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Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH muscle and joints > Flashcards

HLTH muscle and joints Flashcards

1
Q

significance of unique markings on bones

A

provide attachment for tendons and passageways for blood vessels and nerves

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2
Q

what does the periosteum contain?

A

osteoblasts, vessels, nerves, and lymphatics

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3
Q

what is the medullary cavity lined with?

A

endosteum which contains osteoblasts

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4
Q

where is adult red bone marrow found?

A

cranium, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, and ilia

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5
Q

motor unit meaning

A

is the motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it stimulates

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6
Q

myofibrils

A

found in each muscle cell and contain smaller myofilaments containing actin and myosin

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7
Q

what is stored in muscle cells?

A

glycogen

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8
Q

aerobic respiration

A

is used to produce ATP as long as O2 is available

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9
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

is when O2 is not available and glucose is used as the primary energy source for muscles; produces smaller amounts of ATP and lactic acid

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10
Q

during strenuous exercise, is the body more acidic or basic?

A

acidic

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11
Q

adverse effects of anabolic steroids

A

liver damage, cardiovascular damage, personality changes, irritability, and sterility

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12
Q

synarthroses

A

immovable joints

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13
Q

amphiarthroses

A

slightly moveable joints in which the bones are connected by hyaline or fibrocartilage

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14
Q

diarthroses

A

freely moveable joints aka synovial joints

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15
Q

articular capsule

A

is composed of the synovial membrane and the fibrous capsule which is the outer covering

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16
Q

menisci role

A

stabilize the joint

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17
Q

bursae

A

are fluid filled sacs composed on synovial membrane and are located between tendons or joints; these offer extra cushioning in the joints

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18
Q

electromyograms

A

measure the electrical change associated with muscle contraction and are helpful for differentiating muscle disorders from neurological damage

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19
Q

mature bone cells and location

A

are osteocytes and found in lacunae

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20
Q

osteoprogenitor cells

A

are derived from embryonic mesenchymal cells and develop into osteoblasts

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21
Q

where are osteoclasts derived from?

A

macrophage progenitor cells

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22
Q

what skeletal muscles are not voluntary?

A

breathing, blinking, posture, and shivering

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23
Q

acetylcholinesterase

A

is an enzyme that inactivates AcH after contraction

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24
Q

why do increased respirations occur during exercise?

A

to compensate for metabolic acidosis during anaerobic exercise

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25
Q

what is a muscle cramp a result from and why does pain occur?

A

strong muscle contractions or spasms and the release of metabolic wastes; these reduce blood flow, causing ischemic pain

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26
Q

how do muscles change with aerobic exercise?

A

they do not hypertrophy but instead increase the blood flow and mitochondria to increase O2 supply

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27
Q

segmental fracture

A

is when a several large bone fragments separate from the main body of a fractured bone

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28
Q

where are compression fractures common?

A

the vertebrae

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29
Q

where are stress fractures common?

A

the tibia, fibula, and 2/3 metatarsal

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30
Q

colles fracture

A

is a break in the distal radius of the wrist; commonly when falling and attempting to break the fall

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31
Q

pott fracture

A

fracture of the lower tibia due to excessive stress often from forceful stepping down

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32
Q

what is the of the blood clot forming in the medullary canal during healing of a fracture

A

hematoma

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33
Q

purpose of the hematoma for fracture healing

A

serves as a basis for the fibrin network in which granulation tissue grows

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34
Q

procallus

A

aka fibrocartilaginous callus and serves as the preliminary bridge between the broken ends during healing

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35
Q

what is the procallus replaced by?

A

the bony callus

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36
Q

5 stages of bone healing

A

hematoma, granulation tissue, procallus, bony callus, and remodelling

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37
Q

systemic problems delaying bone healing?

A

anemia, diabetes, circulatory problems, and nutritional defects

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38
Q

what causes ischemia during healing?

A

edema in a cast

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39
Q

compartment syndrome

A

occurs when there is more extensive inflammation, causing the increased pressure within the fluid of the fascia, which compresses nerves and causes pain; common in a cast

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40
Q

fat emboli

A

occurs when yellow bone marrow travels into the circulation and to the lungs, causing behavioural changes, confusion, disorientation, respiratory distress, and hypoxia

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41
Q

from which bones does fat emboli often occur?

A

pelvis or long bones like the femur

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42
Q

closed reduction

A

is done using traction or using pressure to move the bones closer together

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43
Q

open reduction

A

requires surgery and devices like pins, plates, and rods to move bones closer together

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44
Q

subluxation

A

is partial dislocation

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45
Q

sprain vs strain

A

sprain is a tear in a ligament and strain is a tear in a tendon

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46
Q

avulsion

A

is when ligaments or tendons are completely separated from the bone

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47
Q

how does healings of strains and sprains occur?

A

granulation tissue forms, collagen is placed down, and fibrous tissue forms

48
Q

tennis elbow

A

is inflammation between the humerus and the forearm muscle

49
Q

what do muscle tears result in?

A

hematoma and scar tissue formation

50
Q

result of repeated injuries

A

scar tissue, loss of strength and ROM, permanent joint damage, and OA

51
Q

repetitive strain injury

A

refers to disorders affecting muscle, tendons, and nerves that develop over a period of time, and often is associated with forceful and repetitive motions; this is because circulation to the tissue is reduced and tissues are damaged

52
Q

primary vs secondary osteoporosis

A

primary is postmenopausal or idiopathic whereas secondary follows another condition like cushing syndrome

53
Q

what bones are affected more by osteoporosis?

A

those with higher proportions of cancellous bone like the vertebrae and femoral neck

54
Q

osteopenia

A

is the decline of bone density and is considered a midpoint to osteoporosis

55
Q

why is osteoporosis common in postmenopausal women?

A

due to a decline in estrogen and osteoblastic activity also decreases with age

56
Q

factors contributing to osteoporosis

A

aging, immobility, excessive glucocorticoids, hyperparathyroidism, small bone structure, cigarette smoking, caffeine intake, and vitamin deficiencies (D and C)

57
Q

rickets/osteomalacia and causes

A

is a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates, resulting in soft bones and compression fractures; often is a result of malnutrition, lack of sun exposure, and prolonged intake of phenobarbital (for seizures)

58
Q

rickets vs osteomalacia

A

rickets is in children and osteomalacia is in adults

59
Q

renal rickets

A

refers to osteomalacia as a result of severe renal disease

60
Q

pagets disease

A

is a progressive bone disorder in 40+ adults is which excessive bone destruction occurs and is replaced with fibrous tissue

61
Q

complications of pagets disease

A

thickening of bones, compression/pathological fractures, increased intracranial pressure and kyphosis

62
Q

causes of pagets disease

A

a viral infection as a child and genetic factors

63
Q

osteomyelitis

A

is a bone infection from a bacteria or fungi then spread through the bloodstream to bones

64
Q

signs of osteomyelitis

A

local inflammation, bone pain, fever, excessive sweating, chills, and malaise

65
Q

lordosis

A

curve of the lower back

66
Q

lordosis causes

A

obesity, achondroplasia, discitis, and slipping forward of the vertebrae

67
Q

kyphosis

A

hunchback

68
Q

kyphosis causes

A

poor posture, spina bifida, spinal tumors, or scheuermann disease

69
Q

common locations of bone tumors

A

spine and pelvis

70
Q

where do bone tumors usually come from?

A

breast, lung, or prostate

71
Q

osteosarcoma

A

primary malignant tumor that commonly develops in the metaphysis of the femur, tibia, or fibula

72
Q

ewing sarcoma

A

is a primary malignant tumor in the diaphysis of long bones

73
Q

where do primary bone malignant tumors often spread to?

A

the lungs

74
Q

signs of bone cancer

A

steady, severe pain at rest

75
Q

chondrosarcomas

A

arise from cartilage cells and often form at the pelvis or shoulder girdle at points of attachment

76
Q

duchenne MD

A

most common MD and is inherited as an X-linked recessive gene

77
Q

pathophysiology of all MDs

A

a deficit of dystrophin causes skeletal muscle to gradually be replaced with fibrous tissue, causing muscle function to be lost

78
Q

facioscapulohumeral

A

is a type of MD that has an onset before age 20 and is an autosomal dominant gene affecting the shoulder, neck, and face

79
Q

myotonic

A

is a type of MD with a slow development until age 50 and is an autosomal dominant inheritance on chromosome 19; it affects the face and hands

80
Q

limb girdle

A

is an MD whose progression varies but affects the shoulder and pelvis and is an autosomal recessive gene

81
Q

duchenne’s MD signs

A

around age 2-3, difficulty climbing stairs, waddling gait, and gower’s maneuver develop

82
Q

what is the cause of death in MD

A

respiratory or cardiac failure

83
Q

primary fibromyalgia

A

is a group of syndromes characterized by pain and stiffness affecting muscles, tendons, and surrounding soft tissues

84
Q

cause of primary fibromyalgia

A

not fully understood but central nervous system transmission is altered, resulting in increased soft tissue sensitivity to substance P, a neurotransmitter involved in pain

85
Q

signs of primary fibromyalgia

A

muscle aching, fatigue, sleep disturbances, depression, and IBS; men also have jaw pain and headaches

86
Q

myositis

A

refers to inflammation and damage of the muscles caused by secondary conditions

87
Q

types of myositis

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis, juvenile myositis (these are autoimmune diseases), inclusion body myositis, and toxic myositis

88
Q

primary vs secondary OA

A

primary is associated with aging and obesity and secondary with abuse or injury

89
Q

how does OA develop?

A

damage of the articular cartilage becomes rough due to breakdown, causing the release of enzymes which accelerate this degeneration; cysts and osteophytes develop and may narrow the cavity and break off

90
Q

how does RA first appear?

A

symmetrical involvement of the small joints

91
Q

how does RA develop?

A

due to an abnormal immune response (autoimmune), often viral, causing synovitis which results in the production of antibody rheumatoid factor which defends against immunoglobulin G

92
Q

exacerbations of RA

A

inflammation of the synovium reoccurs and granulation tissue called pannus forms over the articular cartilage, releasing destructive enzymes; cartilage erodes and nutritional supply is limited; in time, the granulation tissue will be replaced by fibrous tissue, and ankylosis may develop

93
Q

ankylosis

A

refers to joint fixation

94
Q

changes around the joint in RA

A

muscles atrophy, tendons and ligaments stretch, spasms may occur, alignment of the joint shifts, and contractures and subluxation develop

95
Q

systemic effects of RA

A

nodules on the extensor surfaces, pleura, heart, or eyes may form; fatigue, malaise, fever, anorexia, and iron-deficiency anemia (doesn’t respond to treatment) may also develop

96
Q

criteria for diagnosis of RA

A

swelling of 3 joints for a minimum of six weeks

97
Q

celecoxib

A

inhibits prostaglandin production during inflammation and is used to treat RA; however is associated with increased risk of MIs and strokes

98
Q

JRA vs RA

A

JRA is more acute, with more systemic effects, and affects larger joints; RF and nodules are absent; antinuclear antibodies may be present as well

99
Q

systemic signs of JRA

A

rash, fever, lymphadenopathy, uveitis, and hepatomegaly

100
Q

infectious arthritis

A

aka septic arthritis; is caused by a bacterium and usually develops in a single joint, causing redness, swelling, pain, decreased ROM, and purulent exudate

101
Q

causative organism for infectious arthritis

A

gonococcus or staphylococcus

102
Q

psoriatic arthritis

A

is an autoimmune disorder that is accompanied by psoriasis; can appear in many different forms, ex. symmetric or asymmetric

103
Q

signs of psoriatic arthritis

A

swollen tender joints, painful muscles and tendons, scaly skin patches and scalp, nail pitting, and eye pain

104
Q

gout

A

results from deposits of uric acid and urate crystals in the joint cavity that cause an acute inflammatory response; usually affects a single joint and causes pain, redness, and swelling

105
Q

tophus

A

is a large, hard nodule of urate crystals in soft tissue or bone, causing a local inflammatory response

106
Q

common locations for tophus

A

burase, extensor surfaces of the forearm, and the ear

107
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

is a progressive autoimmune inflammatory disorder affecting the sacroiliac joints, intervertebral spaces, and costovertebral joints of the axial skeleton, characterized by remissions and exacerbations

108
Q

cause of ankylosing spondylitis

A

is an autoimmune disorder with a genetic basis and the HLA-B27 antigen

109
Q

pathophysiology of ankylosing spondylitis

A

inflammation of the joints leads to fibrosis and calcification, resulting in fixation of the joint that begins at the sacroiliac joints and progresses up the spine; kyphosis and osteoporosis develop, as well as impaired lung expansion

110
Q

signs of ankylosing spondylitis

A

lower back pain and stiffness that is similar to sciatic pain; as calcification develops, the spine becomes more rigid; systemic signs and uveitis also may develop

111
Q

bursitis

A

inflammation of the bursae often a result of repetitive motions like throwing a baseball

112
Q

tendonitis

A

inflammation of the tendon characterized by dull, aching pain at the site of tendon attachment and is often the result of repetitive motions

113
Q

what often cause soft tissue damage?

A

strains, sprains, and dislocations

114
Q

creatine kinase

A

plays a role in energy storage and is released by damaged muscles

115
Q

still disease

A

is present in JRA and includes systemic effects like rash, fever, lymphadenopathy, and hepatomegaly

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

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