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Hematology, oncology > oncology > Flashcards

oncology Flashcards

1
Q

krukenberg tumor

A

A tumor in the ovary caused by the spread of stomach cancer.

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2
Q

Tissue of origin of leiomyosarcoma

A

A malignant (cancer) tumor of smooth muscle cells that can arise almost anywhere in the body

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3
Q

tumor thrombus

A

intravascular tumor extension

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4
Q

long term survivors of ALL are at increased risk of…

A

metabolic syndrome, including high BMI, truncal obesity, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance, and hypertension.

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5
Q

subtypes of hodgkin lymphoma

A

classic = nodular sclerosing, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte predominant, and lymphocyte depleted)
nonclassic subtype = (nodular lymphocyte-predominant subtype expressing the CD20 cell surface antigen)

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6
Q

fertility preservation options for women getting chemo

A

An established fertility preservation option for a woman with a partner is in vitro fertilization with embryo freezing. Newer options include freezing of unfertilized eggs and ovarian cryopreservation with future reimplantation.

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7
Q

first step in NSCLC workup

A

test for EGFR, ALK, c-ROS oncogene 1 [ROS1], BRAF) + assess PDL1 expression

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8
Q

How people can become deficient in mismatch repair genes

A

Tumors may be mismatch repair deficient either because of a germline mutation (Lynch syndrome) or a somatic mutation or epigenetic silencing that is limited to the tumor.

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9
Q

significance of deficiency in mismatch repair protein in CRC

A

Indicated for an immune checkpoint inhibitor, such as pembrolizumab

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10
Q

what wild type refers to

A

(nonmutated) genes

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11
Q

Use of PARP inhibitors in ovarian cancer

A

germline BRCA-mutated advanced ovarian cancer previously treated with three or more lines of chemotherapy

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12
Q

FOLFIRI and FOLFIRINOX components

A

5-FU, leucovorin, and irinotecan (); or 5-FU, leucovorin, irinotecan, and oxaliplatin ()

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13
Q

cancers requiring TLS prophylaxis

A

leukemia and Burkitt lymphoma and after treatment of bulky large B-cell lymphoma or advanced chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

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14
Q

TLS treatment

A 
ICU transfer
Telemetry
q6h BMP (monitor calcium, creatinine), phosphate, serum uric acid
rasburicase 0.2 mg/kg daily
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15
Q

typical chemo regimen for DLBCL

A

R-CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone)

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16
Q

advanced ovarian cancer management

A

surgery with debulking then intravenous (IV) and intraperitoneal (IP) cisplatin and paclitaxel chemotherapy.

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17
Q

origin of neuroendocrine tumors

A

Usually GI (intestinal or pancreas) but can also be from lungs or elswhere.

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18
Q

endocrine therapy for hormone receptor positive breast cancer

A

IF premenopausal → Tamoxifen for 10 years
Monitor for signs of endometrial cancer
IF postmenopausal → Anastrozole

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19
Q

observation vs active surveillance in prostate cancer management

A

Observation consists of periodic follow-up to assess symptoms related to cancer progression that require palliation. Active surveillance, however, is a plan to defer definitive prostate cancer therapy until there is evidence of cancer progression based on evidence from systematic monitoring, including changes in prostate-specific antigen level and findings on digital rectal examination, biopsy results, or both.

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20
Q

Idelalisib MOA + clinical use

A

a PI3K kinase inhibitor, is an oral agent that has shown significant activity for the treatment of relapsed follicular lymphoma.

21
Q

most common adult leukemia

A

CLL

22
Q

what are the b cell antigens

A

CD19, CD20, and CD23

23
Q

most common TLS conditions

A

Leukemia and Burkitt lymphoma and after treatment of bulky large B-cell lymphoma or advanced chronic lymphocytic leukemia

24
Q

concept of conversion chemotherapy

A

tumor is not believed to be currently resectable but could possibly become resectable if adequate tumor regression can be accomplished with chemotherapy

25
Q

general management of non muscle invasive bladder cancer

A

For patients with non−muscle invasive cancer, transurethral resection of the bladder tumor (TURBT) is the standard initial management. For those with high-grade or recurrent low-grade cancer, standard care is to follow TURBT with six rounds of intravesical chemotherapy, most commonly BCG or mitomycin given directly into the bladder. he risk of either recurrent cancer or a new bladder cancer arising elsewhere is significant. Therefore, after BCG or mitomycin treatment, it is essential to perform cystoscopy 3 months after treatment and subsequently at 3- to 6-month intervals to look for new cancers.

26
Q

use of palbociclib

A

Combination of antiestrogen therapy with palbociclib for hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative advanced breast cancer, with an increased response rate and an approximate doubling of progression-free survival compared to hormonal therapy alone.

27
Q

why you give leucovorin with FOLFOX regimen

A

drug 5-FU is usually given with the reduced folate leucovorin, which is inactive alone but causes 5-FU to bind more tightly to its target enzyme.

28
Q

Medication for NSCLC that expresses PDL1

A

pembrolizumab

29
Q

how pembrolizumab works

A

monoclonal antibody directed against PD-L1, and it blocks binding of this ligand to the programmed death receptor 1 receptor, preventing the cancer from silencing cellular immunity.

30
Q

management of non seminamotous germ cell tumor

A

BEP regimen – bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatinum

31
Q

what adeno means

A

glandular (secretory cells)

Glandular cells are found in tissue that lines certain internal organs and makes and releases substances in the body.

32
Q

what carcinoma means

A

Cancer derived from epithelial cell

33
Q

what sarcoma means

A

cancer that begins in bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, blood vessels, or other connective or supportive tissue.

34
Q

what squamous means

A

barrier function

contiguous spread

35
Q

predictive marker meaning

A

help identify specific aspects of the tumor that can guide clinicians in determining which therapies are or are not appropriate for particular patients.

36
Q

BRAF targeted treatment

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors targeting BRAF (vemurafenib and dabrafenib)

37
Q

two types of germ cell tumors

A

pure seminomas or nonseminomas.

38
Q

tumor markers in germ cell tumors

A

The serum α-fetoprotein level is never elevated in patients with pure seminomas, and β-human chorionic gonadotropin is elevated in only approximately 20% of patients with pure seminomas

39
Q

Non seminamotous cancer types

A

yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and embryonal carcinoma

40
Q

driver mutations to test for in NSCLC

A

(EGFR, ALK, c-ROS oncogene 1 [ROS1], BRAF) + assess PDL1 expression

41
Q

management of Stage III NSCLC

A
  • chemoradiotherapy (patients with bulky lymphadenopathy or mediastinal invasion aren’t candidates for surgery)
42
Q

first step with stage IV NSCLC

A

assess for PDL-1 expression

43
Q

first step with gastroesophageal cancer

A

test for HER2

44
Q

management of castrate sensitive prostate cancer

A

leuprolide plus docetaxel

45
Q

ADT mechanisms

A

Inhibiting androgen synthesis by using a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist (such as leuprolide) or blocking the androgen receptor with an antiandrogen agent (such as flutamide or bicalutamide). Bilateral orchiectomy is a reasonable alternative to GnRH agonist therapy, particularly in the very elderly.

46
Q

most common SE of docetaxel

A

myelosuppression

47
Q

meaning of term median survival

A

amount of time after which 50% of the patients have died and 50% have survived.

48
Q

macrocytic anemia section

A 
Chronic alcoholism → 
B12/Folate deficiency → 
hemolysis → 
COPD (rapid RBC turnover) →
myelodysplastic syndrome →  
medication side effect -->
49
Q

definition of tumor marker

A

biomarker found in blood, urine, or body tissues that can be elevated by the presence of one or more types of cancer.

Hematology, oncology (218 decks)

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