HLTH nervous system pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

hydrocephalus

A

is an accumulation of CSF in the skull common in infants because their sutures have not closed yet; 2 forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 types of hydrocephalus

A

noncommunicating/ obstructive and communicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

noncommunicating hydrocephalus

A

occurs when the flow of CSF through the ventricles is blocked and results from stenosis or a neural tube defect; ventricles gradullary dilate and enlarge, creating pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

communicating hydrocephalus

A

occurs when the absorption of CSF from the arachnoid villi is impaired, leading to increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cause of hydrocephalus

A

developmental abnormalities (stenosis or atresia), thickened arachnoid mater, tumor, infection, or scar tisse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

atresia

A

lack of an canal or opening; can cause noncommunicating hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

signs of hydrocephalus

A

increased head size in infants, dilated scalp veins, sunset sign, lethargy, and signs of increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sunset sign

A

is when the white sclera is visible above the coloured iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

spina bifida

A

refers to a group of neural tube disorders that are congenital, and often is a result of the failure of the posterior spinous processes of the vertebrae to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does the neural tube develop?

A

during the 4th week and extends from the cervical area into the lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

occurs when the spinous processes do not fuse and herniation of the spinal cord and meninges does not occur and usually is diagnosed by a dimple on the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

meningocele

A

occurs when the spinous processes do not fuse but herniation of the spinal cord and meninges occurs, forming a sac of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

myelomeningocele

A

is the most serious form of spina bifida and occurs when herniation of the spinal cord, nerves, and meninges occurs and results in considerable neurological impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

causes of spina bifida

A

genetic and environmental (lack of vitamin A or folic acid, gestational diabetes, and radiation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

signs of spina bifida

A

vary depending on which type but may be a sac forming a bulge on the skin, muscle weakness, paralysis, and impaired bladder control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cerebral palsy

A

is characterized by motor impairment in which the brain is damaged during development by hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, hemorrhage, infection, or trauma, in which the brain becomes necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does the brain appear in cerebral palsy?

A

necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

kernicterus

A

occurs when bilirubin crosses the blood-brain barrier and damages neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common type of cerebral palsy

A

spastic paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

spastic paralysis in cerebral palsy

A

most common type and results from damage to the pyramidal tracts or the motor cortex, causing hyperreflexia and increased muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

signs of spastic paralysis

A

crossed legs, scissors gait, and unilateral use of the hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dyskinetic cerebral palsy

A

results from damage to the extrapyramidal tracts or basal nuclei, causing athetoid (slow, involuntary writhing) or choreiform (rapid, jerky) involuntary movements and loss of coordination with fine movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

athetoid meaning

A

slow, involuntary writhing; present in dyskinetic CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

choreiform meaning

A

rapid, jerky movements; present in dyskinetic CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ataxic cerebral palsy

A

results from damage to the cerebellum and causes loss of balance and coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what besides motor function is impaired in cerebral palsy?

A

intellectual function, speech, communication, vision, and increased risk of seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

generalized seizures

A

have multiple foci or origins in deep structures of both hemispheres and the brainstem; causes loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

partial seizures

A

have a specific foci and may not cause loss of consciousness; may progress to generalized seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cause of a seizure

A

a sudden, uncontrollable depolarization of neurons in the brain causing abnormal motor and sensory activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

status epilepticus

A

are recurrent or continuous seizures that occur without recovery of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does the blood change with seizures?

A

acidosis, hypoglycemia, hypoxia, and decreased BP may all develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

precipitating factors to seizures

A

physical stimuli like bright lights and biochemical stimuli like stress, hyperventilation (alkalosis), excessive fluid retention or hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 types of generalized seizures

A

absence and tonic-clonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

absence (petit mal) seizures

A

common in children and is a brief loss (5-10 seconds) of consciousness with possible twitches of eyes and lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures

A

generalized seizures and classic understanding of seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

signs of a tonic-clonic seizure

A

prodromal signs may occur hours earlier, followed by an aura, loss of consciousness, tonic and clonic contractions, and foaming at the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

partial seizures signs

A

repeated motor movements like jerking of the legs, head movements, tingling, and ringing in the ears; consciousness is retained although memory of the episode may be impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Jacksonian seizure

A

is a focal seizure in which motor signs/ contractions begin in a specific area and spread

39
Q

temporal lobe or psychomotor seizures

A

are partial seizures and originate in the temporal lobe but may spread to the frontal lobe and limbic system; may result in hallucinations and bizare behaviour

40
Q

drug used for seizures

A

phenytoin which raises the threshold for neuron stimulation

41
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

is a progressive demyelination of the neurons of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves; is characterized by remissions and exacerbations

42
Q

how does multiple sclerosis develop?

A

an inflammatory response causes a lesion and cells that normally don’t enter the brain do, and attack the myelin of neurons

43
Q

plaques meaning

A

are areas of demyelination and inflammation in MS which are normally located near the ventricles, the brain stem, and optic nerve

44
Q

how does the appearance of the brain change with multiple sclerosis?

A

is first appears pink and swollen, then grey and firm

45
Q

cause of multiple sclerosis

A

not understood but believed to be an autoimmune disorder caused by environmental, genetic, and immune components

46
Q

early sign of multiple sclerosis

A

blurred vision

47
Q

signs of multiple sclerosis

A

blurred vision, weakness in the legs, diplopia, dysarthria, paresthesia, and a spot in the visual field; later this progresses to immobility problems, emptying problems, and sexual dysfunction

48
Q

CSF in multiple sclerosis

A

elevated proteins, gamma globulin, and lymphocytes

49
Q

parkinson’s disease

A

is a progressive, degenerative disorder affecting the extrapyramidal tracts due to changes in the basal nuclei, specifically the substantia nigra, leading to a decrease in dopamine and an increase in general muscle tone

50
Q

what does the deficit in dopamine in parkinson’s lead to?

A

an imbalance between excitation and inhibition of the basal nuclei

51
Q

characteristic of dementia

A

decreased number of cortical neurons

52
Q

general signs of parkinson’s

A

increased tremors, pill rolling motion, shuffling gait, increased muscle tone and activity, muscular rigidity, and difficulty initiating movement

53
Q

cause of parkinson’s

A

linked to viruses and toxins, leading to changes in the mitochondria and release of free radicals

54
Q

lewy bodies

A

are presence of clumps of specific substances in brain cells which are present in parkinson’s

55
Q

early signs of parkinson’s

A

fatigue, muscle weakness, muscle aching, and decreased flexibility

56
Q

Lou Gehrig disease

A

is another name for ALS

57
Q

ALS

A

is muscle wasting and hardening of the lateral corticospinal tracts which affects UMNs and LMNs

58
Q

cause of ALS

A

astrocytes secrete a neurotoxin leading to degeneration of motor neurons

59
Q

what is not affected in ALS?

A

sensory neurons, cognitive function, and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI

60
Q

early signs of ALS

A

weakness and atrophy at the hands and digits

61
Q

signs of ALS

A

weakness, atrophy, falls, muscle cramps, paralysis, loss of speech, and impaired respiration

62
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

is an autoimmune disorder that impairs receptors for AcH at the neuromuscular junction due to immunoglobulin G autoantibodies, preventing stimulation of the muscle

63
Q

cause of myasthenia gravis

A

is often associated with thymus disorders like hyperplasia or a benign tumor

64
Q

what areas of the body are affected first in myasthenia gravis?

A

the face and eyes, followed by the trunk and arms

65
Q

signs of myasthenia gravis

A

muscle weakness, ptosis and diplopia, facial expressions are lost, impaired chewing and swallowing, and dropping head

66
Q

myasthenic crisis

A

can be due to stress or infection and causes increased muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis

67
Q

huntington’s disease

A

is a inherited disorder that does not manifest until midlife, in which there is progressive atrophy of the brain, causing degeneration of neurons

68
Q

what areas of the brain are affected in huntington’s?

A

the basal ganglia and frontal cortex

69
Q

what levels are reduced in huntington’s?

A

GABA and ACh

70
Q

inheritance of huntington’s disease

A

autosomal-dominant trait on chromosome 4

71
Q

signs of huntington’s

A

mood swings, personality changes, restlessness, jerky movements, and possible intellectual impairment

72
Q

dementia

A

is an umbrella term for disorders in which cortical function is decreased, impairing cognitive and motor skills, memory, and causing personality changes

73
Q

causes of dementia

A

vascular disease, infections, toxins, and genetic

74
Q

most common type of dementia

A

alzheimer’s

75
Q

pathophysiology of alzheimer’s

A

cortical atrophy leading to dilated ventricles and widening of the sulci, and the development of neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques, as well as a defect of ACh

76
Q

plaques in alzheimer’s

A

are found in neurons and disrupt neural conduction through beta-amyloid precursor protein

77
Q

causes of alzheimer’s

A

is genetic in many cases, in which the gene is autosomal dominant and may be carried in chromosomes 1, 14, 19, and 21

78
Q

vascular dementia

A

is caused by cerebrovascular disease and frequently is a result of multiple, small brain infarctions and is common in those with hypertension

79
Q

Creutzfeldt–Jakob Disease

A

is a rare form of dementia with a long incubation period but progresses rapidly and is caused by a prion which alters the shape of normal host PrPs, causing rapid destruction of neurons and production of plaques and vacuoles in the neurons

80
Q

AIDS dementia

A

in common in the late stages of AIDS when viruses like toxoplasma and candida invade brain tissue, causing impaired cognitive and motor function

81
Q

changes in the brain in schizophrenia

A

decreased grey matter in the temporal lobes, enlarged ventricles, excessive dopamine secretion, abnormal cells in the hippocampus and decreased BF to the temporal lobes

82
Q

cause of schizophrenia

A

genetic along with brain damage in the fetus, usually the cause of a virus

83
Q

positive schizophrenia symptoms

A

delusions and bizare behaviour

84
Q

negative schizophrenia symptoms

A

flat emotions and decreased speech

85
Q

general schizophrenia signs

A

disorganized thought patterns, meaningless repetition of words, delusions of false beliefs, hallucinations, impaired attention, and social withdrawl

86
Q

cause of depression

A

decreased activity by excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain, including serotonin and norepinephrine

87
Q

signs of depression

A

prolonged period of sadness and hopelessness, decreased appetite and lipido, lack of energy and self esteem, sleep disorders, and irritability

88
Q

panic disorder vs panic attack

A

panic disorder is when attacks are frequent and prolonged in situations that are not life threatening

89
Q

cause of panic disorder

A

an increased discharge of neurons in the temporal lobes and biochemical abnormalities involving norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA

90
Q

herniated disc

A

involves the protrusion of the nucleus populous through a tear in the outer covering of the disc, and this exerts pressure on the spinal root and interferes with nerve conduction

91
Q

most common locations for herniated discs

A

L4 to L5 and sometimes L5 to S1

92
Q

lumbosacral herinations

A

causes pain in the lower back that radiates down one or both legs

93
Q

what actions radiate sciatic nerve pain?

A

coughing and straight leg raising

94
Q

cervical herination

A

causes pain in the neck and down the arms