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Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH module 4 review > Flashcards

HLTH module 4 review Flashcards

1
Q

capacitance vessels

A

term referring to large veins due to their reservoir for blood

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2
Q

vasa vasorum

A

tiny blood vessels supplying the vessels

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3
Q

elastic vessels

A

are large arteries

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4
Q

veins vs arteries

A

veins have thinner walls and less smooth muscle

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5
Q

norepinephrine and epinephrine roles in vasoconstriction

A

they do this by stimulating alpha1-adrenergic receptors in the vessel walls

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6
Q

how much blood in the adult body?

A

5 L

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7
Q

what might an elevated hematocrit indicate?

A

dehydration or excess of RBCs

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8
Q

what might a low hematocrit indicate?

A

anemia or blood loss

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9
Q

serum

A

refers to the fluid and solutes remaining after the cells and fibrinogen have been removed from the plasma

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10
Q

globulins role

A

are antibodies

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11
Q

common site for bone marrow biopsy

A

the iliac crest in the pelvic bone

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12
Q

dyscrasia

A

refers to disorders of the blood involving cells

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13
Q

when is erythropoiesis stimulated?

A

during hypoxia

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14
Q

what substances does RBC production depend on?

A

amino acids, iron, vitamin B12, vitamin B6, and folic acid

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15
Q

hemoglobin composition

A

it consists of the globin portion, which is two pairs of amino acid chains, and four heme groups, each containing a ferrous iron atom, to which the oxygen molecule (O2) can attach

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16
Q

oxyhemoglobin vs deoxyhemoglobin

A

oxy has O2 and is red and carried normally in arteries, whereas deoxy lacks oxygen and is more blue and commonly found in veins

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17
Q

if CO2 is carried by hemoglobin, what does it bind to?

A

nitrogen in an amino acid group

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18
Q

how can carbon monoxide poisoning be recognized?

A

bright cherry red colour in the face and lips

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19
Q

what are old RBCs recycled into?

A

globin and heme

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20
Q

what is globin broken down into?

A

amino acids

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21
Q

hemochromatosis

A

iron overload

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22
Q

what is heme broken down into?

A

bilirubin

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23
Q

what are colony-stimulating factors produced by?

A

macrophages and T cells

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24
Q

immature neutrophil name

A

band or stab

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25
Q

what drug interferes with blood clotting?

A

aspirin

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26
Q

factor II

A

prothrombin

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27
Q

factor I

A

fibrinogen

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28
Q

what is heparin released from?

A

mast cells or basophils

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29
Q

signs of a transfusion reaction

A

a feeling of warmth in the involved vein, flushed face, headache, fever and chills, pain in the chest and abdomen, decreased blood pressure, and rapid pulse

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30
Q

basic blood diagnostic test

A

complete blood count

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31
Q

mean cellular hemoglobin (MCH)

A

indicates the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

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32
Q

hemolink

A

made from human hemoglobin

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33
Q

hemopure

A

is made from cow hemoglobin

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34
Q

what is the major result of lymphatic disorders?

A

blood protein concentration and osmotic pressure due to a failure to return proteins to the circulation

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35
Q

functions of the spleen

A

defense (via macrophages), hematopoiesis, and red blood cell (RBC) and platelet destruction, as well as serving as a reservoir for blood

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36
Q

lymph is the thoracic duct

A

is protein rich

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37
Q

compensation mechanisms for low O2 in the blood

A

vasoconstriction and tachycardia

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38
Q

general effects of low O2

A

pallor, fatigue, dyspnea, tachycardia, agina (chest pain), inflamed GI tract, difficulty swallowing, anc cracked lips

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39
Q

causes of iron-deficiency anemia

A

diet, excessive loss of blood, malabsorption in the duodenum, or liver disease

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40
Q

appearance of iron-deficient cells

A

microcytic and hypochromic

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41
Q

megaloblastic anemia other name

A

pernicious anemia

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42
Q

megaloblastic anemia cell appearance

A

large, immature, and nucleated

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43
Q

megaloblastic anemia cause

A

deficit of B12 (or folic acid) due to a lack of intrinsic factor that results in impaired maturation of RBCs due to interference with DNA synthesis, in which they die early as a result

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44
Q

what other cells are also affected by megaloblastic anemia?

A

granulocytes may be immature and thrombocytes may be low

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45
Q

vitamin B12 and neurological function

A

lack of B12 can cause peripheral axon demyelination, interfering with nerve conduction; sensory nerves are affected first, then motor

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46
Q

causes of megaloblastic anemia

A

malabsorption caused by an autoimmune disease, alcoholism causing chronic gastritis, or from surgical procedures like a gastrectomy

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47
Q

ataxia

A

loss of muscle/motor coordination

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48
Q

signs of megaloblastic anemia

A

enlarged, sore, red, shiny tongue; gastric discomforts like nausea or diarrhea; and neurological defects like tingling or ataxia

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49
Q

treatment for megaloblastic anemia

A

vitamin B12 injections

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50
Q

aplastic anemia

A

is caused by impaired bone marrow, resulting in loss of stem cells and all blood cells

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51
Q

causes of aplastic anemia

A

myelotoxins (chemicals or radiation), viruses (hep C), autoimmune disorders (SLE), or myelodysplastic syndrome

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52
Q

signs of aplastic anemia

A

general anemia signs (pallor, fatigue, weakness), leukopenia that causes frequent infections, and thrombocytopenia petechiae, and tendency to bleed easy

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53
Q

thrombocytopenia petechiae

A

flat, red, pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin; associated with aplastic anemia

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54
Q

hemolytic anemia meaning

A

is excessive destruction of RBCs, leading to anemia; is sickle cell anemia and thalassemia

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55
Q

sickle cell anemia gene

A

is the HbS gene which is recessive and causes the amino acid normal glutamic acid component to be replaced with valine

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56
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

is a genetic disorder that causes the RBCs to take a crescent shape when in hypoxia, leading to excessive hemolysis of RBCs due to damaging their cell membrane

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57
Q

secondary effects of sickle cell anemia

A

thrombus formation, infarctions, obstruction of vessels, necrosis, jaundice, gallstones, and enlarged spleen

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58
Q

signs of sickle cell anemia

A

general anemia, jaundice, gallstones, pain, ulcers, CHF, delayed growth, intellectual impairment, and frequent infections

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59
Q

thalassemia

A

is a genetic condition is which one or more genes for hemoglobin are missing or variant, causing interference with globin chain production; this causes other chains to be in excess, damaging the RBC and causing hemolysis

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60
Q

heterozygous thalassemia name

A

cooley anemia

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61
Q

effects of thalassemia

A

enlarged liver and spleen, excessive bilirubin, hyperactive bone marrow, impaired growth, and heart failure

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62
Q

appearance of thalassemia cells

A

hypochromic and microcytic

63
Q

hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

64
Q

common causes of blood clotting

A

thrombocytopenia, liver disease, deficit of vitamin K, aspirin, anticoagulants, chemotherapy, radiation, leukemia, uremia (end stage kidney failure), and hemorrhagic fever (ebola)

65
Q

hemophilia A

A

most common and is a deficiency of clotting factor VIII

66
Q

hemophilia B

A

aka christmas disease; deficiency of clotting factor IX

67
Q

hemophilia C

A

aka rosenthal; deficiency of clotting factor XI

68
Q

hemophilia

A

is an X-linked recessive disorder so only manifests in men; it a deficit of a clotting factor (XIII, IX, or XI)

69
Q

hemarthrosis

A

bleeding into the joints

70
Q

hemophilia signs

A

frequent bleeding, hemarthrosis (bleeding into the joints), hematuria, hemorrhage, and recurrent infections

71
Q

von willebrand disease

A

is caused by a deficiency of von willebrand factor and manifests similar to hemophilia

72
Q

signs of von willebrand disease

A

easy bruising, skin rashes, nose bleeds, gum bleedings, and overall abnormal bleeding

73
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

condition involving excessive bleeding and clotting and is often secondary to other problems; it causes hemorrhage, hypotension, and shock

74
Q

causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

pregnancy problems related to the placenta, gram-negative endotoxins, trauma, or cancer

75
Q

main substance in disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

thromboplastin

76
Q

thrombophilia

A

is a genetic or inherited disorder causing abnormal blood clotting, leading to thrombus formation, embolism, MI, or stroke

77
Q

myelodysplastic syndrome

A

refers to a group of disorders causing abnormal production of cells by the bone marrow; excludes aplastic anemia and deficiency dyscrasias

78
Q

primary polycythemia

A

is a neoplastic disorder that occurs when the bone marrow produces more than normal RBCs and other cells; erythropoietin levels are low; aka vera

79
Q

secondary polycythemia

A

is increased production of RBCs and other cells during hypoxia; erythropoietin levels are high

80
Q

secondary effects of polycythemia

A

blood flow is sluggish, leading to thrombus formation, BP is high, the heart is hypertrophied, spleen and liver are enlarged, and hemorrhage may occur

81
Q

signs of polycythemia

A

cyanosis, high BP, pruritic skin, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, dyspnea, headaches, and joint pain

82
Q

leukemia

A

group of neoplastic disorders affecting WBCs, in which uncontrollable, immature and nonfunctional WBCs are released from the bone marrow

83
Q

acute leukemias

A

are higher proportions of immature cells in which the onset is abrupt, and signs are marked with clear complications

84
Q

chronic leukemias

A

the onset is mild and slow and a high proportion of mature, but nonfunctional cells are released from the bone marrow; prognosis is better

85
Q

what cells are most often affected in acute lymphatic leukemia

A

precursors to B cells

86
Q

Myelogenous leukemia

A

affects one or more of the granulocytes

87
Q

secondary effects of leukemia

A

other cell production is suppressed, leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia, and decreased number of functional leukocytes, rapid turnover of cells leads to hyperuricemia and kidney stone formation, crowding causes pain on nerves, hemorrhage is common, and enlargement of the liver and spleen

88
Q

Philadelphia chromosome

A

is present in most cases of chronic myeloblastic leukemia

89
Q

pharmacology

A

is the study of drugs, their actions, dosage, therapeutic uses (indications), and adverse effects

90
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

is the drug-induced responses of phy­siologic and biochemical systems

91
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

drug amounts at different sites after administration

92
Q

pharmacotherapeutics

A

choice and drug application for disease prevention, treatment, or diagnosis

93
Q

contraindications

A

are circumstances in which the drug should not be taken

94
Q

interactions

A

occur when a drug’s effect is modified by combining it with another drug, food, herbal compounds, or other material

95
Q

potentiation

A

a type of drug interaction, whereby one drug enhances the effect of a second drug

96
Q

dose

A

the amount of the drug taken at a single time

97
Q

dosage

A

the total amount of the drug given over a period of time

98
Q

loading dose

A

a larger dose given initially to achieve effects early on

99
Q

intrathecal injection

A

injection into the meninges surrounding the spinal cord

100
Q

enteric-coated tablets

A

is a special coating that prevents breakdown until the tablet is in the intestine, common with aspirin to prevent gastric irritation

101
Q

what do drugs in the blood bind to?

A

plasma proteins

102
Q

where are drugs metabolised and then excreted?

A

metabolised by the liver and excreted by the kidneys

103
Q

what is it called when a drug bind to a receptor and stimulates activity?

A

agonist

104
Q

what is it called when a drug bind to a receptor and inhibits activity?

A

antagonist

105
Q

beta-adrenergic blocking agents

A

these drugs bind to beta receptors (involved in sympathetic response) and prevent epinephrine release, thus decreasing HR and BP

106
Q

determining dose

A

the amount necessary to produce a therapeutic effect must be balanced with the level that may produce a toxic effect

107
Q

generic name

A

the unique, official, simple name for a specific drug, ex. ibuprofen

108
Q

brand or trade name

A

the trademark name assigned by a single manufacturer, and it is to be used only by that manufacturer, ex. advil

109
Q

schedule II vs schedule V drug

A

schedule II has a high potential for abuse, whereas V does not

110
Q

osteopaths

A

are medical doctors who use all the traditional treatment methods such as surgery and drugs, but in addition they promote the body’s natural healing processes by incorporating manipulations of the musculoskeletal system in both diagnosis and treatment

111
Q

homeopathy

A

has the goal of stimulating the immune system and natural healing power in the body through the use of plant, animal, and mineral products

112
Q

what can garlic help with?

A

cardiovascular health

113
Q

qi

A

used in chinese medicine

114
Q

ki

A

used in japanese medicine

115
Q

three sources qi is derived from

A

inherited or ancestral factors, food ingested, and air breathed in

116
Q

yin

A

lack of qi or cold

117
Q

yang

A

excess of qi or hot

118
Q

meridians

A

join body parts and organs together and are not to be confused with vessels or lymphatics

119
Q

tsubo

A

japanese name for acupoints

120
Q

moxibustion

A

is a form of acupuncture that specifically treats cold or deficiency patterns by burning moxa to produce pure yang energy that penetrates deeply into the body tissues to bring about relief

121
Q

shiatsu

A

is the Japanese-refined version of Chinese anma massage, or acupuncture without needle

122
Q

what does yoga improve?

A

the flow of prana

123
Q

craniosacral therapy

A

deals with the characteristic ebb and flow pulsing rhythm of the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid around the brain and spinal cord

124
Q

Ayurveda

A

indian practice that focuses on balancing body dosas

125
Q

most common disease of the lymphatic system

A

Lymphadenopathy, which is inflamed or infection lymph nodes

126
Q

lymphomas

A

are malignant neoplasms involving the proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes; two types are hodgkins and non-hodgkins

127
Q

Hodgkin Disease

A

lymphoma starting in the lymph nodes, causing defective T lymphocytes and overall decreased lymphocytes due to the reed-sternberg cell; 4 types

128
Q

most common staging system for Hodgkin disease

A

ann arbor system

129
Q

stage I hodgkin’s disease

A

affects a single lymph node

130
Q

stage II hodgkin’s disease

A

affects two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm or in a relatively localized area

131
Q

stage III hodgkin’s disease

A

involves infected lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm and the spleen

132
Q

stage IV hodgkin’s disease

A

diffuse extralymphatic involvement such as bone, lung, or liver

133
Q

signs of hodgkin’s disease

A

general cancer symptoms, enlarged lymph node that is painless, enlarged liver and spleen, pruritus, and recurrent infections

134
Q

hodgkin’s disease treatment

A

chemo (ABVD cycle), radiation, and surgery

135
Q

non-hodgkin’s disease

A

is more rapid spreading and has more metastasis and reed sternberg cells are absent

136
Q

multiple myeloma

A

neoplastic disease involving plasma cells which replace the bone marrow and erode bone, causing decreased cell production and decreased production of antibodies

137
Q

secondary effects of multiple myeloma

A

common pathologic fractures, hypercalcemia, common infections, pain, anemia, and impaired kidney function (causing proteinuria)

138
Q

proteinuria

A

protein in the urine

139
Q

Lymphedema

A

is a condition in which the tissues in the extremities swell because of an obstruction of the lymphatic vessels and the subsequent accumulation of lymph

140
Q

signs of lymphedema

A

edema that is initially soft but may become painful and frequent infections

141
Q

Elephantiasis

A

this is a type of lymphedema caused primarily by an infestation and blockage of the lymph vessels of the extremities by a parasitic worm called filaria

142
Q

podoconiosis

A

non filarial form of elephantiasis which is caused by volcanic ash

143
Q

Elephantiasis signs

A

swelling, thickening of skin, frequent infections, skin ulcers, and fever

144
Q

Castleman disease

A

refers to a group of inflammatory disorders. It is a rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue; not considered a cancer but can be a risk for developing lymphoma

145
Q

two types of castleman’s disease

A

unicentric (affects a single node) and multicentric (affects multiple nodes)

146
Q

unicentric castleman’s disease signs

A

difficulty breathing or eating, a large lump, weight loss, and persistent cough

147
Q

multicentric castleman’s disease signs

A

fever, night sweats, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, enlarged spleen, and weakness

148
Q

what circulates in the blood and prevents excessive clot formation?

A

antithrombin III

149
Q

what prevents platelets to sticking to tissue?

A

prostaglandins which is regulated by antithrombin III

150
Q

what is the major action of heparin?

A

it blocks thrombin and thus is an anticoagulant

151
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis

A

aka rh hemolytic disease

152
Q

what is required for transplants?

A

a close match in HLA (human leukocyte anitgen)

153
Q

the drug-half life meaning

A

the time it takes for the amount of a drug’s active substance in your body to reduce by half

154
Q
A

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

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