BIOL exam review Flashcards

1
Q

anatomy of the cerebellum (inc. fissures and lobes)

A

2 fissures are horizontal and primary; 3 lobes are anterior, posterior, and flocculonodular; foldings are called folia; and arbor vitae is the tree structure

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2
Q

superior cerebellar peduncle

A

projects to the red thalamus and the thalamus

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3
Q

middle cerebellar peduncle

A

carries information from the voluntary nucleus to the pontine nucleus

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4
Q

inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

carries information for balance and equilibrium

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5
Q

what in the hypothalamus regulates sleep?

A

the suprachiasmatic nucleus

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6
Q

what are the falx?

A

extensions of dura mater

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7
Q

where is the primary gustatory centre?

A

located in the insular lobe

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8
Q

where is the primary auditory centre?

A

located below the gustatory centre in the superior temporal lobe or sylvian fissure

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9
Q

anatomy of dura mater

A

dense irregular CT

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10
Q

process of CSF reabsorption name

A

arachnoid granulation

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11
Q

RAS anatomy

A

white and grey matter arranged in a net and includes ascending and descending tracts

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12
Q

3 nuclei of the RAS

A

lateral, medial, and raphe

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13
Q

functions of the RAS

A

behaviour, consciousness, falling asleep, waking up, and preventing sensory overload

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14
Q

cerebral peduncles

A

are extensions of the corticospinal tract and connect the cerebrum to the lower CNS; located in the ventral midbrain and pons

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15
Q

where is the hypothalamus located?

A

anterior to the thalamus

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16
Q

pons functions

A

respiration (via pneumotaxic and apneustic centres), connection between the cerebellum, and pontine nucleus

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17
Q

pontine nucleus

A

functions for the coordination of voluntary motor control

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18
Q

CSF composition

A

water, solutes (Na, K, Ca, Mg), lactic acid, glucose, urea, proteins, and sometimes WBCs

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19
Q

functions of CSF

A

protection, buoyancy, removal of waste, nourishment, and homeostasis via hormones from the hypothalamus

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20
Q

inferior olivary nuclei

A

relay sensory information from muscles and joints to the cerebellum

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21
Q

olives in medulla

A

contains many nuclei including inferior olivary, respiratory, cardiovascular, sneezing, vomiting, and coughing

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22
Q

what do somites develop into?

A

the dermis, skeletal muscle, and the axial skeleton

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23
Q

what does the neural crest develop into?

A

the PNS

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24
Q

what does the notochord develop into?

A

the nucleus pulposus of the vertebrae

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25
Q

what is the neural plate derived from?

A

the ectoderm

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26
Q

notochord

A

is derived from the mesoderm and is a cartilage rod in embryos

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27
Q

anatomy of ependymal cells

A

cuboidal with cilia

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28
Q

where is the tectum reflex located?

A

the midbrain

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29
Q

function of posterior and anterior lobes of the cerebellum

A

subconscious control of skeletal muscle

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30
Q

function of flocculonodular lobe

A

balance and equilibrium

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31
Q

are peduncles white or grey matter?

A

white

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32
Q

parietal lobe functions

A

touch, taste, and smell

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33
Q

Lateral cerebral sulcus

A

divides frontal and temporal lobes from the parietal lobe

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34
Q

straight sinus

A

at the bottom of the skull and receives blood from the inferior sagittal sinus that will later be returned to venous blood supply

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35
Q

strong acid + weak base

A

HCl + NaHCO3 > NaCl + H2CO3

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36
Q

strong base + weak acid

A

NaOH + H2CO3 > NaHCO3 + H20

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37
Q

relaxed bladder

A

motor neurons are firing, detrusor muscle is relaxed, and sphincter are contracted

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38
Q

full bladder

A

motor neurons stop firing and stretch receptors fire, detrusor muscle is contracted, and sphincters are relaxed

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39
Q

what cells does ADH act on?

A

principal cells, specifically binds to V2 receptors

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40
Q

what does aldosterone bind to?

A

mineralocorticoid receptors in the cytoplasm

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41
Q

what is aldosterone produced by?

A

the adrenal cortex

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42
Q

what does H+ buffer with in the urine?

A

NH3 and HPO4–, forming NH4+ and H2PO4-

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43
Q

hormones released when calcium is low

A

PTH and calcitriol

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44
Q

hormone released when calcium is high

A

calcitonin

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45
Q

where are proton pumps found?

A

intercalated cells in the CD

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46
Q

what does ANG II bind to?

A

AT1 receptors

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47
Q

renal capsule anatomy

A

innermost layer and is fibrous, irregular CT

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48
Q

renal fascia anatomy

A

outermost layer and is dense irregular CT and collagen

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49
Q

3 layers of the ureters

A

transitional epithelium with lamina propria, 2 layers of muscularis, and adventitia

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50
Q

adventitia anatomy

A

fibrous irregular CT

51
Q

bladder 3 layers

A

transitional epithelium with lamina propria, goblet cells, and rugae, muscularis which is 3 layers of detrusor, and adventitia or serosa (only superior region)

52
Q

urethra epithelium

A

transitional near top, pseudostratified columnar in middle, and nonkeratinized stratified squamous at bottom

53
Q

macula densa cells function and locaton

A

are chemoreceptors that respond to NaCl concentration are are found lining the ascending limb

54
Q

mesangial cells function and location

A

send signals between MD and JG cells and control HSP via contractile abilities and are found between the tubule cells and the arterioles

55
Q

JG cells function and location

A

are mechanoreceptors that sense BP and contract and/or release renin and are found lining the afferent arteriole

56
Q

general vs special senses

A

general senses have their cells distributed throughout the body whereas special senses have an organ devoted to them, ex. the ear

57
Q

somatic sense

A

detect mechanical stimuli and are all tactile senses (touch), pain, and proprioception

58
Q

visceral sense

A

are conscious/subconsciousness awareness of visceral organs, ex. blood pressure

59
Q

first order neurons

A

receive sensory information from sensory receptors are there are three types (free nerve endings, encapsulated endings, and specialized receptor cells)

60
Q

second order neurons

A

synapse with FON in the dorsal horn or medullary nuclei and extend up to the thalamus or cerebellum to synapse with TON

61
Q

third order neurons

A

synapse with SON in the thalamus and extend to the postcentral gyrus in the primary somatosensory area

62
Q

where does the gracile fasciculus receive input from?

A

the lower limbs

63
Q

where does the cuneate fasciculus receive input from?

A

the upper limbs

64
Q

dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway

A

FON will travel from the sensory receptor to the spinal cord and up the gracile or cuneate ascending pathway; it will synapse with the SON in the gracile or cuneate nucleus of the medulla and then immediately decussate; this will synapse with the TON in the thalamus and extend up to the primary somatosensory area in the postcentral gyrus

65
Q

free-nerve endings

A

dendrites will detect the stimulus directly and these are abundant in epithelia and CT; associated with pain, temperature, and light touch

66
Q

encapsulated endings

A

dendrites are wrapped in a specialized CT and these are associated with mechanical stimuli like pressure and vibration; ex. meissner’s corpuscles and pacinian corpuscles

67
Q

specialised-receptor cells

A

FON interacts with a neurotransmitter released by a specialised receptor cell; usually is associated with the special senses

68
Q

proprioceptor

A

sensory receptors that respond to stretch in muscles, ligaments, tendons, etc. and inform the brain of one’s movement

69
Q

adaptation

A

refers to how quickly you become acclimated to a stimulus when it is sustained; types are rapidly adapting and slow adapting

70
Q

basal nuclei

A

group of CNS neurons that are involved in emotion and habitual behaviour; includes the caudate nucleus and the putamen

71
Q

examples of direct pathways

A

anterior and lateral corticospinal tracts; UMNs synapse directly with LMNs

72
Q

lateral corticospinal tract

A

decussates and controls fine, precise movements of the digits

73
Q

anterior corticospinal tract

A

does not decussate and controls posture and balance in the axial muscles

74
Q

3 main differences between sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

A

their origin sites, the length of their fibres, and the location of their ganglia

75
Q

origin site of parasympathetic system

A

brain and sacral spinal cord, hence crainosacral

76
Q

origin site of sympathetic system

A

thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, hence thoracolumbar

77
Q

length of parasympathetic fibres

A

long preganglionic and short postganglionic

78
Q

length of sympathetic fibres

A

short preganglionic and long postganglionic

79
Q

location of ganglia for parasympathetic system

A

near their effector

80
Q

location of ganglia for sympathetic system

A

near the spinal cord, forming the sympathetic trunk

81
Q

preganglionic fibres

A

cell body is located in the CNS and axon is myelinated

82
Q

postganglionic fibres

A

cell body is located in PNS and axon is unmyelinated

83
Q

thoracolumbar region landmarks

A

T1-L2

84
Q

3 splanic nerves and function

A

greater, lesser, and lumbar; these innervate the celiac plexus to inhibit digestion

85
Q

ventral ramus

A

is one of the two primary branches exiting the spinal nerve and further breaks down into white and grey rami communicantes

86
Q

white ramus communicantes

A

carries the preganglionic fibre that is myelinated to synapse with the post in the sympathetic trunk

87
Q

grey ramus communicantes

A

carries the postganglionic fibres that is unmyelinated after it synapses with the pre in the sympathetic trunk

88
Q

sympathetic trunk

A

is a chain of sympathetic ganglia lying on either side of the spinal cord

89
Q

passing through the trunk without synapsing

A

the preganglionic nerve will travel through additional branches to the splanic nerve to synapse in a distant collateral ganglion; associated with controlling organs in the abdominal cavity

90
Q

visceral reflex

A

has the same components as a normal reflex arc but the effector is a viscera and there is a pre and post nerve

91
Q

two types of general senses

A

somatic senses and visceral senses

92
Q

components of tears

A

water, saline, lysozyme, antibodies, and mucus

93
Q

cornea composition

A

stratified squamous on one side and simple squamous on the other side; Na pumps keep inside clear; nerve endings are abundant here

94
Q

retinal in the presence of light

A

takes the all-trans shape

95
Q

trochlea

A

is the fibrocartilaginous ring that the tendon of the superior oblique muscle hooks through

96
Q

ora serrata

A

is the point where the retina terminates into the posterior ciliary body

97
Q

where does aqueous humor come from?

A

capillaries of ciliary bodies

98
Q

where is aqueous humor drained from?

A

scleral venous sinus

99
Q

retinal

A

is a vitamin A derived molecule and part of the rhodopsin complex; can take 11-cis or all-trans shape

100
Q

PDE

A

phosphodiesterase

101
Q

phototransduction in the photoreceptor simple

A

light presence causes retinal to take all-trans shape, releasing G protein transducin; this binds to PDE which converts cGMP to GMP; this causes the cation gates to close and for the cell to hyperpolarize and for no neurotransmitter to be released

102
Q

visual pathway G protein name

A

transducin

103
Q

olfactory epithelium

A

is pseudostratified ciliated (nonmotile) epithelium; mucus secreting columnar cells and basal cells are also present

104
Q

what is superior to the olfactory epithelium?

A

the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and mitral cells

105
Q

olfactory G-protein pathway simple

A

odorant binding to a receptor releasing G protein Golf; this binds to adenylate cyclase; this converts ATP to Camp; this causes cation channels to open and for depolarization to occur

106
Q

most abundant papillae

A

fungiform

107
Q

foliate papillae

A

found on the lateral sides of the tongue

108
Q

two main cells for taste

A

gustatory cells and basal cells

109
Q

cranial nerves for taste

A

facial is responsible for the first 2/3 of the tongue; glossopharyngeal is posterior 1/3; vagus is epiglottis

110
Q

gustatory pathway for salty and sour

A

Na+ and H+ ions simply move into channels and cause a depolarization of the membrane, firing an AP

111
Q

gustatory pathway for sweet, bitter, and umami

A

tastant molecule binds to a receptor, releasing G protein gustducin; this binds to phospholipase C; this causes IP3 to causes Ca+ intracellular stores to be released, causing a depolarization and an AP

112
Q

where do vibrations travel through in the cochlea?

A

first the scala vestibuli then the scala tympani; at the scala tympani, the vibrations are transmitted to the basilar membrane which vibrates against the stationary tectorial membrane, causing the hair cells to bend

113
Q

organ of corti

A

is located within the cochlea and transmits sound vibrations into electrical signals through the cranial nerve VIII

114
Q

what are the name of hair cells in the organ of corti?

A

stereocilia

115
Q

organ of corti, which membrane is moving and which is stationary?

A

the basilar membrane is moving and the tectorial membrane is stationary

116
Q

semicircular canals

A

detect rotational acceleration along 3 axis

117
Q

what are otoliths?

A

CaCO3 crystals embedded in gel at the tips of stereocilia

118
Q

urticle

A

detects horizontal movement

119
Q

saccule

A

detects vertical movement

120
Q

temporal vs nasal sides in the visual pathway

A

nasal decussates whereas temporal does not

121
Q

visual pathway synapses

A

FON will synapse with the SON in the thalamus and project to occipital lobe; decussation occurs for nasal side only

122
Q

olfactory pathway synapses

A

FON will synapse with SON (mitral cell) and extend to the primary olfactory centre; no decussation occurs

123
Q

gustatory pathway synapses

A

FON synapses with SON in the gustatory nucleus in the medulla; SON synapses with TON in the thalamus; TON extends to primary somatosensory region; no decussation occurs

124
Q

auditory pathway synapses

A

FON will synapse with SON in the lower pons (decussation may occur here); SON synapses with TON in the upper pons; TON extends to inferior colliculi of the midbrain to synapse with another neuron; this neuron synapses with another neuron in the thalamus which extends to the primary somatosensory region