HLTH 2501: infectious diseases (respiratory) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the common cold?

A

a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract

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2
Q

common pathogens causing the common cold

A

most often it is a rhinovirus, but may also be an adenovirus, parainfluenza virus, or coronavirus; however, there are more than 200 possible causative organisms

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3
Q

how is the common cold spread?

A

via respiratory droplets (these are either inhaled or spread by secretions on hands or contaminated objects)

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4
Q

why is the common cold so contagious?

A

because the virus is shed in large numbers from the infected nasal mucosa and it can also survive for several hours outside of the body

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5
Q

signs of a common cold

A

red nose, swollen pharynx, nasal congestion, watery eyes sneezing, mouth breathing, sore throat, headache, slight fever, malaise, cough, and may cause secondary infections

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6
Q

rhinorrhea

A

mucus or snot dripping out of the nose

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7
Q

what are common secondary infections of the common cold?

A

pharyngitis, laryngitis, or acute bronchitis,

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8
Q

treatment for the common cold

A

acetaminophen for fever and headache, decongestants, antihistamines, humidifiers, vitamin C, and antibiotics if a secondary infection has developed

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9
Q

another name for strep throat

A

pharyngitis

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10
Q

sinusitis

A

is usually a bacterial infection secondary to a cold or an allergy that has obstructed the drainage of one or more of the paranasal sinuses into the nasal cavity

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11
Q

common causative organisms for sinusitis

A

pneumococci, streptococci, or hemophilus influenza, as well as viruses or fungi

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12
Q

signs of sinusitis

A

pain in the facial bones (feels like a headache or toothache), nasal congestion, fever, and sore throat

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13
Q

why do you feel pain in the facial bones during sinusitis?

A

as exudate accumulates, pressure builds up inside the sinus cavity causing pain

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14
Q

diagnosis for sinusitis

A

radiograph or transillumination

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15
Q

treatment for sinusitis

A

decongestants, analgesics, and antibiotics

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16
Q

laryngotracheobronchitis

A

is a common viral infection in children that begins as an upper respiratory infection. causing inflammation of the mucosa and trachea, obstructing airflow

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17
Q

common causative agents of laryngotracheobronchitis

A

parainfluenza viruses and adenoviruses

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18
Q

signs of laryngotracheobronchitis

A

nasal congestion, cough, swelling, exudate, and inflammation, which lead to barking cough (croup) and hoarse voice

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19
Q

treatment for laryngotracheobronchitis

A

humidifiers, shower, or croup tent, but is usually self-limited and recovery is quick

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20
Q

epiglottitis causative organism

A

haemophilus influenzae

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21
Q

epiglottitis

A

is an acute bacterial infection common in children 3-7, causing swelling of the larynx, supraglottic area, and epiglottis

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22
Q

signs of epiglottitis

A

round, red ball obstructing the airway, fever, sore throat, inspiratory stridor (high-pitched sound), refusing to swallow, child takes a sitting position or tripod position with the mouth open, saliva drooling, and pallor

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23
Q

treatment for epiglottitis

A

oxygen and antimicrobial therapy, and sometimes tracheotomy

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24
Q

influenza

A

is a viral infection of both the upper and lower respiratory tracts and has three types (A,B,C)

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25
Q

type A influenza

A

is the most prevalent pathogen for influenza

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26
Q

flu vs cold

A

flu has a sudden onset with marked fever, fatigue, and body aching but both may cause secondary infections to develop

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27
Q

common secondary infection of influenza

A

pneumonia

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28
Q

treatment for influenza

A

antiviral drugs like amantadine, zanamivir, or oseltamivir

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29
Q

incubation period for influenza

A

1-4 days

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30
Q

what is scarlet fever caused by?

A

group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes

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31
Q

symptoms of scarlet fever

A

fever, sore throat, chills, vomiting, abdominal pain, malaise, strawberry tongue, and a fine rash on the chest, neck, groin, and things

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32
Q

strawberry tongue

A

common in scarlet fever and is caused by the exotoxin produced by the bacteria

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33
Q

treatment for scarlet fever

A

antibiotics

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34
Q

upper respiratory tract infections

A

scarlet fever, influenza, common cold, epiglottitis, sinusitis, and laryngotracheobronchitis

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35
Q

bronchiolitis

A

is a common viral infection in young children aged 2 to 12 months

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36
Q

causative organism for bronchiolitis

A

the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), a myxovirus

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37
Q

how is bronchiolitis transmitted?

A

oral droplets

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38
Q

what does the bronchiolitis infection cause?

A

necrosis and inflammation in the small bronchi and bronchioles, along with edema, increased secretions, and reflex bronchospasm leading to obstruction of the small airways

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39
Q

3 respiratory infections that affect young children

A

laryngotracheobronchitis, bronchiolitis, and epiglottitis

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40
Q

signs of bronchiolitis

A

wheezing, dyspnea, rapid and shallow respirations, cough, rales, chest retractions, fever, and malaise

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41
Q

treatment for bronchiolitis

A

RSV immunoglobulin serum (palivizumab) which is an RSV monoclonal antibody

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42
Q

pneumonia

A

is often a secondary infection to others and is at risk for developing when fluid pools in the lungs or when cilia function is reduced; causative agent can be a virus, bacterium, or fungus

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43
Q

how is pneumonia classified?

A

based on the causative agent, anatomic location of the infection, pathophysiologic changes, or epideminologic data

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44
Q

lobar pneumonia

A

is often caused by a bacterium, often staphylococcus aureus or legionella

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45
Q

pneumonia vaccines

A

there are 7 available for the most common agents are is often given to those with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular disease, as well as those 65+

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46
Q

what are common causative organisms of pneumonia for immunosuppressed individuals?

A

candida or pneumocystis carinii

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47
Q

viral pneumonia

A

often causes changes in the interstitial tissue or alveolar space

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48
Q

pneumococcal pneumonia

A

alveoli appears inflamed and is filled with exudate, resulting in a solid mass in a lobe

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49
Q

word for hospital acquired infections

A

nosocominal

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50
Q

what are causative agents in nosocomial pneumonias?

A

usually are gram-negative bacterias like klebsiella pneumoniae pr pseudomonas aeruginosa

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51
Q

community-acquired pneumonia

A

viral or bacterial

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52
Q

lobar pneumonia causative agent

A

S pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

53
Q

3 types of pneumonia

A

lobar, interstitial, or bronchial

54
Q

lobar pneumonia

A

infection if localized in one or more lobes and sometimes colonizes the nasopharynx

55
Q

lobar pneumonia development

A

congestion first develops due to inflammation and exudate in the alveoli, then a lobe called a consolidation develops, then RBC breakdown, and infection may spread into the pleural cavity causing empyema; hypoxia may also develop due to filling of the alveoli reducing gas exchange

56
Q

consolidation

A

is a mass of RBCs, neutrophils, and fibrin that accumulates in the alveolar exudate in lobar pneumonia

57
Q

sputum for lobar pneumonia

A

is rusty due to RBCs in the exudate

58
Q

empyema

A

infection of the pleural cavity resulting from spread of lobar pneumonia; can cause adhesion between the layers if not resolved quickly

59
Q

how is lobar pneumonia diagnosed?

A

chest X-rays and culture samples of the sputum

60
Q

signs of lobar pneumonia

A

hypoxia, sudden onset, high fever, chills, fatigue, leukocytosis, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, pleuritic pain, rales heard, productive cough with rust coloured sputum, and confusion and disorientation in severe cases

61
Q

other name for lobar pneumonia

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

62
Q

what can the oxygen deficit in lobar pneumonia result in?

A

metabolic acidosis

63
Q

treatment for lobar pneumonia

A

antibacterials like penicillin, in combination with fluids, drugs to reduce fever, and O2 administration

64
Q

bronchopneumonia

A

occurs as a diffuse pattern of infection in both lungs, often of the lower lobes; infection starts in the bronchial mucosa and spreads into the alveoli

65
Q

how does bronchopneumonia causative organism begin infection?

A

often when there is pooled secretions in the lungs, common in immobilized patients

66
Q

hypostatic pneumonia

A

develops in immobilized patients

67
Q

signs of bronchopneumonia

A

gradual onset with fever, cough, rales, and cough with purulent sputum (yellowish or green)

68
Q

legionnaires disease causative agent

A

a gram-negative bacteria called legionella pneumophila; this microbe thrives in warm, moist environments, often in spas or hospitals

69
Q

why is legionnaires disease difficult to identify?

A

because the microbe resides in pulmonary macrophages

70
Q

legionnaires disease symptoms if untreated

A

severe congestion and consolidation, with necrosis in the lungs

71
Q

primary atypical pneumonia

A

differs from typical types due to the causative organism (viral or mycoplasmal) and intestinal inflammation

72
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

is a small bacterium that lacks a cell wall and varies in shape; is normally found in the upper respiratory tract and is transmitted by aerosol

73
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia signs

A

frequent cough

74
Q

treatment for mycoplasma pneumonia

A

erythromycin or tetracycline therapy

75
Q

viral pneumonia causative agents

A

is caused by influenza A and B, as well as adenoviruses and RSV

76
Q

viral pneumonia development

A

begins gradual with inflammation in the mucosa of the upper tract, then descending to involve the lungs

77
Q

signs of viral pneumonia

A

unproductive cough, hoarseness, sore throat, headache, mild fever, and malaise

78
Q

chlamydial pneumonia

A

is caused by the organism Chlamydia pneumoniae and is considered to be the cause of PAP and pharyngitis

79
Q

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

A

is a type of atypical pneumonia and occurs as an opportunistic infection in those with AIDS and infants

80
Q

how does pneumocystis carinii pneumonia develop?

A

a fungus is inhaled and attaches to alveolar cells, causing necrosis and diffuse interstitial inflammation; the alveoli then fill with exudate and fungi

81
Q

signs of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

A

difficulty breathing and a nonproductive cough

82
Q

treatment for pneumocystis carinii for AIDS patients

A

prophylactic drugs like sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

83
Q

what is COVID-19 caused by?

A

SARS-CoV-2 virus

84
Q

unique pathophysiological signs of COVID-19

A

firm attachment to lung cells and the triggering of a cytokine storm

85
Q

COVID-19 virus

A

is an enveloped, single-stranded, positive sense RNA virus called SARS-CoV-2 and belongs to the coronaviridae family

86
Q

coronaviridae family

A

include COVID-19, SARS, and middle east respiratory syndrome virus

87
Q

cytokine storm for COVID-19

A

not fully understood but results in severe inflammation of the lungs, resulting in pneumonia and lung tissue damage

88
Q

signs in critical COVID-19 cases

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome, shock, encephalopathy, myocardial injury, heart failure, coagulation dysfunction, and acute kidney injury

89
Q

signs of COVID-19

A

fever or chills, coughing, sneezing, difficulty breathing, fatigue, temporary loss of taste, muscle aches, headache, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, congestion, and confusion in older individuals

90
Q

testing for COVID-19

A

antibody testing (presence of antibodies) and diagnostic (looking for presence of viral genetic material)

91
Q

drugs for COVID-19

A

malaria drug hydroxyquinoline combined with antibiotics and remdesivir

92
Q

SARS acronym

A

severe acute respiratory syndrome

93
Q

SARS

A

is an acute respiratory infection that was first diagnosed in 2002

94
Q

causative microbe for SARS

A

SARS-CoV a coronavirus which is a RNA virus

95
Q

how is SARS transmitted?

A

via respiratory droplets

96
Q

signs of SARS

A

first stage is flulike symptoms (fever, headache, myalgia, chills, anorexia, dirrahea) followed by a dry cough and dyspnea

97
Q

serum levels in those with SARS

A

low O2, low WBCs, low platelets, increased C-reactive proteins, and elevated liver enzymes

98
Q

treatment for SARS

A

antiviral ribavirin and the glucocorticoid methylprednisolone

99
Q

tuberculosis

A

is increasing globally again, particularly common amongst AIDS patients in Africa and among those in poverty and overcrowding

100
Q

what is the causative agent in tuberculosis?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis which primarily affects the lungs, but the pathogen may also invade other organs; this bacterium is resistant to many disinfectants and can survive in dried sputum for weeks

101
Q

tuberculosis vs immune system

A

the cell wall of the mycobacterium protects it

102
Q

primary infection of tuberculosis

A

is asymptomatic and occurs when the microorganisms first enter the lungs, are engulfed by macrophages and cause a local inflammatory reaction; this then forms a granuloma, then necrosis, and a calcified lesion that contains the bacilli until it is active again

103
Q

granuloma in tuberculosis

A

forms due to lymphocytes and macrophages clusters together at the site of inflammation; this then forms the tubercle which contains the bacilli; in the center of this, caseation necrosis will develop

104
Q

ghon complexes

A

calcified lesions in healthy individuals caused by tuberculosis in the lungs and lymph nodes

105
Q

Mantoux tuberculin test

A

is a hypersensitivity reactions that is used to detect exposure to the bacillus; the individual will produce a positive skin reaction, which is a hard, raised, red area

106
Q

testing for secondary phase of tuberculosis

A

mantoux tuberculin tests, X-ray, and sputum culture; sometimes a CT is used

107
Q

miliary tuberculosis

A

aka extrapulmonary TB; is a rapidly progressive form in which multiple granulomas affect large areas of the lungs and rapidly disseminate into the circulation and to other tissues (often bone or kidney)

108
Q

secondary tuberculosis

A

is the stage of active infection and arises years after primary infection when the bacilli, hidden in the tubercles are reactivated usually due to decreased host resistance

109
Q

what occurs in the secondary phase of tuberculosis?

A

larger areas of necrosis form, cavitation, hemoptysis, and infection may spread

110
Q

cavitation

A

is the formation of a large open area in the lung and erosion into the bronchi and blood vessels; occurs in secondary phase of tuberculosis

111
Q

how is tuberculosis transmitted?

A

oral droplets or digestion from unpasteurized milk

112
Q

signs of tuberculosis

A

only symptoms in secondary phase and are anorexia, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, night sweats, prolonged cough, and purulent sputum that often contains blood

113
Q

testing for the primary phase of tuberculosis

A

a tuberculin test

114
Q

treatment for primary phase of tuberculosis

A

drugs like isoniazid and rifampin; these can prevent the disease from becoming the fully active form

115
Q

treatment for secondary phase of tuberculosis

A

drugs like isoniazid, rifampin, and streptomycin; treatment usually is 6 months to a year

116
Q

histoplasmosis

A

is a fungal infection that is commonly opportunistic and has effects similar to tuberculosis

117
Q

causative organism in histoplasmosis

A

the fungus histoplasma capsulatum and is often found as a parasite inside macrophages

118
Q

where is histoplasmosis common?

A

the midwestern US

119
Q

how is histoplasmosis transmitted?

A

as a spore being inhaled on dust particles

120
Q

how is histoplasmosis similar to tuberculosis?

A

it has a primary asymptomatic phase, followed by a second stage of infection that involves granulomas and necrosis in the lungs, and possibly spread to other organs

121
Q

signs of histoplasmosis

A

cough, fatigue, fever, and night weats

122
Q

how is histoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

via a skin test and a culture to confirm this

123
Q

treatment for histoplasmosis

A

antifungal agent amphotericin B

124
Q

anthrax

A

ia a bacterial infection of the skin, respiratory tract, and GI tract in humans and catle

125
Q

causative organism for anthrax

A

gram-positive bacillus that forms grayish-white spores that can remain viable for long periods of time

126
Q

cutaneous form of anthrax signs

A

blisters and bumps that may itch, swelling around the sore, painless open skin sore with a black centre, and sores often develop on the face, neck, arms, or hands

127
Q

inhalation form of anthrax

A

fever and chills, chest discomfort, dyspnea, cough, confusion, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, headache, sweats, extreme tiredness, and body aches

128
Q

GI form of anthrax

A

fever, chills, swelling of neck glands, sore throat, painful swallowing, hoarseness, nausea, vomiting with blood, headache, flushing face and red eyes, fainting, and abdominal swelling

129
Q

how is anthrax treated?

A

with the antimicrobial ciprofloxacin along with the administration of anthrax antitoxin