HLTH module 3: infection Flashcards

1
Q

when does an infection occur?

A

when a microbe or parasite is able to reproduce in or on the body’s tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

reservoir

A

the source of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

direct contact of infection

A

occurs for microbes in the blood, body secretions or a lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the cause of syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the cause of toxoplasmosis

A

toxoplasma gondii; results in many neurologic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how can indirect contact from injection occur?

A

involves an intermediate object such as a contaminated food or hand that carry organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

droplet transmission

A

can be oral or respiratory and occurs when respiratory or salivary secretions containing pathogens are expelled from the body and then transferred to another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

aerosol transmission

A

involves small particles from the respiratory tract that remain suspended in the air and travel on air currents, infecting any new host that inhales the particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

vector-borne

A

occurs when an insect or animal serves as an intermediary host in a disease such as malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

nosocomial infections

A

those that occurs in health care facilities such as hospitals, nursing homes, doctors offices, and dental offices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

interferons

A

proteins produced by human host cells in response to viral invasion of the cell; these influence the activity of nearby host cells, increasing their resistance to viral invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

factors that decrease host resistance

A

age (infants and elderly), genetic susceptibility, immunodeficiency, malnutrition, chronic disease, severe stress, inflammation or trauma affecting the skin or mucosa, and impaired inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pathogenicity

A

the capacity of microbes to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

virulence

A

the degree of pathogenicity of a specific microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

factors that virulence is based on

A

invasive qualities, toxic qualities, adherence to tissue, and the ability to avoid host defences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

toxic qualities

A

the production of enzymes, exotoxins, and endotoxins that damage host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how can microbes avoid host defences?

A

frequent mutations which cause antibodies to no longer be effective, so the individual is no longer protected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can microbes adhere to tissues?

A

by pili, fimbriae, capsules, or specific membrane receptor sites; certain organisms tend to establish infection in particular areas of the body that are hospitable to that microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

methods for controlling infection

A

locating and removing the reservoir, blocking the portal of exit of microbes, knowledge of the mode of transmission, adequate cleaning of surrounding (includes sterilization, disinfectants, and antiseptics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

universal precautions

A

provide the basic guidelines by which all blood, body fluids, and wastes are considered ‘infected’ in any patient regardless of their conditions; two levels (general and specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

antisepetics

A

antimicrobial chemicals designed to be used on living tissue, ex. isopropyl alcohol or hand sanitizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

sterilization

A

complete destruction/removal of all microorganisms by exposure to heat; ex. autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

disinfectants

A

chemical solutions designed to be used on living surfaces that destroy microorganisms and their toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

incubation period

A

the time that the body is exposed to the organism and the appearance of clinical signs, these vary lots; the organism is producing lots until there are sufficient number to cause adverse effects in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

prodromal period

A

the period of early symptoms when the infected person may feel fatigued, lose appetite, or have a headache; ‘im coming down with something’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute period

A

period when the infectious disease develops fully and the clinical manifestations reach a peak; time varies based on pathogen and host resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

convalescent period

A

the period of recovery when signs subside and body processes return to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4 stages of infection

A

incubation period, prodromal period, acute period, and convalescent period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

local infection

A

organism enters the body and remains confined to a specific location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

focal infections

A

pathogen spreads from a local infection to other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

systemic infections

A

infection spreads to other sites and tissue fluids, typically through the circulatory system

32
Q

septicemia

A

caused by multiplication of pathogenic organisms in the blood and the cause of sepsis

33
Q

bacteremia

A

presence of bacteria in the blood

34
Q

toxemia

A

presence of toxins in the blood

35
Q

viremia

A

presence of viruses in the blood

36
Q

mixed infections

A

several infectious agents concurrently establish themselves at the same site

37
Q

acute infections

A

appear rapidly with severe symptoms but are short lived

38
Q

chronic infections

A

less severe symptoms than acute infections but persist for a long time

39
Q

primary infections

A

initial or first time exposure/infection

40
Q

secondary infections

A

follow a primary infection and are caused by a different microbe

41
Q

subclinical infections

A

do not cause apparent signs or symptoms although may persist over long periods of time

42
Q

local signs of infection

A

generally those of inflammation: red, tenderness, swelling, pain, and warmth (sometimes pus); can also be signs in the respiratory tract such as sneezing or those in the GI tract

43
Q

when is pus present?

A

when the infection is caused by a bacteria

44
Q

systemic signs of infection

A

fever, fatigue, weakness, headache, and nausea; severe infections can cause neurological effects like confusion, seizures, and a loss of consciousness

45
Q

how are organisms identified?

A

by culture or staining techniques, by blood tests, by rapid tests, and radiologic examination

46
Q

what do blood tests look for in infections?

A

the number of WBCs; bacterial infections have an increase of WBCs where viral infections have a decrease in WBCs; inflammation also results in high erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive proteins

47
Q

leukopenia

A

decrease in WBCs

48
Q

leukocytosis

A

increase in WBCs

49
Q

rapid tests

A

based on metabolic and serologic characteristics of the organisms and provide quick and accurate identification of the pathogen

50
Q

why is proper use of antibiotics important?

A

because improper use can cause resistant organisms to dominate an infection that may have had few resistant organisms at the onset; the weaker ones are thus killed and the stronger ones survive

51
Q

guidelines for effective drug therapy

A

the drug should be taken at 24 hour interval, the drug should be taken until it is completely used, fluid and food intake must be followed, use the drug that has the smallest impact on resident flora, have a complete drug and allergy history, and not using antibacterials against viruses

52
Q

antimicrobials

A

classified by the type of microbe against which the drug is active; includes antibiotics, antivirals, and antifungals

53
Q

antibiotics

A

can kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms

54
Q

bactericidal drugs

A

drugs that kill bacteria

55
Q

bacteriostatic drugs

A

drugs that inhibit bacterial reproduction and rely on the host to ultimately destroy the bacteria

56
Q

broad spectrum

A

refers to antibacterials that are effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms

57
Q

narrow-spectrum agegents

A

act against either gram-negative or gram-positive microorganisms

58
Q

first-generation vs second-generation drugs

A

first-generation are the original drug class and second-generation are the later, improved version of the same drug group

59
Q

five ways that antibacterial drugs act

A

interference with cell wall synthesis, increase permeability of bacterial cell membrane, inference with protein synthesis, interference with nucleic acid synthesis, and disrupting critical metabolic processes

60
Q

common problems with antibacterial drugs

A

they often cause allergic reactions, mild or severe and interfere with the GI tract

61
Q

how do antiviral drugs work?

A

they decrease the reproduction of viruses inside the host cell or prevent the attachment/entry into a cell, but typically cannot destroy the virus

62
Q

how do antifungal drugs work?

A

by interfering with mitosis in fungi or increasing fungal membrane permeability; most are applied topically to the skin

63
Q

antiprotozoal agents

A

target eukaryotic cells and can be toxic to humans; similar to antifungal drugs

64
Q

antihelminthic agents

A

similar to antifungals and antiprotozoals in that they target a eukaryotic organism; suppress a metabolic process in the helminth or inhibit movement

65
Q

influenza

A

a viral infection that affects. both the upper and lower respiratory tracts; usually mild but is commonly complicated by secondary bacterial infections such as pneumonia

66
Q

classification of the influenza virus

A

RNA virus of the myxovirus group; three subgroups A, B, and C

67
Q

what is the most prevalent influenza subgroup

A

A; difficult to control as it goes through many mutations

68
Q

how are new influenza vaccines produced?

A

by using viruses grown in a cell culture rather than eggs

69
Q

where do most new influenza strains develop?

A

southeast asia

70
Q

how are influenza vaccines administered?

A

by intranasal spray (live vaccine) or intramuscular injection (inactivated or killed)

71
Q

how is influenza virus transmitted?

A

by respiratory droplet or by contact with a contaminated object

72
Q

where does the influenza virus persist?

A

in the cells of the respiratory mucosa; here it causes inflammation and necrosis of the tissue

73
Q

why does influenza cause people to be susceptible to secondary infections?

A

because the respiratory mucosa is necrosised, making it vunerable to other microbes entering the body

74
Q

general symptoms of influenza

A

a sudden, acute onset with fever and chills, marked by malaise, headache, muscle aching, sore throat, drug cough, and nasal congestion

75
Q
A