitted by blood and requires HBV to replicate and produce an active infection; it also increases the severity of HBV

183
Q

hep E

A

is transmitted by oral-fecal route and causing a high mortality rate in pregnant women

184
Q

preicteric

A

prodromal period of hepatitis infections and is characterized by fatigue, anorexia, nausea and general muscle aching; aminotransferase levels are elevated

185
Q

icteric

A

is second stage in hepatitis infection and includes signs of jaundice, light coloured stool, dark urine, itching skin, impaired blood clotting, and hepatomegaly; longer in hep B

186
Q

posticteric

A

is last stage of hepatitis and is recovery with marked reduction in signs

187
Q

hepatotoxins

A

chemicals or toxins that cause inflammation and necrosis in the liver, causing an immune response or direct effects of toxins

188
Q

examples of hepatotoxins

A

acetaminophen, tetracycline, and halothane

189
Q

cholestasis

A

refers to obstructed flow of bile and can occur as a result of hepatotoxins

190
Q

cirrhosis

A

refers to progressive destruction of liver tissue, leading to liver failure; liver undergoes fibrosis and lobular organisation is lost; it is initially larger then shrinks; 4 types

191
Q

biliary cirrhosis

A

is associated with immune disorders causing obstruction of bile flow like cystic fibrosis or stones

192
Q

postnecrotic cirrhosis

A

is associated with chronic hepatitis or long term exposure to toxins

193
Q

metabolic cirrhosis

A

is caused by storage disorders like hemochromatosis

194
Q

acetaldehyde

A

is a metabolite of alcohol which is toxic to the liver cells

195
Q

how does alcoholic liver fibrosis develop?

A

first the liver becomes fatty, then inflammation, necrosis, and fibrous tissue develop; this fibrous tissue eventually replaces normal tissue

196
Q

hepatic encephalopathy

A

refers to the nervous system being affected due to high levels ammonia and toxins in the blood

197
Q

ammonia

A

protein of protiein metabolism that is converted to urea in the liver

198
Q

3 factors causing ascites in cirrhosis

A

increased hepatic hypertension, increased inactivation of aldosterone, and decreased plasma proteins

199
Q

most common liver cancer

A

hepatocellular carcinoma which develops in cirrhotic livers

200
Q

liver cancer signs

A

general cancer signs, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, and paraneoplastic signs due to the tumor secreting substances similar to erythropoietin, insulin, and estrogen

201
Q

pancreatitis

A

is inflammation of the pancreas resulting from autodigestion of tissues to to pancreatic proenzymes being activated in the pancreas; can be acute or chronic

202
Q

what is the first enzyme to be activated in pancreatitis?

A

trypsin

203
Q

what does chemical peritonitis occur in pancreatitis?

A

the inflammatory response that causes increased vascular permeability and vasodilation

204
Q

complications of pancreatitis

A

chemical peritonitis which may develop into bacterial peritonitis, hypovolemia, septicemia, adult respiratory distress syndrome, and acute renal failure

205
Q

causes of pancreatitis

A

gallstones and alcohol abuse

206
Q

primary symptom of pancreatitis

A

severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back

207
Q

major risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

smoking

208
Q

early signs of pancreatic cancer

A

jaundice and weight loss

209
Q

most common type of pancreatic cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

210
Q

what type of jaundice has light coloured stool?

A

posthepatic

211
Q

what hepatitis has cell-mediated responses to the virus?

A

B

212
Q

what ion binds to fatty acids?

A

calcium; thus hypocalcemia is common in pancreatitis

213
Q

celiac disease

A

is a deficit in the enzyme gliadin which breaks down gluten which cause the villi of the intestine to atrophy, leading to malabsorption and malnutrition

214
Q

signs of celiac disease

A

steatorrhea, muscle wasting, failure to gain weight, and irritability

215
Q

risks associated with celiac disease

A

an increased risk for intestinal lymphoma

216
Q

what areas of the GI tract does crohn’s disease effect

A

the ileum and sometimes the ascending colon and affects all layers of the intestine

217
Q

skip lesions

A

present in Crohn’s disease and are affected segments separated by areas of normal tissue

218
Q

signs of crohn’s disease

A

diarrhea, abdominal cramping, melena bleeding, pain and tenderness in URQ, and malnutrition signs

219
Q

how does the intestine appear in crohn’s

A

narrow, granulomas develop, skin lesions, adhesions between loops of intestine, fistulas may form between adhesions, and abscesses develop in the intestinal wall

220
Q

what areas of the GI tract does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

the rectum and then progresses up the colon; only the mucosa is affected

221
Q

how does the intestine appear in ulcerative colitis?

A

red, friable, with ulcers, granulation tissue forms, and bridges of intact mucosa form over the ulcers

222
Q

toxic megacolon

A

occurs in acute episodes of ulcerative colitis when the transverse colon is totally obstructed

223
Q

risk with ulcerative colitis

A

colorectal cancer

224
Q

signs of ulcerative colitis

A

diarrhea with blood and mucus, tenesmus (spasms of the rectum), and rectal bleeding

225
Q

diet for chronic irritable bowel disease

A

high in protein and nutrients but low in fat

226
Q

causes of IBS

A

hypersensitivity reaction, the effect of serotonin on the GI tract, activated mast cells and T cells, overgrowth of flora, food allergies or intolerances, and emotional stress

227
Q

how does appendicitis develop?

A

fecalith is obstructed in the appendix, followed by fluid and microorganisms accumulating here; inflammation and purulent exudate form, and necrosis and ischemia occur; peritonitis may develop and rupture of the appendix

228
Q

diverticulum

A

is an outpouching or herniation of the mucosa through the muscularis wall, most often in the sigmoid colon

229
Q

diverticulosis

A

is asymptomatic but refers to the presence of multiple diverticulum

230
Q

diverticulitis

A

refers to inflammation of the diverticulum

231
Q

where do diverticulum form?

A

at gaps between longitudinal muscle that coincide with openings in the circular muscle

232
Q

what may lead to the formation of diverticula

A

low-residue diets, irregular bowel habits, aging, and muscle hypertrophy in the colon

233
Q

what do most colorectal cancers develop from?

A

adenomatous polyps which is a mass that protrudes into the lumen

234
Q

where are projecting polypoid masses common?

A

the right colon

235
Q

where are napkin ring growths common?

A

the left colon

236
Q

where does colorectal cancer spread to?

A

the liver

237
Q

CEA

A

carcinoembryonic antigen that is an indicator of colon cancer

238
Q

ascending colon cancer signs

A

occult stool and anemia

239
Q

transverse colon cancer signs

A

semi-solid feces, anemia, and occult stool

240
Q

descending colon cancer signs

A

solid stool, constipation, red or dark blood in stool

241
Q

rectum cancer signs

A

incomplete emptying, ribbon stool, and red blood on the surface of stool

242
Q

paralytic ileus

A

refers to obstructions of the intestines due to neurological impairment

243
Q

volvulus

A

means twisting of the intestine

244
Q

what can intestinal obstruction lead to?

A

peritonitis

245
Q

hirschsprung disease

A

is a condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the intestine, impairing motility and leading to constipation

246
Q

Borborygmi

A

refers to audible rumbling sounds

247
Q

chemicals irritants that may cause peritonitis

A

bile, chyme, or foreign objects

248
Q

what occurs initially with peritonitis?

A

a thick, sticky exudate is produced to seal the area

249
Q

why does rigid, boardlike abdomen occur with peritonitis?

A

as a reflex causing spasm of the abdominal muscles

250
Q

signs of peritonitis

A

generalized abdominal pain, vomiting, signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, decreased skin tugor, dry buccal mucosa, pallor, low BP, tachycardia, decreased bowel signs, and fever

251
Q

intussusceptions

A

refers to the telescoping of one section of bowel inside another

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

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