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PathMad > Chapter 2: Developmental, Congenital, and Childhood Diseases and Disorders: Overview > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Developmental, Congenital, and Childhood Diseases and Disorders: Overview Flashcards

1
Q

first two months of gestation is considered

A

embryonic period

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2
Q

from two months two birth of gestation is considered

A

fetus period

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3
Q

what occurs at the end of 1 month prenatal development

A

arms and legs form; heart forms and beats

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4
Q

what occurs at the end of 2 month prenatal development

A

major brain regions present; ossification begins; blood vessels and cardiovascular developed

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5
Q

what occurs at the end of 3 month prenatal development

A

facial features present; fetus move; heart beat is detected

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6
Q

what occurs at the end of 4 month prenatal development

A

facial features formed; hair appears; joints form

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7
Q

what occurs at the end of 5 month prenatal development

A

mother feels movement; covered with lanugo; skin coated with vernix

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8
Q

what occurs at the end of 6 month prenatal development

A

skin reddish due to capillaries visible; skin wrinkled

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9
Q

what occurs at the end of 7 month prenatal development

A

eyes open; scrotum develops and testes descend;

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10
Q

what occurs at the end of 8 month prenatal development

A

testes fully descend; sense of taste present

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11
Q

what occurs at the end of 9 month prenatal development

A

skin fades to pink; nails reach tips of fingers and toes or beyond

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12
Q

what occurs at the end of 10 month prenatal development

A

skin smooth and plump; lanugo hair shed; turns to a head-down position; full term

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13
Q

present at birth but might not be detected until later in infancy or childhood.

A

congenital anomalies

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14
Q

what causes congenital anomalies?

A

genetic, non genetic, or both

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15
Q

result of an abnormal gene taking up residence on one of the 22 pairs of nonsex chromosomes

A

autosomal inherited condition

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16
Q

occurs when only one gene of the pair has the ability to produce symptoms, thus making it power over the normal gene

A

dominant inheritance

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17
Q

what chance does a parent have of transferring a dominant inheritance gene

A

50%

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18
Q

abnormal genetic makeup must have genetic errors on both of the genes of the pair

A

autosomal recessive inheritance

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19
Q

what chance does a parent(s) have of transferring a recessive inheritance gene

A

25%

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20
Q

fluid sample from the amniotic sac between the 15th and 18th week of pregnancy

A

amniocentesis

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21
Q

be performed by the second month of pregnancy. gynecologist guided by ultrasound, directs and instrument toward the placenta in the womb and obtains a tissue sample

A

chorionic villus biopsy/sampling (CVB/CVS)

22
Q

result when the separation process of identical twins fails to complete before the 13th day after fertilization

A

conjoined twins

23
Q

conjoined twins occurs more often in female embryos

A

FREEBEE

24
Q

cranial union conjoined twins are called

A

craniopagus

25
Q

describes those twins who are joined posterior at the sacrum/iliac (butt) region

A

pygopagus

26
Q

when the connection proceeds from the breastbone to the waist

A

omphalopagus

27
Q

transports oxygen-rich blood and nutrients to the fetus

A

umbilical vein

28
Q

fifty percent of the blood from the umbilical vein passes into the liver, and the other fifty percent bypasses the liver by the way of

A

ductus venosus

29
Q

most of the blood entering the right atrium by the inferior vena cava is shunted directly into the left atrium through

A

foramen ovale

30
Q

vessel connects the pulmonary trunk to the descending area of the aortic arch

A

ductus arteriosus

31
Q

travels back to the placenta for exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste

A

umbilical arteries

32
Q

oxygenated blood does not mix with deoxygenated blood and the infant usually maintains a fairly normal pink skin color

A

acyanotic defects

33
Q

what are the four cyanotic defects

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Coarctation of the Aorta
Atrial septal defect (ASD)

34
Q

most common congenital cardiac disorder. abnormal opening between the right and left ventricles

A

ventricular septal defect

35
Q

results when the ductus fails to functionally close. shunting the circulation from the lungs and instead directs blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

A

patent ductus arteriosus

36
Q

Abnormal opening between the right and left atria. blood generally shunts from left to right in all ASD

A

atrial septal defect

37
Q

sign that the atrial blood is not fully oxygenated. blue tinge to the lips, tongue, and nail beds.

A

Cyanotic defects

38
Q

five main cardiac causes of central cyanosis are: (Only the first two listed are important)

A 
tetralogy of Fallot
transposition of the great arteries
truncus arteriosus 
tricuspid atresia 
total anomalous pulmonary venous return
39
Q

what four conditions does tetralogy of Fallot contain

A

VSD
pulmonary stenosis
dextroposition
right ventricular hypertrophy

40
Q

tightening of the pulmonary valve or vessel

A

pulmonary stenosis

41
Q

displacement to the right of the aorta, which causes the aorta to receive blood from both ventricles

A

dextroposition

42
Q

abnormally large right ventricle caused by increased pressure in the ventricle

A

right ventricle hypertrophy

43
Q

what is the notation for a human female

A

XX

44
Q

what is the notation for a human male

A

XY

45
Q

deletion of genetic material from chromosome 5 results in

A

Cri-du-chat (Cat’s cry syndrome)

46
Q

symptoms of Cri-du-chat are

A

microcephaly
deficiency of cerebral brain tissue
level of mental retardation

47
Q

characterized by hyperactive reflexes or rapid muscle contracts. type of cerebral palsy

A

spastic

48
Q

characterized by involuntary muscle movements, especially during stress, and reached muscle tone. type of cerebral palsy

A

athetoid

49
Q

characterized by lack of control over voluntary movements, poor balance, and a wide gait. type of cerebral palsy

A

ataxic

50
Q

a suspension of dead or attenuated organisms given to stimulate an active immune response that produces more or less permanent resistance to pathogenic organisms and viruses

A

vaccine

51
Q

no link between any vaccine and the development of autism spectrum disorders (ASD)

A

FREEBEE

52
Q

Individuals with autoimmune diseases must not be given vaccines containing live microorganisms

A

FREEBEE

PathMad (140 decks)

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