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Anatomy and Phyisology > HLTH nervous system review > Flashcards

HLTH nervous system review Flashcards

1
Q

anatomy of sutures

A

fibrous CT

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2
Q

choroid plexuses

A

areas of highly vascularized tissues in the ventricles that filter CSF

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3
Q

largest opening in the skull

A

forearm magnum which passes through the occipital bone

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4
Q

association area

A

refers to where sensory input is recognized and interpreted; ex. visual stimuli is identified here

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5
Q

dominant hemisphere meaning

A

is the side of the brain controlling language, which is usually the left side

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6
Q

broca’s area

A

motor speech area; located at the base of the premotor area of the left hemisphere

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7
Q

wernicke’s area

A

sensory speech area; located in the posterior temporal lobe

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8
Q

prefrontal cortex function

A

intellectual function, personality, and impulse control

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9
Q

basal nuclei

A

part of the extrapyramidal system and prevents excessive movements as well as accessory movements (ex. swinging arms while walking)

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10
Q

where is the limbic system located?

A

superior part of the brainstem

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11
Q

epithalamus

A

acts as a connection between the limbic system and other areas of the brain

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12
Q

2 arteries supplying the brain

A

internal carotid and vertebral

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13
Q

anterior cerebral artery

A

supplies the frontal lobe

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14
Q

middle cerebral artery

A

supplies the lateral sides of the temporal and parietal lobes

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15
Q

basilar artery

A

supplies the brainstem and cerebellum; this branches to form the left and right posterior cerebral artery

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16
Q

posterior cerebral artery

A

supplies the occipital lobe

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17
Q

circle of willis

A

provides an alternative source of blood when obstruction occurs in the vertebral or internal carotid arteries; surrounds the pituitary gland and optic chiasm

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18
Q

4 cranial nerves containing parasympathetic fibres

A

III, VII, IX, and X

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19
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1; below this is the cauda equina

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20
Q

lateral spinothalamic tract

A

ascending tract regulating temperature and pain

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21
Q

dermatone

A

is an area of sensory innervation of the skin by a spinal nerve

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22
Q

what cells create the myelin sheath?

A

schwann cells in the PNS and oligodendrocytes in the CNS

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23
Q

glial cells

A

supporting cells for neurons

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24
Q

astroglia

A

provide a link between neurons and capillaries, provide metabolic support, and help establish the blood-brain barrier

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25
Q

microglia

A

have phagocyte activity

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26
Q

ependymal cells

A

line ventricles and spinal cord and form choroid plexuses

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27
Q

where does neurogenesis usually occur?

A

in the hippocampus

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28
Q

electroencephalogram

A

measures brain waves and electrical activity

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29
Q

examples of cathecolimes

A

dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

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30
Q

most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid

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31
Q

most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord

A

glycine

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32
Q

serotonin role

A

is involved in mood, sleep, and emotions

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33
Q

histamine role

A

is involved in body temperature, emotions, and water balance

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34
Q

heart, blood vessel, and renin receptor

A

beta 1

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35
Q

skin, mucosa, and viscera receptors

A

alpha 1

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36
Q

skeletal muscle receptors

A

beta 2

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37
Q

respiratory system receptors

A

beta 2

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38
Q

what do alpha 1 receptors supply?

A

skin, mucosa, viscera, eye, sweat glands, digestive sphincters, and male genitalia

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39
Q

alpha 2 receptors

A

supply the digestive system

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40
Q

what receptors does norepinephrine act on?

A

alpha

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41
Q

what receptors does epinephrine act on?

A

alpha and beta

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42
Q

nicotinic receptors

A

are always stimulated by AcH and are part of the PNS

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43
Q

muscarinic

A

are either stimulated or inhibited by AcH and are part of the PNS

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44
Q

cholinergic blocking agents

A

block PNS activity

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45
Q

cholinergic or anticholinesterase agents

A

increase PNS activity

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46
Q

where are UMN located?

A

the motor cortex

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47
Q

where is the RAS found?

A

the midbrain

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48
Q

extrapyramidal tract function

A

modify and coordinate voluntary output and maintain posture

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49
Q

4 nerve plexuses

A

brachial, lumbar, sciatic, and cervical

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50
Q

saltatory conduction

A

involves the rapid AP along myelinated neurons

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51
Q

cholinergic fibers

A

refers to SNS preganglionic fibres that release AcH

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52
Q

adrenergic fibers

A

refers to SNS postganglionic fibres that release norepinephrine

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53
Q

local effects meaning

A

refers to damage in a localized area in which the effects are specific to that area; ex. damage to left frontal lobe results in damage to right arm

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54
Q

supratentorial lesions

A

occur above the tentorium cerebelli; this leads to specific dysfunction of an area

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55
Q

infratentorial lesions

A

occurs below the tentorium cerebelli or brainstem; lead to more generalized impairment due to nerves grouping together below this region

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56
Q

what determines levels of consciousness?

A

the RAS and cerebral cortex

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57
Q

first sign of those with brain disorders

A

decreased level of resposiveness

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58
Q

what systemic disorders can suppress brain function?

A

acidosis and hypoglycemia

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59
Q

coma

A

is when the person is unconscious, motionless, does not respond to visual or verbal stimuli, but some reflexes are still maintained

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60
Q

terminal stage of a coma

A

loss of all reflexes, dilated pupils, and slow/irregular pulse and respirations

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61
Q

vegetative state

A

loss of awareness of mental function but brainstem functions continue

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62
Q

locked in syndrome

A

the individual is paralyzed but is aware and capable of thinking

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63
Q

brain dead criteria

A

flat EEG, absence of reflexes, absence of brainstem function, absence of respirations, and irreversible

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64
Q

what can cause temporary brain death?

A

hypothermia or drug overdose

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65
Q

damage to UMNs

A

causes hyperreflexia and spastic paralysis on the contralateral side

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66
Q

damage to LMNs

A

causes flaccid paralysis and absence of reflexes on the same side

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67
Q

decorticate responses

A

flexion of upper limbs, abducted arms, internal rotation of hands, and lower limbs are extended; common due to damage in the hemispheres

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68
Q

decerebrate responses

A

upper and lower limbs are extended, and the body is arched; commonly results from brainstem damage or systemic effects to the CNS

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69
Q

where is the somatosensory cortex located?

A

the parietal lobe

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70
Q

damage to the optic chiasm

A

vision is lost in both eyes

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71
Q

damage to the medial optic fibres

A

results in damage to the contralateral side

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72
Q

damage to the lateral optic fibres

A

results in damage to the ipsilateral side

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73
Q

damage to the optic tract or occipital lobe

A

vision is lost from the medial half of one eye and the lateral half of the other; overall effect is loss of vision on the side opposite to the damage

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74
Q

homonymous hemianopia

A

is damage to the optic tract or occipital lobe resulting in damage to the medial half of one eye and the lateral half of the other

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75
Q

diplopia

A

refers to double vision

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76
Q

aphasia

A

refers to an inability to process or comprehend language; 3 types: recessive, expressive, or global

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77
Q

dysphasia

A

refers to partial loss of processing or comprehending language

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78
Q

expressive aphasia

A

refers to damage to the broca’s area in the left frontal lobe; cannot create meaningful sentences

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79
Q

receptive aphasia

A

refers to damage to the wernicke’s area in the left temporal lobe; cannot understand the spoken or written words; still capable of speaking, but it is meaningless

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80
Q

global aphasia

A

refers to damage to both the broca’s and wernicke’s areas

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81
Q

fluent aphasia

A

pace of speech is normal but includes made up words; associated with damage to the wernicke’s area

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82
Q

nonfluent aphasia

A

slow and laboured speech with short phases; associated with damage to the broca’s area

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83
Q

dysarthria

A

refers to words not being articulated clearly and is a motor dysfunction

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84
Q

agraphia

A

impaired writing ability

85
Q

alexia

A

impaired reading ability

86
Q

agnosia

A

loss of recognition or association

87
Q

what are seizures caused by?

A

spontaneous excessive discharge of neurons in the brain and may be due to bleeding, inflammation, or hypoxia

88
Q

signs of seizures

A

temporary confusion, a staring spell, rapid jerking of arms and legs, unconsciousness, and fear or anxiety

89
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

is a neurological disorder caused by the longtime use of neuroleptic drugs (used for psychartitic and GI disorders) or antipsychotic drugs

90
Q

signs of tardive dyskinesia

A

repetitive involuntary movements like grimacing, tongue protrusion, lip smacking, puckering and pursing, and rapid eye blinking

91
Q

what disorders is increased ICP common in?

A

tumors, hemorrhage, cerebral edema, trauma, or accumulation of CSF

92
Q

signs of increased ICP

A

headache, vomiting, decreasing level of consciousness, increasing BP, slow heart rate, and vision problems (including papilledema, fixed and dilated pupils, first in one pupil then in both, and ptosis)

93
Q

papilledema

A

increased pressure of CSF causes swelling around the optic disc

94
Q

compensation for increased ICP

A

increase venous return, shifting CSF into the spinal cavity, and vasodilation (which makes things worse), as well as systemic vasoconstriction and decreased respiratory rate

95
Q

Cheyne–Stokes respirations

A

common with increased ICP and is alternating apnea and increasing and decreasing respirations

96
Q

ptosis

A

means droopy eyelid and is common with increased ICP

97
Q

where is lumbar puncture done?

A

L3-L4

98
Q

pressure of CSF in increased ICP

A

> 20 mm Hg

99
Q

transtentorial (central) herniation

A

occurs when the hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain are displaced downwards, affecting respiration, the RAS, and the flow of blood and CSF

100
Q

uncal (uncinate) herniation

A

occurs when the uncus of the temporal lobe is displaced downwards past the tentorium cerebelli, creating pressure on cranial nerve III, the posterior cerebral artery, and the RAS

101
Q

cerebellar, or tonsillar (infratentorial), herniation

A

occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are pushed downward through the forearm magnum which compresses the brainstem and vital centres

102
Q

pulse pressure

A

the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure; this increases with ICP from the decreased heart rate and cushing reflex

103
Q

most common brain tumor

A

gliomas which result from glial cells; can be further subdivided, in which astrocytomas are the most common

104
Q

where do secondary tumors of the brain usually spread from?

A

lung or breast cancer

105
Q

what brain tumors are common in younger children?

A

cerebellar and brainstem

106
Q

signs of brain tumors

A

morning headaches, visual problems, vomiting, lethargy, irritability, and seizures

107
Q

2 origins of vascular brain disorders

A

ischemia or hemorrhage

108
Q

global cerebral ischemia

A

can result from shock or cardiac arrest and results in loss of function and cerebral edema

109
Q

transient ischemic attack

A

results from a temporary decreased blood flow to the brain due to an atherosclerosis, vasospasm, embolus, or loss of autoregulation; results in increased risk for a CVA/stroke

110
Q

signs of a transient ischemic attack

A

short periods of muscle weakness, visual disturbances, confusion, aphasia, or numbness may occur

111
Q

cerebrovascular accident

A

aka stroke; is an infarction of brain tissue due to a lack of blood and O2

112
Q

how does the brain change with a stroke?

A

the brain tissue necrosis, inflammation develops, tissue liquifies creating a cavity, and a loss of function of that area develops; this is eventually replaced with scar tissue and cysts

113
Q

3 types of CVAs

A

hemorrhage, embolus, and thrombus

114
Q

most common cause of a CVA

A

atheroma in a large artery; these may also develop in cerebral arteries

115
Q

thrombus CVA

A

is a gradually developing atheroma in a cerebral artery, in which the onset is gradual and causes localized effects

116
Q

embolic CVA

A

is an atheroma that breaks away from a larger artery and lodges in a cerebral artery, causing a rapid onset and localized effects

117
Q

hemorrhage CVA

A

is caused by hypertension and an atheroma, in which the onset is rapid and ICP increases, with widespread effects

118
Q

what are the effects of blood in the brain?

A

vasospasm, electrolyte imbalance, acidosis, and cerebral edema

119
Q

risk factors for a CVA

A

hypertension, hyperlipidemia, atherosclerosis, diabetes, SLE, past TIAs, age, heart disease, obstructive sleep apnea, and a combination of smoking and oral contraceptives

120
Q

signs of a CVA

A

sudden weakness and tingling, often on one side of the face or arm, flaccid paralysis, temporary loss of speech and vision, severe headache, and dizziness

121
Q

hemorrhage CVA signs

A

severe headache and confusion

122
Q

treatment for CVA

A

immediate administration of clot busting agents like tissue plasminogen activator

123
Q

cerebral aneurysms

A

are localized dilations in an artery at weak points and commonly occur at points of bifurcation in the circle of willis due to hypertension

124
Q

result of a ruptured aneurysm

A

bleeding into the subarachnoid space and CSF, inflammatory response, irritation to nerves, increased ICP, and vasospasm

125
Q

small leak from an aneurysm

A

is likely to cause a headache, photophobia, intermediate periods of dysfunction like speech, confusion, or weakness, and nuchal rigidity

126
Q

nuchal rigidity

A

is a stiff or extended neck due to blood irritating spinal nerves and causing contractions of the neck; common with a small leak from an aneurysm

127
Q

massive leak from an aneurysm

A

blinding headache, vomiting, visual problems, seizures, and loss of consciousness

128
Q

meningitis

A

is a viral, bacterial, or fungal infection of the meninges in which the microbe can reach the brain through the blood, a nearby tissue, or trauma

129
Q

how does the microbe reach the brain in meningitis?

A

they can bind to nasopharyngeal cells, cross the mucosa, attach to the choroid plexus and enter the CSF

130
Q

how does the brain appear in meningitis?

A

pia and arachnoid layers become edematous, purulent exudate fills in spaces between sulci, and the brain appears flat, and the vessels supplying the brain are dilated

131
Q

classic meningitis pathogen

A

neisseria meningitidis, or meningococcus

132
Q

most common meningitis pathogen in infants

A

E coli

133
Q

most common meningitis pathogen in young children

A

Haemophilus influenzae

134
Q

most common meningitis pathogen in the elderly

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

135
Q

signs of meningitis

A

fever, chills, headache, back pain, stiff neck, photophobia, and signs of increased ICP; Kernig sign and Brudzinski sign may also be present

136
Q

Brudzinski sign

A

neck flexion causes flexion of hip and knee

137
Q

Kernig sign

A

resistance to leg extension when lying with the hip flexed

138
Q

meningococcal infections signs

A

rose-colored petechial rash or extensive ecchymoses over the body, feeding difficulties, and high pitched cry in newborn

139
Q

fulminant meningitis

A

means severe; signs are disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhage of the adrenal gland; causes vascular collapse, shock, and death

140
Q

abscess

A

is a localized infection, usually in the temporal or frontal lobes, causing necrosis and edema in the brain

141
Q

what do abscesses result from?

A

spread of infection from the throat, ear, lung, or sinus

142
Q

common organisms causing abscesses

A

staphylococci, streptococci, and pneumococci

143
Q

signs of a brain abscess

A

signs of neurological deficits and increased ICP

144
Q

encephalitis

A

is an infection, usually viral, of the CT in the brain and spinal cord, particularly of the basal ganglia

145
Q

signs of an encephalitis infection

A

headache, stiff neck, lethargy, vomiting, fever, and seizures

146
Q

types of encephalitis spread by mosquitoes

A

western equine encephalitis, st. louis encephalitis, and west nile fever

147
Q

neuroborreliosis causative organsism

A

aka lyme; is a spirochete called Borrelia burgdorferi that is transmitted by tick bites

148
Q

sign of a tick bite

A

red with a pale centre that gradually increases in size; called bulls eye

149
Q

signs of neuroborreliosis/lyme

A

fever, headache, sore throat, dry cough, inflammation in large joints, cardiac arrhythmias, and neurological effects

150
Q

herpes simplex encephalitis

A

can cause necrosis and hemorrhage in the brain, often affecting the frontal and temporal lobes

151
Q

amoebic meningoencephalitis

A

is spread from the amoeba Naegleria fowleri that thrives in warm water and is usually fatal

152
Q

rabies

A

transmitted by wild animal bites and causes inflammation and necrosis in the brainstem and basal nuclei

153
Q

signs of rabies

A

headache, fever, nervous hyperirritability, seizures, difficulty swallowing, and impaired respirations

154
Q

tetanus causative organism

A

clostridium tetani, a spore-forming bacillus

155
Q

signs of tetanus

A

jaw stiffness, muscle spasms, difficulty swallowing, stiff neck, and eventually respiratory failure

156
Q

poliomyelitis

A

is a highly contagious virus that attacks motor neurons of the spinal cord and brainstem, causing effects ranging from flulike symptoms to respiratory failure and paralysis

157
Q

signs of poliomyelitis

A

fever, vomiting, headache, stiff neck, and flaccid paralysis

158
Q

herpes zoster causative agent

A

varicella-zoster virus often following the primary infection of chickenpox

159
Q

herpes zoster signs

A

affects a single cranial nerve or dermatome, causing pain, paresthesia, and a vesicular rash to develop in a unilateral line usually on the face or lumbar trunk

160
Q

postpolio syndrome

A

occurs 10-40 years after the original polio infection causing progressive muscle weakness, atrophy, and pain; the more severe the original infection, the more severe PPS will be

161
Q

pathophysiology of postpolio syndrome

A

surviving motor neurons later degenerate and die, due to creating new axon branches to serve muscle cells but couldn’t keep up

162
Q

reye syndrome cause

A

is due to treating children with a viral infection, like influenza, with aspirin, causing changes in the brain and liver

163
Q

signs of reye syndrome

A

lethargy, headache, vomiting, disorientation, hyperreflexia, hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and seizures

164
Q

Guillain–Barré syndrome

A

is an inflammatory condition of the PNS which is thought to be an autoimmune response following viral infection, causing demyelination of motor nerves, then sensory nerves

165
Q

how does Guillain–Barré syndrome progress?

A

inflammation and degeneration of nerves begins in the legs, and ascends to involve the spinal nerves of the trunk and neck; can be dangerous if respiratory muscles are affected

166
Q

Guillain–Barré syndrome signs

A

progressive muscle weakness and lack of reflexes, parthesthia, muscle aching, vision and speech may be impaired, or even swallowing and respiration in serious cases

167
Q

concussion

A

is reversible damage to the brain caused by injury, causing excessive movement of the brain, which can result in temporary confusion, memory loss, and headaches

168
Q

amnesia

A

means memory loss

169
Q

contusion

A

is bruising of the brain which may result from rupture of a small vessel and edema

170
Q

closed head injury

A

is when the skull is not fractured but the brain tissue is injured and vessels may rupture

171
Q

open head injury

A

involves fractures or penetrations of the brain by sharp objects

172
Q

compound fractures

A

occur when the brain is exposed to the environment, in which risk of infection is high

173
Q

depressed fractures

A

involve the displacement of a bone below the skull that compresses the brain tissue; blood supply is impaired and pressure is exerted on the brain

174
Q

basilar fractures

A

occur at the base of the skull and often cause blood and CSF to leak through the nose or ears

175
Q

contrecoup injuries

A

occur when an area contralateral to the injury is injured due to the brain bouncing off the skull

176
Q

primary brain injuries

A

are direct injuries that involve lacerations and crushing of the brain structures

177
Q

shearing injury

A

refers to the lobes against each other

178
Q

secondary brain injuries

A

result from complications like hemorrhage, edema, vasospasm, hematoma, or infection; this is characterized by the development of additional injurious factors

179
Q

hematoma

A

is a collection of blood under the tissue that results from a rupture

180
Q

epidural hematoma

A

results from bleeding between the dura and the skull, usually caused by tearing of the middle meningeal artery in the temporal region

181
Q

subdural hematoma

A

develops between the dura and the arachnoid, usually the result of a tear in a small vein

182
Q

hygroma

A

refers to CSF leaking into the subdural space

183
Q

subarachnoid hematoma

A

develops between the arachnoid and pia and is associated with bleeding at the base of the brain

184
Q

intracerebral hematoma

A

results from contusions or shearing injuries and often develop several days after injury

185
Q

complications of hematomas

A

leads to pressure on local structures and increased ICP, blood cells may undergo hemolysis, and this results in osmotic pressure draws more fluid into this area, exacerbating these effects

186
Q

otthrea

A

refers to CSF leaking from the ear

187
Q

rhinorrhea

A

refers to CSF leaking from the nose

188
Q

possible signs of a head injury

A

seizures, cranial nerve damage, otthea or rhinorrhea, otorrhagia, fever, and stress ulcers

189
Q

otorrhagia

A

is blood leaking through the ear at a fracture site

190
Q

where do most spinal cord injuries occur?

A

at areas that provide more mobility and less support, ex. C1-C7 and T12-L2

191
Q

what do cervical spine injuries often result from?

A

hyperflexion or hyperextension of the neck

192
Q

types of spinal cord injuries

A

hyperflexion, hyperextension, compression fractures, dislocation of the vertebrae, and penetration injuries

193
Q

types of vertebrae fractures

A

compression, wedge, dislocation, or simple

194
Q

wedge fracture meaning

A

displaced angular section of bone

195
Q

bruising of the spinal cord

A

will result in temporary bleeding and edema

196
Q

efffects of cervical spinal cord injuries

A

inflammation can extend upwards, interfering with phrenic nerve innervation, thus affecting respiration; can also impair vasomotor tone, blood pressure, body temperature, and bladder and bowel emptying

197
Q

spinal shock

A

occurs in the initial period following injury when conduction of impulses through nerves ceases, causing impairment at, slightly above, and below the level of injury

198
Q

signs of spinal shock

A

varies depending on the level, but includes no reflexes, no control of skeletal muscle, and impaired autonomic function, including bladder and bowel

199
Q

tetraplegia/ quadriplegia

A

paralysis of all four limbs

200
Q

paraplegia

A

paralysis of the trunk and lower limbs

201
Q

autonomic dysreflexia

A

can result from injury at the cervical level, and includes the triggering of a massive sympathetic response that cannot be controlled by the brain; usually is triggered by a distended bladder or debictus ulcers

202
Q

signs of autonomic dysreflexia

A

vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, severe headache, and visual impairment

203
Q

complications of autonomic dysreflexia

A

stroke and heart failure

204
Q

complications of spinal cord injuries

A

decubitus ulcers, contractures, muscle spasms, impaired respiratory and urinary function, and impaired sexual function/reproduction

205
Q

A criteria for a spinal cord injury

A

no motor or sensory function in the sacral reigons

206
Q

E criteria for a spinal cord injury

A

motor and sensory function are normal

207
Q

is sensory or motor function gained back first from spinal cord injuries?

A

sensory

208
Q

leading cause of death for spinal cord injuries

A

pneumonia, second is renal failure

209
Q

heart conditions that may cause a CVA

A

problems with the left ventricle, endocarditis, MI, prosthetic valves, and atrial fibrillation

Anatomy and Phyisology (94 decks)

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